Daily Current Affairs MCQ- October 2, 2023 - UPSC MCQ

A large number of megalithic hat stones were found from a single site during a recent archaeological salvage excavation conducted by the Kerala State Archaeology Department at Nagaparamba in Kuttippuram village, near Tirunavaya.

• Megalithic Sites were constructed either as burial sites or commemorative(non-sepulchral)  memorials.
• The former are sites with actual burial remains, such as dolmenoid cists (box-shaped stone burial chambers), cairn circles (stone circles with defined peripheries) and capstones (distinctive mushroom-shaped burial chambers found mainly in Kerala). 
• Non-sepulchral megaliths include memorial sites such as menhirs.
• In India, archaeologists trace the majority of the megaliths to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC).
• In India, these are concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

In Jammu and Kashmir, Lieutenant Governor said that within the next year, the Sapphire mines will be auctioned in a scientific way to give a boost to the local economy. 

• The name SAPPHIRE is derived from the Latin word ‘Saphirus’ and the Greek word ‘Sapherios’ both the words mean blue.
• The scientific name of sapphire is called corundum. It is made up of aluminium oxide (Al203) mineral.
• Corundum comes in all types of colours like red, pink, yellow, orange and violet.
• Distribution:
• Sapphire is found all over the world –SriLanka, Burma,Thailand and Australia. Ceylon is still a top source for natural sapphire.
• In India the reserves/resources of corundum are found in association with kyanite and sillimanite in Assam, Meghalaya and Maharashtra.
• It occurs in syenites and ultrabasic rocks in Telangana.
• The total reserves/resources of sapphire was estimated at 450 kg, all of which is placed under 'Remaining Resources' category and is located in Jammu & Kashmir.
• Uses:
• Sapphire has emerged as a versatile material useful to a range of industries in many varied applications including LEDs, optical and Radio Frequency Integrated Circuits (RFICS).

Hence both statements are correct.

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has issued a stark warning, stating that sea levels around Pacific Islands are rising at a rate of about 4 mm per year, slightly above the global average.

• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
• It is the UN system's authoritative voice on the state and behavior of the Earth's atmosphere, its interaction with the oceans, the climate it produces, and the resulting distribution of water resources.
• It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873. 
• Established in 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
• Headquarters:  Geneva, Switzerland.
• Currently it has a membership of 191 countries.
• Governance Structure:
• Its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress, which consists of representatives of all members.
• It meets at least every four years to set general policy and adopt regulations.
• A 36-member Executive Council meets annually and implements policy.
• The Secretariat, headed by a secretary-general appointed by the congress for a four-year term, serves as the administrative centre of the organization.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

• Hydrogen gas (produced using industrial methods like electrolysis) can be used as a fuel and it does not release greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions such as carbon dioxide (CO2) when it is burned. Hence, a potential clean alternative to fossil fuels.
• Green hydrogen is the name given to hydrogen gas that has been produced using renewable energy, such as wind or solar power, which create no GHG emissions.
• Globally, most of the hydrogen produced today is used in the refining and industrial sectors - to make ammonia for the fertiliser industry, in the steel industry.
• In a fuel cell (device that converts the energy of a chemical into electricity), hydrogen gas reacts with oxygen to produce electricity and water vapour.

Hence both statements are correct.

The first live specimen of a yellow-legged hornet, which “poses a threat to honeybees and other pollinators,” was recently detected in the wild in the United States.

About Yellow-Legged Hornet:

• The Asian hornet, also known as the yellow-legged hornet or Asian predatory wasp, is a species of hornet indigenous to Southeast Asia. 
• Scientific Name: Vespa velutina
• It is a predatory insect that commonly feeds on other social bees and wasps, including honey bees.
• This species has become invasive in several parts of the world, where it poses a threat to local ecosystems and bee populations.
• It is distinct from the infamous Asian Giant Hornet (Vespa mandarinia), often referred to as the "murder hornet," which is a different and larger species found in parts of Asia, including Japan. While both species are predators of bees, the Yellow-Legged Hornet has become a particular concern in parts of Europe due to its invasive nature and impact on local ecosystems.
• Features:
• It is relatively large, with adults typically measuring between 2 to 3 centimeters (0.8 to 1.2 inches) in length.
• It has a dark brown or black body with a distinctive bright yellow or orange band on its fourth abdominal segment.
• As its name suggests, it has yellow legs, which is a key identifying feature.
• It is a very aggressive species and its sting is very painful.
• They are carnivorousand primarily feed on other insects, especially bees and wasps. They are known to be skilled hunters of honeybees.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) recently said that it moved the mobile launch tower for the crewed Artemis 2 mission to Launchpad 39B of the Kennedy Space Center in Florida.

About Artemis 2 Mission:

• It will be the first mission to carry humans to the moon's vicinity since 1972.
• It is the second scheduled flight of the Artemis program and the first crewed Artemis mission. 
• During Artemis II, four astronauts will fly around the moon before returning to Earth.
• It will use the huge Space Launch System (SLS) mega-rocket and Orion spacecraft to launch the crew on the lunar flyby mission.
• It will include three astronauts from NASA and one from the Canadian Space Agency.  
• The astronauts and mission controllers will collect data on Orion and the crew's performance to assess how ready the Artemis program is to send people to the moon's surface.

