UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 1 - UPSC MCQ

• The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is freedom from all restrictions, except those which are provided for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the Constitution itself. These are explained below:
  • Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse between the states or within a state in the public interest. But, the Parliament cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the state except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India.
  • The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse with that state or within that state in the public interest. But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Further, the state legislature cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
 

Let's evaluate each of the statements to determine their correctness:

1. A new categorization of industries based on their pollution load has been released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

   • This statement is correct. The MoEFCC has indeed released a new categorization of industries based on their pollution load to better manage and mitigate environmental impacts.

2. The new criteria will prompt industrial sectors willing to adopt cleaner technologies, ultimately resulting in the generation of more pollutants but in limit.

   • This statement is incorrect. The new criteria aim to encourage industrial sectors to adopt cleaner technologies to reduce pollution, not to generate more pollutants even if within limits. The goal is to lower the overall environmental impact, not just manage it within certain thresholds.

3. Red category of industries are normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area.

   • This statement is incorrect. Red category industries are those with the highest pollution potential and are generally not permitted in ecologically fragile or protected areas to prevent environmental degradation.

Based on this evaluation:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

1. Only one

• Death penalty or capital punishment can be defined as a practice sanctioned by law whereby a person is put to death by the state as a punishment for a crime after a proper legal trial’.
• India is among the few countries that retain capital punishment under different laws for serious offences- beyond the Law Commission recommendations.
• In 1980, in Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab, SC Judges upheld the constitutional validity of the death penalty due to built-in reasonable procedural safeguards and its procedure which is neither arbitrary nor gives excessive discretion to judges. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As per law, no death sentence imposed by a trial court can be executed unless the punishment is confirmed by the High Court too and the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 requires trial courts to refer every judgment related to the imposition of capital punishment to the jurisdictional High Court for confirmation.
• In 1975, three persons sentenced to death for the same crime ended up suffering different punishments because separate legal processes had been followed for each convict. Shocked by the inconsistency that resulted in one convict being hanged while another had his sentence commuted, and in order to ensure that this does not happen again, the Supreme Court directed that convicts in the same crime must be executed together.
• For a person convicted by courts, a mercy plea is the last constitutional resort, provided under Article 72 (President), and Article 161 (Governor). Neither the term 'mercy petition' has been mentioned in Article 72 nor explained anywhere in the Indian Constitution. There is no statutory written procedure for dealing with mercy petitions, but in practice, after extinguishing all the reliefs in the court of law, either the convict in person or his relative on his behalf may submit a written petition to the President.
• The petitions are received by the President’s secretariat on behalf of the President, which is then forwarded to the Ministry of Home Affairs for their comments and recommendations. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Issues with Mercy Petition:
  • No fixed timeframe to act on the mercy plea leading to long delays.
  • Law Commission has highlighted certain Presidents who put brakes on the disposal of the Mercy Petition.
  • Lack of transparency as there is no compulsion to share reasons for rejection or acceptance of a mercy plea, but it is subjected to Limited Judicial Review (Epuru Sudhakar & Anr. v. Government of Andhra Pradesh case, 2006).
     

• Mitochondria are tiny organelles inside the cells that are often referred to as the powerhouses of the cell. They convert the energy molecules, which we get from the food to usable energy molecules, called ATP, through a process, known as cellular respiration. The genetic disorder of mitochondrial DNA is primarily inherited maternally.
• Mitochondrial donation treatment involves replacing the unhealthy mitochondria in an egg or embryo with the healthy mitochondria from a female donor. Mitochondria have their own DNA, distinct from that in a cell's nucleus. It does not influence appearance, personality or other human characteristics.
• Mitochondrial DNA disorders primarily affect the organs and the tissues that require a significant amount of energy, such as the brain, heart, muscles and the eyes.

