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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test - Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

  1. Sickle cell disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders that affect haemoglobin.
  2. The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem by 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 1

About the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission:

  • The Mission aims to address the pressing health challenges posed by sickle cell disease, particularly among the tribal population, will mark a crucial milestone in the Government’s ongoing efforts to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem by 2047. 
  • Objectives of the Mission:
    • Provision of affordable and accessible care to all SCD patients
    • To ensure quality of care for SCD patients
    • To reduce the prevalence of SCD
  • Health promotion- Awareness generation & pre-marital genetic counselling
    • Prevention: Universal screening and early detection
    • Holistic Management & continuum of care: Management of persons with sickle cell disease at primary, secondary and tertiary health care levels; treatment facilities at tertiary health care facilities Patient support system Community adoption.

About Sickle Cell disease:

  • Sickle cell disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders that affect haemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen through the body.
  • The red blood cells are disc-shaped and flexible enough to move easily through the blood vessels. If people have sickle cell disease, their red blood cells are crescent or “sickle” shaped. 
  • These cells do not bend or move easily and can block blood flow to the rest of their body leading to serious problems, including stroke, eye problems, infections, and episodes of pain called pain crises.
  • As per the Census 2011, India has an 8.6% tribal population, which is 67.8 million across the Indian states. 
  • The MoHFW tribal health expert committee report has listed sickle cell disease as one of the 10 special problems in tribal heath that affect the tribal people disproportionately, thus making this an important intervention. 
  • The program will be carried out in a mission mode covering the entire population from zero to 18 years of age and shall incrementally include the entire population up to 40 years as a part of National Health Mission.
  • In the initial stage, the mission would prioritise its intervention in high prevalence and tribal states/UT, the plan would subsequently expand to include all states/UTs in a phase-wise manner with an incremental approach.
  • The mission aims to cover 7 crore people with screening, counselling for prevention and care for people with SCD in three and half years.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 2

Consider the followings statements with reference to the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO):

  1. It detects the gravitational waves in space-time produced by the movement of large celestial objects. 
  2. The LIGO detectors are sensitive to distance changes that are several orders of magnitude smaller than the length of a proton. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 2

Recently, Scientists have found evidence to suggest that the universe is replete with low-frequency gravitational waves – ripples in the fabric of space-time, predicted by Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity more than 100 years ago.

About Gravitational Waves:

  • Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 using an experiment involving Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO) detectors.
  • But those waves were of high frequency and believed to have been produced by the merger of two relatively small black holes that took place about 1.3 billion years ago.
  • Scientists have been looking for low-frequency gravitational waves for decades. They believed that such ripples are perpetually rolling through space like background noise.
  • Pairs of supermassive black holes, sitting at the centre of galaxies, merge across the universe, generating gravitational waves. This breakthrough provides enough data to suggest that there is a gravitational wave background which exists in our universe.
  • To discover low-frequency gravitational waves, scientists used entirely different technologies that were carried out by radio astronomers representing five different international teams, including Indian Pulsar Timing Array (InPTA). 
  • The researchers used six large radio telescopes around the world, including the one in Pune, to study objects called pulsars, distant rapidly-rotating neutron stars that emit pulses of radiation, observed from the Earth as bright flashes of light. 
  • These bursts take place at exact intervals, and therefore scientists use pulsars as ‘cosmic clocks.
  • After examining 25 pulsars over 15 years, Scientists have proposed that the observed inconsistencies were due to deformities caused in space-time by gravitational waves. These irregularities showed consistent effects of the presence of gravitational waves.

About LIGO:

  • LIGO is an international network of laboratories that detect the ripples (gravitational waves) in space-time produced by the movement of large celestial objects like stars and planets
  • These ripples were first postulated in Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity, which encapsulates our current understanding of how gravitation works. 
  • The LIGO detectors are sensitive to distance changes that are several orders of magnitude smaller than the length of a proton. 
  • The experiment works by releasing light rays simultaneously in both chambers. Usually, the light should return at the same time in both chambers. 
  • However, if a gravitational wave passes through, one chamber elongates while the other squishes, resulting in a phase difference in the returning light rays. Detecting this phase difference confirms the presence of a gravitational wave.

