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UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Q1:  With reference to investments, consider the following:  
1. Bonds  
2. Hedge Funds  
3. Stocks   
4. Venture Capital 

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?   
(a) Only one 
(b) Only two 
(c) Only three 
(d) All the four 

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Ans: (b) Only two

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India, as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulations, are funds that invest in asset classes other than traditional investments like stocks, bonds, and cash. They include private equity, venture capital, hedge funds, and other non-conventional investments.

  • Bonds: These are traditional fixed-income securities and not classified as AIFs.
  • Hedge Funds: These are pooled investment funds using complex strategies and are considered AIFs under SEBI’s Category III.
  • Stocks: These are traditional equity investments and not classified as AIFs.
  • Venture Capital: These funds invest in startups and early-stage companies and are classified as AIFs under SEBI’s Category I.
    Thus, only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are treated as AIFs, making the answer two.


Q2: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?  
I. Buying and selling Government bonds  
II. Buying and selling foreign currency  
III. Pension fund management   
IV. Lending to private companies  
V. Printing and distributing currency notes 
Select the correct answer using the code given below.   
(a)
I and II only 
(b) II, III and IV 
(c) I, III, IV and V 
(d), II and V  

Ans: (a) I and II only

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSEView Answer  UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSE

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) generates income primarily through its monetary and financial operations:

  • I. Buying and selling Government bonds: Correct. The RBI earns interest on government securities it holds and profits from trading them in open market operations.
  • II. Buying and selling foreign currency: Correct. The RBI earns income through foreign exchange transactions, including gains from currency appreciation or forex reserves management.
  • III. Pension fund management: Incorrect. The RBI does not manage pension funds as a source of income; this is handled by entities like the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
  • IV. Lending to private companies: Incorrect. The RBI does not directly lend to private companies; it provides liquidity to banks and financial institutions.
  • V. Printing and distributing currency notes: Incorrect. Printing currency is a cost for the RBI, not a source of income, though it earns seigniorage (the difference between the face value of currency and its production cost) indirectly, but this is not the same as income from distribution.
    Thus, only I and II are correct.


Q3: Consider the following statements: 
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).  
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.  
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   
(a) 
I only 
(b) II only 
(c) Both I and II 
(d) Neither I nor II  

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Ans: (b) II only

  • Statement I: The RBI does not mandate the BRSR. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) mandates listed companies (top 1,000 by market capitalization) to submit a BRSR as part of their annual reporting to promote sustainability and ESG (Environmental, Social, Governance) disclosures. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
  • Statement II: Correct. The BRSR includes disclosures on non-financial metrics such as environmental impact, social responsibility, and governance practices, focusing on sustainability and ethical operations.
    Thus, only Statement II is correct.


Q4: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.   
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  
(a) 
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I   
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I 
(c) Statement I is correct Statement II is not correct but   
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

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Ans: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

Statement I: "In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.": This statement is incorrect.

  • Only agricultural income as defined under the Income-tax Act, 1961 is exempt from tax.
  • Activities like poultry farming, wool rearing, dairy, etc., are considered non-agricultural and are taxable, even if carried out in rural areas.

Statement II: "In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.": This statement is correct.

  • As per the Income-tax Act, rural agricultural land in India is not treated as a capital asset, so capital gains on its sale are not taxed.

Thus, the correct option is (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct


Q5: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.   
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.  
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.   

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   
(a)
Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II 
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct  

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Ans: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

  • Statement I: Correct. Bondholders are generally at lower risk than stockholders because they have a fixed claim (interest and principal) on the company’s assets, while stockholders bear the residual risk of ownership.
  • Statement II: Correct. Bondholders are lenders (creditors) who provide debt to the company, while stockholders are owners with equity stakes. This explains the lower risk for bondholders, as creditors have priority over ownersburgo shareholders.
  • Statement III: Correct. In case of liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders for repayment, as debt obligations are settled before equity claims. This also explains the lower risk for bondholders.
  • Both Statement II and Statement III explain why bondholders face lower risk (Statement I), as their creditor status and repayment priority reduce their exposure compared to stockholders.
    Thus, both II and III are correct and explain Statement I.