• Mhadei, also known as the Mandovi river in Goa and Mahadayi in Karnataka, is considered a lifeline in the northern parts of Goa. Mahadayi river rises in the Western Ghats, from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka’s Belagavi district. Flowing westward, it enters Goa from the Sattari taluk of North Goa districts. A number of streams join the flow of the river to form the Mandovi which is one of two major rivers that flow through Goa. It joins the Arabian Sea at Panaji. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the states of Goa and Karnataka are in a dispute due to the decision of the state of Karnataka to route water from the Mhadei River to the Malaprabha basin. The dispute is lingering since the 1980s. Karnataka claims that the surplus from Mahadayi drains into the sea and that it should be diverted into the deficit basin in Malaprabha to meet the state’s drinking, irrigation, agriculture and power generation needs.
• Goa has, meanwhile, denied Karnataka’s claims saying it is a water-deficient state and limiting the water supply would adversely impact its agriculture production. The Mhadei River drains into the Arabian Sea and is not a tributary of the Malaprabha River. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats in the Belgaum district of Karnataka.
• Dudhsagar waterfall is a four-tiered waterfall located on the Mandovi River(Mhadei) in Goa. It lies at a distance of 60 km from Panaji and 10 km from Kulem. The falls are located in the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park among the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• To convert spoken language into text: This involves using the Artificial Intelligence (AI) algorithms for speech recognition and natural language processing to convert spoken language into written text.
• To generate personalized treatment plans: Al can analyze medical data, including patient records, genetic information and treatment guidelines, to develop personalized treatment plans. This application is particularly relevant in healthcare, where Al can assist in identifying optimal treatment Populations for individual patients.
• Virtual reality simulations can utilize Al techniques to create realistic virtual environments, intelligent character behaviour and immersive experiences.
• Searching a keyword in a document is not a direct application of AI. It falls more within the realm of information retrieval and text processing.
• To manoeuvre are a driverless car: Driverless cars rely on Al algorithms, computer vision and sensor data analysis to detect and identify obstacles, such as pedestrians, vehicles and other objects on the road.

• Precision farming is an approach where inputs are utilised in precise amounts to get increased average yields, compared to traditional cultivation techniques.
• An information and technology-based farm management system identifies, analyses, and manages variability in fields by conducting crop production practices at the right place and time and in the right way, for optimum profitability, sustainability, and protection of the land resource.
• Technologies include a vast array of tools of hardware, software, and equipment:
  • Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) receivers
  • Differential Global Positioning System (DGPS)
  • Geographic Information Systems (GIS)
  • Remote Sensing (RS) technique
  • Variable Rate Applicator
  • Combine harvesters with yield monitors
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Sustainable precision farming and healthy food production increase profitability and output, improve economic efficiency, and lessen adverse environmental effects. Other advantages include efficient use of water resources, prevention of soil degradation and even improving farmers' socio-economic standing.
• Precision farming also enables climate-smart agri-business which is necessary for achieving climate goals.
   

• XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India's first dedicated polarimetry mission and the world's second to measure the polarization of X-rays from different cosmic sources. The first such mission is NASA's Imaging X- ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) Mission. The mission aims to enhance the understanding of the emission processes that originate from various astronomical sources, such as the black hole, neutron stars, active galactic nuclei, pulsar wind nebulae etc.
• The spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads - an X-ray Polarimeter (POLIX) and X-ray SPECtroscopy and Timing (XSPECT) in the Low Earth Orbit. During the planned lifetime of the XPoSat mission of about 5 years, POLIX will measure the polarimetry parameters (degree and angle of polarization) in the medium X- ray energy, and XSPECT will give spectroscopic information.

• Phytoplankton, also known as microalgae, are similar to terrestrial plants in that they contain chlorophyll and require sunlight in order to live and grow. Most phytoplankton are buoyant and float in the upper part of the ocean, where sunlight penetrates the water.
  • Phytoplankton also require inorganic nutrients such as nitrates, phosphates, and sulfur which they convert into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
• The two main classes of phytoplankton are dinoflagellates and diatoms. Dinoflagellates use a whip-like tail, or flagella, to move through the water and their bodies are covered with complex shells. Diatoms also have shells, but they are made of a different substance and their structure is rigid and made of interlocking parts.
  • Diatoms do not rely on flagella to move through the water and instead rely on ocean currents to travel through the water.
• Coccolithophores are also a group of phytoplankton that live in large numbers throughout the upper layers of the ocean. Coccolithophores surround themselves with a microscopic plating made of limestone (calcite).
• Crustaceans include all the animals of the phylum Arthropoda. Crustaceans are a very diverse group of invertebrate animals that includes active animals such as crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, copepods, amphipods, and more sessile creatures like barnacles. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of Animal Kingdom.
• Foraminifera represents an ancient species of zooplankton that live mostly in sediment but also in the water column. They belong to the kingdom Protista.
• Phytoplankton varies seasonally in amount, increasing in spring and fall with favourable light, temperature, and minerals.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. It recommended the reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor - This statement is incorrect. The Dhar Commission, officially known as the Linguistic Provinces Commission, was appointed in 1948 to study the feasibility of reorganizing states on a linguistic basis. However, the commission did not recommend the reorganization of states solely on linguistic lines. Instead, it recommended that administrative convenience, economic factors, and other considerations should take precedence over linguistic factors.