What is Space-time?

  • In Special Theory of Relativity, Einstein proposed that space and time don’t exist as independent entities, combining the three dimensions (height, width and depth) of space and one dimension of time into a single four-dimensional continuum, known as space-time.

Hence both statements are correct.

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Crop Residue Management guidelines:

  1. The Centre and state governments will provide financial support for projects approved for residue management.
  2. The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged by the beneficiary such as farmers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 3

Recently, The Government has revised the Crop Residue Management guidelines enabling efficient ex-situ management of paddy straw generated in the States of Punjab, Haryana, UP and Delhi.

About Crop Residue Management guidelines:

  • As per the revised guidelines, techno-commercial pilot projects for Paddy Straw Supply Chain will be established under the bilateral agreement between the Beneficiary/Aggregator and Industries utilizing the paddy straw.
  • The beneficiary or aggregator can be Farmers, rural entrepreneurs, Cooperative Societies of Farmers, Farmers Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Panchayats.
  • The govt. shall provide financial assistance on the capital cost of machinery and equipment.
  • Project proposal-based financial assistance will be extended for machines and equipment such as higher HP tractors, cutters, tedder, medium to large balers, rakers, loaders, grabbers and tele-handlers.
  • State Governments shall approve these projects through project sanctioning committee.
  • Funding pattern:
  • The Centre and state governments will jointly provide financial support of 65 per cent of the project cost, while the industry as primary promoter of the project will contribute 25 per cent.
  • The remaining 10% will be contributed by beneficiary or aggregator.
  • The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged and prepared by the beneficiary as may be guided by the end use industry.

The Outcomes of the above interventions are:

  • Supplementing in-situ options: The initiative will complement the ongoing efforts for paddy straw management through in-situ methods.
  • Reduction in stubble burning: It is estimated that during the three-year duration of the interventions, approximately 1.5 million MT of surplus paddy straw will be collected, which would have otherwise been burnt in the fields.
  • Creation of biomass collection depots: Around 333 biomass collection depots with a capacity of 4,500 MT will be established in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Reduced air pollution: The project will significantly contribute to reducing air pollution caused by stubble burning, leading to cleaner and healthier environments.
  • Job creation: The interventions are expected to generate employment opportunities for approximately 900,000 man-days.
  • Encouraging a robust supply chain: The establishment of a paddy straw supply chain will facilitate its availability for various end-uses such as power generation, heat generation, bio-CNG, etc., by power/bio-CNG/bio-ethanol producers.
  • Stimulating investments: The development of a supply chain will attract new investments in the biomass-to-biofuel and energy sectors.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 4

Which of the following disasters are covered under the State Disaster Response Fund?

  1. Cyclone
  2. Pest attack
  3. Cloudburst
  4. Landslide

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 4

Recently, Home Minister approves release of Rs. 6,194 crore state disaster relief funds to 19 States.

Why in News?

  • The amount includes Rs.1,209.60 crore as Central share of the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) to four States (Chhattisgarh, Meghalaya, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh) for year 2022-23 and Rs.4,984.80 crore to 15 States (Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar etc.)
  • The release of funds will help States undertake relief measures during the current Monsoon season.

State Disaster Response Fund:

  • The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), constituted under Section 48 (1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
  • It is the primary fund available with State Governments for responses to notified disasters.
  • Contribution:
  • The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/UTs and 90% for special category States/UTs (NE States, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir). 
  • Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves.
  • Local Disaster: A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Based on the 15th Finance Commission recommendations, the Central Government has allocated over one lakh 28 thousand crore rupees for SDRF for the years 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Industrial Park Rating System:

  1. It was launched in India with the support of Asian Development Bank (ADB).
  2. It is a GIS-enabled database to facilitate investors to identify their preferred location for investment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 5

Recently, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) successfully organized the National Workshop on Industrial Park Rating System in New Delhi.