Q6: Consider the following statements:  
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.  
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. 
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.   
Which of the statements given above are correct?   
(a) 
I and Il only 
(b) II and III only 
(c) I and III only 
(d) I, II and III  

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Ans: (a) I and II only

  • Statement I: Correct. India has become a global leader in equity options trading, with the National Stock Exchange (NSE) accounting for a significant portion of global equity option contracts due to high trading volumes in index and stock options.
  • Statement II: Correct. India’s stock market has grown rapidly, with its market capitalization surpassing Hong Kong’s in early 2024, driven by strong economic growth and investor interest.
  • Statement III: Incorrect. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the stock market and options trading, issuing warnings to investors about risks and taking action against unregistered financial advisors. SEBI’s investor education initiatives and regulations on advisory services contradict this statement.
    Thus, only I and II are correct.


Q7: Consider the following statements: 
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.   
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.   
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.  
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   
(a)
Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I   
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I   
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct  

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Ans: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I   

  • Statement I: Correct. A circular economy reduces greenhouse gas emissions by promoting recycling, reuse, and sustainable production practices.
  • Statement II: Correct. The circular economy minimizes the use of raw materials by emphasizing recycling, refurbishing, and reusing resources. This reduces emissions by lowering the need for energy-intensive raw material extraction and processing.
  • Statement III: Correct. The circular economy reduces wastage in production through efficient design, recycling, and waste-to-resource strategies, which also lowers emissions.
  • Both Statements II and III explain how the circular economy reduces emissions (Statement I) by addressing resource efficiency and waste reduction.
    Thus, both II and III are correct and explain Statement I.


Q8: Consider the following statements: 
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.  
II.Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.  
III.Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.   
Which of the statements given above are correct?   
(a)
I and II only 
(b) II and III only 
(c) I and III only 
(d) I, II and III   

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Ans: (a) I and II only

  • Statement I: Correct. Capital receipts either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment of government-owned shares).
  • Statement II: Correct. Borrowings (e.g., loans or bonds) and disinvestment (e.g., selling stakes in public sector enterprises) are examples of capital receipts, as they affect the government’s balance sheet.
  • Statement III: Incorrect. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, as it does not create a liability or reduce assets but represents income earned.
    Thus, only I and II are correct.


Q9: Suppose the revenue expenditure is 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of 10,000 crores and interest payments of 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?  
I. Revenue deficit is 20,000 crores.   
II. Fiscal deficit is 10,000 crores.   
III. Primary deficit is 4,000 crores.    
Select the correct answer using the code given below.    
(a) I and II only  
(b) II and III only    
(c) I and III only    
(d) I, II and III   

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Ans: (d) I, II and III
Given:

  • Revenue Expenditure = ₹80,000 crore
  • Revenue Receipts = ₹60,000 crore
  • Borrowings (Fiscal Deficit) = ₹10,000 crore
  • Interest Payments = ₹6,000 crore

Calculations:

  1. Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
    = 80,000 – 60,000 = ₹20,000 crore
    Statement I is correct.

  2. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
    This is directly given as ₹10,000 crore (since borrowings fill the gap).
    Statement II is correct.

  3. Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
    = 10,000 – 6,000 = ₹4,000 crore
    Statement III is correct.
    Thus, Option (d) I, II and III is correct


Q10: A country's fiscal deficit stands at 50,000 crores. It is receiving 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?  
(a) 48,500 crores
(b) 51,500 crores
(c) 58,500 crores 
(d) None of the above

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Ans: (a) 48,500 crores

  • Fiscal Deficit = 50,000 crores.
  • Interest Liabilities = 1,500 crores.
  • Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – interest payments = 50,000 – 1,500 = 48,500 crores.
  • Non-debt creating capital receipts (e.g., disinvestment) do not affect the primary deficit calculation, as they are part of the fiscal deficit financing.
    Thus, the gross primary deficit is 48,500 crores.