2. Sardar Patel was one of the members of this commission - This statement is also incorrect. The Dhar Commission was headed by S.K. Dhar, a judge of the Allahabad High Court. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was not a member of this commission.

• The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was set up in 2016, under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, for administering the Investor Education and Protection Fund.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority was established under the provisions of section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The IEPFA Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the Investor Education Protection Fund (IEPF), making refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors, promoting awareness among investors, and protecting the interests of the investors.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund is utilized for
  • The refund in respect of unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, matured debentures, the application money due for refund and interest thereon
  • Promotion of investors’ education, awareness and protection
  • Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants for shares or debentures, shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who have suffered losses due to wrong actions by any person, in accordance with the orders made by the Court which had ordered disgorgement

• The Commission for the Control of INTERPOL's Files (CCF): The CCF is an independent body that ensures that all personal data processed through INTERPOL’s channels conform to the rules of the organization.
• It is not under the control of the INTERPOL Secretariat. To perform its functions, the Commission directly consults the INTERPOL General Secretariat; the National Central Bureaus; and other relevant entities.
• The CCF comprises seven members, appointed for a five-year term, renewable once for an additional term of three years.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy in Agriculture Sector:

• As per the extant FDI Policy, 100% FDI is allowed in the following sector through an automatic route:
  • Floriculture, Horticulture, Cultivation of Vegetables & Mushrooms under controlled conditions;
  • Development and Production of seeds and planting material;
  • Animal Husbandry (including breeding of dogs), Pisciculture, Aquaculture, Apiculture and
  • Services related to agro and allied sectors
• Further, 100% FDI is also permitted in tea sector including tea plantations, Coffee plantations, Rubber plantations, Cardamom plantations, Palm Oil plantations and Olive oil tree plantations through automatic route.
• FDI in Multi-Brand retail is also permitted up to 51% through the Government route in the agricultural sector with some conditions.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Sodium-ion battery (SIB) is a type of rechargeable energy storage device similar in principle to the lithium-ion battery (LIB). High natural abundance and low cost of sodium would make commercial production of the SIB less costly than the LIB.
Advantages: The SIB are non- flammable, offer better performance and operate at a wider temperature range (efficient in cold environments), as compared to the LIBs.
Challenges: Low energy density of the SIB makes it difficult to make small batteries for use in the electric vehicles. It has a limited number of charge- discharge cycles, which can result in a reduction in the overall performance and lifespan of the battery.

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite term of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission make recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
• The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by the Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court, and High Courts and submitted 277 reports. The Law Commission of India provides an excellent thought-provoking and vital review of the laws in India. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The first Law Commission was established during colonial rule in India by the East India Company under the Charter Act of 1833 and was presided over by Lord Macaulay. After that, three more commissions were established in pre-independent India.
• The Central Government established the First Law Commission in 1955 with the then Attorney- General of India, Mr. M. C. Setalvad, as its Chairman. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Since then twenty-two Law Commissions have been appointed, each with a three-year term and with a definite term of reference. After two and a half years, the 22nd Law Commission of India has been constituted. The Centre on November 7, 2022, constituted the Law Commission of India with Justice (retd) Rituraj Awasthi, former Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court, at its head. The tenure of the 21st Law Commission, which was headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice B S Chauhan, came to an end on August 31, 2018. The 22nd Commission has been constituted two and a half years after it was approved by the Union Cabinet on February 19, 2020, just before the outbreak of the Covid-19 pandemic. A petition had been moved in the Supreme Court subsequently against the delay in constituting the 22nd Commission. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Option (a) is correct:
9^th schedule (Article 31-B) Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review. The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.