About Industrial Park Rating System:

  • IPRS was launched by DPIIT in 2018 with the support of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
  • Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) is an extension of the India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) platform which features more than 4,500 industrial parks.
  • It is a GIS-enabled database to facilitate investors to identify their preferred location for investment.
  • Aim: To rate the country’s industrial parks and special economic zones (SEZ).
  • It rates industrial parks across four pillars: internal infrastructure and utilities, external infrastructure and facilities, business support services, and environmental and safety management.
  • Industrial Parks and Special Economic Zones (SEZS) are classified into 3 categories: Leaders, Challengers and Aspirants.
  • This particular portal is integrated with the industry-based GIS system of the states and Union territories and plot-wise information in these are updated on a real-time basis.
  • Industrial Park Rating System Report 2.0
  • Based on the findings of the pilot and review of the global approaches, frameworks, and guidelines DPIIT introduced ‘IPRS 2.0’ in Oct, 2021 as a key enabler for identifying additional measures to enhance industrial competitiveness.
  • The Globally known frameworks were referred for developing the initial concept of IPRS 2.0 viz. the International Guidelines for Industrial Park (IGIP) developed by United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Eco-Industrial Park (EIP) framework developed by UNIDO, World Bank.

What Is a Special Economic Zone (SEZ):

  • A special economic zone is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
  • They are typically created in order to facilitate rapid economic growth by leveraging tax incentives to attract foreign investment and spark technological advancement.
  • The Special Economic Zones (SEZs) policy was launched in April, 2000.
  • SEZs being set up under The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 6

With reference to the Pardonong power of the President , consider the following statements:

  1. The President’s power to grant pardon extends to the cases where the sentence or punishment has been awarded by a Court Martial.
  2. The President can grant pardon in all cases, including the death sentence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 6

Recently, The Supreme Court said that prisoners on death row were taking advantage of inordinate delays in deciding mercy petitions to seek commutation of their punishment to life sentence, thereby defeating the purpose of death sentence.

About Mercy Petitions:

  • As per the Constitutional framework in India, mercy petition to the President is the last constitutional resort a convict can take when he is sentenced by the court of law. A convict can present a mercy petition to the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution of India.
  • Similarly, the power to grant pardon is conferred upon the Governors of States under Article 161 of the Constitution of India

Constitutional Provision:

  • Under Article 72, The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence—
  • In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.
  • In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
  • In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
  • Under Article 161. The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
  • There is no time limit given in these two Articles for Mercy Plea.
  • These Articles have no binding effect on the President and the Governors of the states to accept all the Mercy Petitions.

Difference between pardoning powers of President and Governor: Power differs in the following two ways:

  • The President’s power to grant pardon extends to the cases where the sentence or punishment has been awarded by a Court Martial, but the Governor’s power prescribed doesn’t provide so.
  • The President can grant pardon in all cases, including the death sentence, but the pardoning power of the Governor doesn’t extend to death sentence.

Process of making a mercy petition:

  • There is no statutory written procedure for dealing with mercy petitions, but in practice either the convict in person or his relative on his behalf may submit a written petition to the President.
  • A convict under the sentence of death is allowed to make the petition within a period of seven days after the date on which the Superintendent of jail informs him about the dismissal of the appeal or special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court.
  • It is then forwarded to the Ministry of Home Affairs for their comments and recommendations.
  • The Home Ministry in consultation with the concerned State Government, recommended to the President for his decision.
  • Both the executive heads are required to act on the advice of the appropriate government.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 7

With reference to the Meeting of Agricultural Chief Scientists (MACS), consider the following statements:

  1. The first Meeting of Agricultural Chief Scientists was held in Mexico in 2012.
  2. The meet of 2023 will be hosted in the city of Varanasi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 7

The G20 Meeting of Agricultural Chief Scientists (MACS) will be held in Varanasi from 17 to 19 April 2023 which will feature MAHARISHI Initiative.