Q11: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): 
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.   
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.  
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II.    
Which of the statements given above are correct?    
(a)
I and II only    
(b) II and III only    
(c) I and III only    
(d) I, II and III   

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Ans: (c) I and III only

  • Statement I: Correct. The IBRD, part of the World Bank, provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
  • Statement II: Incorrect. The IBRD works alongside other institutions, governments, and organizations to reduce poverty, not single-handedly.
  • Statement III: Correct. The IBRD was established in 1944 to help rebuild Europe after World War II, though its focus later expanded to global development.
    Thus, I and III are correct.


Q12: Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.  
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.   
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.    
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?    
(a)
I only    
(b) 
I and II    
(c) 
I and III     
(d) 
III only 

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Ans: (a) I only

  • Statement I: Correct. Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) processes transactions instantly, while National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) settles payments in batches, causing a delay.
  • Statement II: Incorrect. The RBI does not charge customers for inward RTGS or NEFT transactions; charges, if any, are determined by banks, and inward NEFT transactions are typically free.
  • Statement III: Incorrect. Both RTGS and NEFT operate 24/7 as of 2025, following RBI’s expansion of operating hours in recent years. There are no restrictions on specific days for either.
    Thus, only Statement I is correct.


Q13: Consider the following countries:  
I. United Arab Emirates   
II. France
III. Germany    
IV. Singapore   
V. Bangladesh   
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?    
(a) 
Only two    
(b) Only three    
(c) Only four    
(d) All the five

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSEView Answer  UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSE

Ans: (b) Only three

The countries where UPI international merchant payments are already accepted (excluding India) from your list are:

  1. United Arab Emirates
  2. France
  3. Singapore

Both Germany and Bangladesh are not currently supporting UPI-based merchant payments 

Thus, only three countries are accepted under UPI.

The document UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy | Indian Economy for UPSC CSE is a part of the UPSC Course Indian Economy for UPSC CSE.
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FAQs on UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Economy - Indian Economy for UPSC CSE

1. What are the major components of the Indian economy?
Ans. The Indian economy is primarily composed of three sectors: agriculture, industry, and services. Agriculture contributes significantly to employment and is vital for food security. The industrial sector encompasses manufacturing, mining, and construction, playing a crucial role in economic growth. The services sector has seen rapid expansion, including IT, telecommunications, finance, and tourism, contributing the largest share to GDP.
2. How does the Indian government influence the economy?
Ans. The Indian government influences the economy through various policies and measures, including fiscal policy (taxation and government spending), monetary policy (control of money supply and interest rates through the Reserve Bank of India), and regulatory frameworks. Additionally, the government initiates reforms to promote industrial growth, attract foreign investments, and ensure sustainable development.
3. What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India in the economy?
Ans. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a central role in the Indian economy by regulating the monetary policy, managing inflation, and ensuring financial stability. It acts as the banker to the government, manages foreign exchange, and regulates the banking sector. The RBI also implements measures to promote economic growth and maintain the stability of the financial system.
4. What are some significant economic reforms introduced in India?
Ans. Significant economic reforms in India include the liberalization policy initiated in 1991, which aimed to reduce government restrictions on the economy and encourage foreign investment. Other important reforms include the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) to simplify the tax structure, and the Make in India initiative to boost manufacturing and create jobs. These reforms have contributed to economic growth and increased competitiveness.
5. What challenges does the Indian economy currently face?
Ans. The Indian economy faces several challenges, including unemployment, inflation, and income inequality. Additionally, the informal sector's large size poses issues for labor rights and tax collection. Other challenges include infrastructure deficits, a need for sustainable development, and the impact of global economic fluctuations. Addressing these challenges is crucial for ensuring long-term economic stability and growth.
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