Key Facts of Artemis Program:

• It is NASA's program to return astronauts to the Moon, preparing the way for human missions to Mars.
• It aim to "land the first woman and first person of colour on the Moon", explore the lunar surface.
• The Artemis program includes the construction of the Lunar Gateway space station in orbit around the Moon.
• Artemis I: An uncrewed test flight of the Orion spacecraft, launched on the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket on November 16, 2022.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Every year, August is marked as Psoriasis Awareness Month. 

About Psoriasis:

• It is a chronic autoimmune condition that causes the rapid buildup of skin cells. This buildup of cells causes scaling on your skin’s surface.
• It causes a rash with itchy,scaly patches, most commonly on the knees, elbows, trunk and scalp.
• It is a common, long-term (chronic) disease with no cure. 
• It can be painful, interfere with sleep and make it hard to concentrate. 
• The condition tends to go through cycles, flaring for a few weeks or months, then subsiding for a while.
• It is not contagious.
• Causes:
• An over-reactive immune system that creates inflammation in your skin causes psoriasis.
• If you have psoriasis, your immune system is supposed to destroy foreign invaders, like bacteria, to keep you healthy and prevent you from getting sick. Instead, your immune system can mistake healthy cells for foreign invaders.
• As a result, your immune system creates inflammation or swelling, which you see on the surface of your skin as skin plaques.
• Common signs and symptoms of psoriasis include:
• raised, inflamed patches of skin that appear red on light skin and brown or purple on dark skin;
• whitish-silver scales or plaques on the red patches or grey scales on purple and brown patches;
• dry skinthat may crack and bleed;
• soreness around patches;
• itching and burning sensations around patches;
• thick, pitted nails;
• painful, swollen joints;
• Treatment: It has no cure. Treatments aim to
• reduce inflammation and scales;
• slow the growth of skin cells;
• remove plaques;
• Common psoriasis treatments include:
• Steroid creams.
• Moisturizers for dry skin.
• Medication to slow skin cell production (anthralin).
• Medicated lotions or shampoos.
• Vitamin D3 ointment.
• Vitamin A or retinoid creams.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified a reduction in the valuation of rent-free accommodation to staff provided by employers.

About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):

• It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• The CBDT is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance. 
• Functions:
• Its functions include formulation of policies, dealing with matters relating to levy and collection of direct taxes, and supervision of the functioning of the entire Income Tax Department. 
• CBDT also proposes legislative changes in direct tax enactmentsand changes in rates and structure of taxation in tune with the policies of the Government.
• Historical Background:
• The Central Board of Revenue, as the Department’s apex body charged with the administration of taxes, came into existence as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1924.
• Initially, the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.
• However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs, with effect from 1.1.1964
• This bifurcation was brought about by the constitution of the two Boards u/s 3 of the Central Boards of Revenue Act, 1963.
• Structure:
• The CBDT is headed by Chairman and also comprises of six members, all of whom are ex-officio Special Secretary to the Government of India.
• Member (Income Tax)
• Member (Legislation and Computerization)
• Member (Revenue)
• Member (Personnel & Vigilance)
• Member (Investigation)
• Member (Audit & Judicial)
• The Chairman is the co-ordinating head, and each of the members has been assigned a specialized function. 
• The Chairman and Members of CBDT are selected from Indian Revenue Service (IRS).

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The recent study revealed that the Methylotuvimicrobium buryatense 5GB1C a Methanotroph could potentially remove methane from major emission sites.

• Methane-utilizing bacteria (methanotrophs) are a diverse group of gram-negative bacteria that are related to other members of the Proteobacteria.
• Methanotrophic microorganisms oxidize methane to harness energy under oxic and anoxic conditions.
• They grow best when the methane concentration is around 5,000-10,000 parts per million (ppm).

Key facts about Methylotuvimicrobium buryatense 5GB1C

• This bacterial strain consumes methane, which is over 85 times more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2).
• This bacteria performed the best at 500 ppm. Further tests also showed that this strain grew well even at 200 ppm.
• It can grow at low methane concentrations ranging from 200-1,000 ppm. These features make this strain a promising candidate for methane removal technology.
• Bacteria produce biomass after consuming methane. This biomass can be used as feed in aquaculture.
• For every tonne of methane consumed, the bacteria can generate 0.78 tonne biomass dry-weight methane.

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, the union Minister of Road Transport and Highways launched the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) in New Delhi. 

• It is a significant step forward in the government’s commitment to improve road safety by raising the safety standards of motor vehicles up to 3.5 tonnes in India.
• The programme aims to provide a tool to the car customers to make a comparative assessment of crash safety of motor vehicles available in the market.
• Under this programme, car manufacturers can voluntarily offer their cars tested as per Automotive Industry Standard (AIS) 197.
• Based on the performance of the car in the tests, car will be awarded star ratings for Adult Occupants (AOP) and Child Occupant (COP).
• To receive a 5-star rating, a vehicle needs at least 27 points in adult occupant protection and requires 41 points in child occupant protection.
• These protocols are in line with Global NCAP norms when it comes to crash testing.
• Three tests including offset deformable barrier frontal impact test, side impact test, and pole side impact test -- would determine the crashworthiness of the vehicles.
• It would also mandate the installation of six airbags, electronic stability control (ESC), three-point seatbelts for every passenger, improved emergency braking systems, etc
• For Bharat NCAP, the frontal crash test will be conducted at a speed of 64km/h. On the other hand, the side and pole-side impact tests will be done at 50km/h and 29km/h
• These norms will also be applicable for testing and rate CNG and Electric Vehicles based on their performance.
• Unlike Global NCAP, Bharat NCAP will give a unified rating for the vehicles, combining crash test results for adults and children alike.

Hence both statements are correct.