What Is an Inflationary Gap?
An inflationary gap is a macroeconomic concept that measures the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the GDP that would exist if an economy was operating at full employment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
KEY TAKEAWAYS

• An inflationary gap measures the difference between the current level of real GDP and the GDP that would exist if an economy was operating at full employment.
• For the gap to be considered inflationary, the current real GDP must be higher than the potential GDP. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Policies that can reduce an inflationary gap include reductions in government spending, tax increases, bond and securities issues, interest rate increases, and transfer payment reductions.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• An inflationary gap exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due to factors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities, or elevated government expenditure.
• Against this backdrop, the real GDP can exceed the potential GDP, resulting in an inflationary gap. The inflationary gap is named as such because the relative rise in real GDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, leading prices to climb in the long run.
• The inflationary gap represents the point in the business cycle when the economy is expanding. Due to the higher number of funds available within the economy, consumers are more inclined to purchase goods and services. As demand for goods and services increases but production has not yet compensated for the shift, prices rise to restore market equilibrium.
• When the potential GDP is higher than the real GDP, the gap is instead referred to as a deflationary gap.
• The other type of output gap is the recessionary gap, which describes an economy operating below its full-employment equilibrium.

Option (c) is correct:
North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North- Eastern Council Act of 1971. Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. Its functions are similar to those of the zonal councils, but with few additions. It has to formulate a unified and coordinated regional plan covering matters of common importance. It has to review from time to time the measures taken by the member states for the maintenance of security and public order in the region.

• For ensuring availability of quality products to consumers, Quality Control Orders (QCOs) are issued by various Ministries/Departments of the Government of India in exercise of the powers conferred by section 16 of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 stipulating conformity of the products to Indian Standards. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India is looking to bring as many as 50 products such as aluminium, copper items, and household electrical appliances under the quality norms by the second quarter of 2023-24, a move aimed at containing import of the sub-standard goods and boost domestic industry. These orders also help in containing imports of non-essential items. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The items, under these orders, cannot be produced, sold/traded, imported and stocked unless they bear the BIS mark. It said that the DPIIT is in the process of formulating QCO for various products. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organization is a permanent intergovernmental international organization and was formed in 2001. It is a successor of the Shanghai Five.
• Saudi Arabia has agreed to join the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) as a “Dialogue Partner”, the latest indication of closer political ties with China.
• The SCO decided to admit India and Pakistan at the Ufa Summit of 2015. India participated, for the first time, as a Full Member at the recently held 18th Qingdao Summit of the SCO in China that was held in 2018.

• Indian National Army (INA) was an armed force formed by Indian Nationalists in 1942, through the patronage of the Imperial Japanese Army.
• The idea of INA was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh. The outbreak of the Quit India movement gave a fillip to INA. On 1st September, the first division of INA was formed with 16300 men.
• But due to serious differences between the INA army led by Mohan Singh and the Japanese over the role INA was going to play, little further gain was made in its first phase.
• The second phase of the INA began when Subash Chandra Bose was brought to Singapore in 1943.
• On 21 October 1943, Bose announced the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind (Free India), with himself as the Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister of War. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• The Provisional Government not only enabled Bose to negotiate with the Japanese on an equal footing but also facilitated the mobilization of Indians in East Asia to join and support the INA. Soon after the announcement, the Provisional Government received recognition from various countries.
• The provisional government then declared war on Britain and was recognized by the axis powers and their satellites. In World War II, the three great Allied powers include Great Britain, the United States, and the Soviet Union. The three principal partners in the Axis alliance were Germany, Italy, and Japan. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is:

1. Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The statement is correct. The Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme was indeed launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan as a central sector scheme.
2. This statement is also correct. The primary objective of the PMFME Scheme is to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry

• The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Arctic Ministers decided to establish the Standing Arctic Council Secretariat at the Fram Centre in Tromsø.
• The Ottawa Declaration defines these states as Members of the Arctic Council. The eight States have territories within the Arctic and thus carry the role of stewards of the region. These are Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America. India along with the other 12 countries has an observer status in the Arctic council. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The Government of India Act 1919 introduced several significant changes in the governance of India during the British rule. Let's evaluate the given statements:

1. It introduced bicameralism and direct elections for the first time in the country.

   • This statement is incorrect. The Government of India Act 1919 did introduce bicameralism at the central level (with a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council), but it did not introduce direct elections for the first time. Direct elections had been introduced earlier in India under the Indian Councils Act 1909. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. It granted the franchise to the people of India on the basis of age.