  • The first meet of MACS was held in Mexico in 2012.
  • The members of the MACS include ministries or governmental bodies responsible for agricultural research in the respective G20 states as well as leading research institutions which strategically advise these decision-makers.
  • The theme of the 2023 meeting: Sustainable Agriculture and Food Systems for Healthy People and Planet.
  • The MACS will discuss food and nutrition security, resilience to climate change, One Health approaches, digital agriculture, and public-private partnerships for research, education and extension.
  • The meeting will also feature the MAHARISHI Initiative i.e., Millets And OtHer Ancient Grains International ReSearcH Initiative.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 8

With reference to the Pralay missile, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
  2. It has a carrying capacity of 3500-7000 kg of high-grade explosives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 8

India is going to buy 250 more Pralay ballistic missiles for the services to strengthen them on the northern borders, further boosting the firepower of the defence forces.

  • It is a quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
  • Range: It can hit targets 150-500 km away.
  • Capacity: The missile can carry 350-700 kg of high-grade explosives.
  • It is developed by the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • It is powered by a solid propellant rocket motor and other new technologies.
  • The missile guidance system includes state-of-the-art navigation and integrated avionics.
  •  It can change its path after covering a certain range in mid-air.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 9

With reference to the Miniratna Category-I status, consider the following statements:

  1. It is given to those Central Public Sector enterprises whose pre-tax profit is Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the last three years.
  2. Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited is a Miniratna Category-I enterprise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 9

Recently, the Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited (SECI) has been accorded the status of Miniratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE).

  • It is the primary implementing agency of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Govt. of India for Renewable Energy schemes/projects.
  • It was established in the year 2011.
  • It has awarded Renewable Energy (RE) project capacities of over 56 GW.
  • It enjoys the highest credit rating of AAA by ICRA.
  • Criteria for grant of Miniratna status to CPSEs
    • Miniratna Category-I status: The CPSEs which have made a profit in the last three years continuously, with a pre-tax profit is Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the three years and have a positive net worth are eligible to be considered for grant of Miniratna-I status.
    • Miniratna Category-II status: The CPSEs which have made a profit for the last three years continuously and have a positive net worth are eligible to be considered for grant of Miniratna-II status.
    • Miniratna CPSEs should have not defaulted in the repayment of loans/interest payments on any loans due to the Government.
    • Miniratna CPSEs shall not depend upon budgetary support or Government guarantees.

Hence both statements are correct

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):

  1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
  2. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- July 3, 2023 - Question 10

Prime Minister recently said that with the help of the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) portal, the farmers will be able to decide the place, time and price of selling their products, and reduce the burden on the consumers.

About National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):

  • It is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
  • It was launched on 14th April 2016, and is completely funded by the Government of India.
  • Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
  • Vision: To promote uniformity in agriculture marketing by streamlining procedures across the integrated markets, removing information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promoting real-time price discovery based on actual demand and supply.
  • MissionIntegration of APMCs across the country through a common online market platform to facilitate pan-India trade in agriculture commodities, providing better price discovery through a transparent auction process based on the quality of produce along with timely online payment.
  • Features:
  • A National e-market platform for transparent sale transactions and price discovery in regulated markets, kisan mandis, warehouses and private markets.
  • Liberal Licensing of traders/buyers and commission agents by State authorities without any pre-condition of physical presence or possession of shop/premises in the market yard.
  • One license for a trader is valid across all markets in the State.
  • Harmonization of quality standards of agricultural produce and provisions of assaying (quality testing) infrastructure in every market to enable informed bidding by buyers.
  • Restriction of agriculture Produce Marketing Committee’s (APMC) jurisdiction to within the APMC market yard/sub yard instead of a geographical area (the market area) at present.
  • Single point levy of market fees, i.e. on the first wholesale purchase from the farmer.

Hence both statements are correct.

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