   • This statement is incorrect. The Government of India Act 1919 did not grant the franchise to the people of India on the basis of age. It retained the limited franchise based on property qualifications and other criteria. Full adult suffrage (universal franchise on the basis of age) was not introduced until the Government of India Act 1935. So, statement 2 is also incorrect.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Correct Answer: Neither of them

Major developments in Company’s commercial privileges:

• The significant improvement in the English Company’s position was by the ‘Golden Farman’ issued to them by the Sultan of Golconda in 1632. On payment of 500 pagodas a year, they earned the privilege of trading freely in the ports of Golconda. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• By the Charter Act of 1793, the Company was empowered to give licences to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licenses, known as ‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China. Hence statement 2 is correct
• By the Charter Act of 1813, the Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea, which eventually ended by Charter Act of 1833. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) measures the differences in the sea surface temperatures between the western and the eastern parts of the Indian Ocean. It is basically like the El Nino weather system that develops in the Pacific Ocean. It is characterized by an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in the eastern and the western Indian Ocean impact on the weather patterns. The IOD alters the wind, temperature and rainfall patterns in the Indian Ocean region.

• Positive IOD event is known to bring floods to eastern Africa, and droughts and bushfires to eastern Asia and Australia. Example: 2020 Australian bushfires.
• Positive IOD is known to increase the intensity of the monsoon in the sub- continent and leads to above normal rainfall. A simultaneous occurrence of Positive IOD and El Nino balances the negative impact of El Nino on the Indian monsoon rainfall. Example: Above normal rainfall in India in 2019.
• In contrast, Negative IOD, coupled with El - Nino, leads to poor monsoon rainfall. Example: Deficient rainfall in 1992.

• India, in collaboration with the UN, has launched ‘Unite Aware’, a technology platform to ensure the safety and security of the peace-keepers. Using the platform, the entire peace- keeping operation can be visualized, coordinated and monitored on a real time basis.
• India has partnered with the UN to roll out the UNITE Aware platform, initially in four UN Peace-keeping Missions: MINUSMA (Mali); UNMISS (South Sudan); UNFICYP (Cyprus); and AMISOM (Somalia).

• Monsoon Trough is an elongated low- pressure area, which extends from heat low over Pakistan to Head Bay of Bengal. This is one of the semi-permanent features of monsoon circulation. Monsoon Trough may be a characteristic of the east-west orientation of the Himalayan ranges, and the north-south orientation of the Khasi- Jaintia hills.
• Generally, the eastern side of Monsoon Trough oscillates, sometimes southwards and sometimes northwards. The southward migration results in active/vigorous monsoon over major parts of India.
• In contrast, the northward migration of this Trough leads to break monsoon condition over major parts of India, and heavy rains along the foothills of the Himalayas, and sometimes floods in the Brahmaputra River.

• Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the components such as; species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or land races or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having cultural or aesthetic values.
• Under Section-37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Areas having any of the following characteristics, may qualify for inclusion as BHS.
  • Areas that contain a mosaic of natural, semi-natural, and manmade habitats, which together contain a significant diversity of life forms.
  • Areas that contain significant domesticated biodiversity component and/or representative agro- ecosystems with ongoing agricultural practices that sustain this diversity.
  • Areas that are significant from a biodiversity point of view as also important cultural spaces such as sacred groves/trees and sites, or other large community-conserved areas.
  • Areas including very small ones that offer refuge or corridors for threatened and endemic fauna and flora, such as community conserved areas or urban greens and wetlands.
  • Areas that provide habitats, aquatic or terrestrial, for seasonal migrant species for feeding and breeding.
  • Areas that are maintained as preservation plots by the research wing of Forest department. o Medicinal Plant Conservation Areas.
• Recently Tamilnadu issued a notification for the first biodiversity heritage site, Arittapatti in the state.
  • This BHS has rich biological and historical significance with the presence of around 250 bird species including 3 flagship Raptor species - Laggar Falcon, Shaheen Falcon, Bonelli's Eagle and wildlife like Indan Pangolin, Python and Slender Loris.
• Bambarde Myristica Swamps is a biodiversity heritage site in the state of Maharashtra. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Myristica swamps are freshwater swamps predominated by members of the Myristicaceae family. These forests are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil which remains inundated throughout the year.
  • They have evolved over millions of years and are comprised of old-growth trees. In India, these unique habitats occur in the Western Ghats and a smaller distribution exists in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The formation of these swamps is dependent on abiotic conditions like the shape of the valley between the forested hills.
• Patalkot is a biodiversity heritage site in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It has an ecosystem of the estimated age of 6 Million years and species of rare flora and fauna including rare Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

Thalassemia Information:

• Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that results from a mutation in one or more genes that make hemoglobin.


• The mainstay treatment for the disorder is repeated blood transfusions.


• Thalassemia is not a disorder in which the blood lacks sufficient blood-clotting proteins, that statement is incorrect