UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 1 Free Online Test 2026

Option (c) is correct: introduction of such a bill in a state legislature requires the previous sanction of the President of India.

Article 301 guarantees freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India, subject to constitutional exceptions.

Article 302 empowers the Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse between the states or within any part of the territory of India in the public interest.

Article 304 provides that a bill for imposing restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse with or within a state, in the public interest, cannot be introduced in the state legislature except with the previous sanction of the President.

Therefore, the required previous sanction is that of the President of India, so option (c) is correct.

Let's evaluate each of the statements to determine their correctness:

1. A new categorization of industries based on their pollution load has been released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

   • This statement is correct. The MoEFCC has indeed released a new categorization of industries based on their pollution load to better manage and mitigate environmental impacts.

2. The new criteria will prompt industrial sectors willing to adopt cleaner technologies, ultimately resulting in the generation of more pollutants but in limit.

   • This statement is incorrect. The new criteria aim to encourage industrial sectors to adopt cleaner technologies to reduce pollution, not to generate more pollutants even if within limits. The goal is to lower the overall environmental impact, not just manage it within certain thresholds.

3. Red category of industries are normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area.

   • This statement is incorrect. Red category industries are those with the highest pollution potential and are generally not permitted in ecologically fragile or protected areas to prevent environmental degradation.

Based on this evaluation:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

1. Only one

• Statement 1: Correct
  In Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab (1980), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the death penalty, ruling that it is not violative of Article 21 (Right to Life) if awarded in the "rarest of rare cases".

• Statement 2: Incorrect
  1) Article 72 of the Indian Constitution does not define the procedure related to mercy petitions. It only grants the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
  2) The procedure for filing and handling mercy petitions is governed by rules and executive guidelines, not defined in the Constitution.

• Mitochondria are tiny organelles inside the cells that are often referred to as the powerhouses of the cell. They convert the energy molecules, which we get from the food to usable energy molecules, called ATP, through a process, known as cellular respiration. The genetic disorder of mitochondrial DNA is primarily inherited maternally.
• Mitochondrial donation treatment involves replacing the unhealthy mitochondria in an egg or embryo with the healthy mitochondria from a female donor. Mitochondria have their own DNA, distinct from that in a cell's nucleus. It does not influence appearance, personality or other human characteristics.
• Mitochondrial DNA disorders primarily affect the organs and the tissues that require a significant amount of energy, such as the brain, heart, muscles and the eyes.

• Mhadei, also known as the Mandovi river in Goa and Mahadayi in Karnataka, is considered a lifeline in the northern parts of Goa. Mahadayi river rises in the Western Ghats, from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka’s Belagavi district. Flowing westward, it enters Goa from the Sattari taluk of North Goa districts. A number of streams join the flow of the river to form the Mandovi which is one of two major rivers that flow through Goa. It joins the Arabian Sea at Panaji. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the states of Goa and Karnataka are in a dispute due to the decision of the state of Karnataka to route water from the Mhadei River to the Malaprabha basin. The dispute is lingering since the 1980s. Karnataka claims that the surplus from Mahadayi drains into the sea and that it should be diverted into the deficit basin in Malaprabha to meet the state’s drinking, irrigation, agriculture and power generation needs.
• Goa has, meanwhile, denied Karnataka’s claims saying it is a water-deficient state and limiting the water supply would adversely impact its agriculture production. The Mhadei River drains into the Arabian Sea and is not a tributary of the Malaprabha River. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats in the Belgaum district of Karnataka.
• Dudhsagar waterfall is a four-tiered waterfall located on the Mandovi River(Mhadei) in Goa. It lies at a distance of 60 km from Panaji and 10 km from Kulem. The falls are located in the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park among the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Only three of the listed items are direct applications of artificial intelligence.

1,Convert spoken language into text. is an AI application because speech recognition and conversion of spoken language to text use natural language processing and statistical or learning-based models to recognise phonemes and map them to text.

2. Generate personalized treatment plans is an AI application because generation of personalized treatment plans involves analysing medical records, patterns in data and predictions using machine learning or decision-support algorithms to recommend individualized care.

5. Manoeuvring a driverless car  is an AI application because driverless cars rely on computer vision, sensor fusion and planning algorithms (learned or rule-based) to perceive the environment and make driving decisions.

3. Virtual reality simulations is not inherently an AI application. Virtual reality (VR) primarily refers to rendering immersive environments and display/interface technologies. AI can be used inside VR (for agent behaviour or adaptive content), but VR itself is a simulation/rendering technology rather than a core AI application.

4. Searching a keyword in a document is not necessarily an AI application. A simple keyword search in a document is often implemented by text indexing and string-matching or basic information-retrieval techniques. While advanced search can use AI/NLP to improve relevance, a plain keyword search does not require AI.

Therefore, only items 1, 2 and 5 are direct applications of artificial intelligence; the correct choice is Only three (Option C).

• Precision farming is an approach where inputs are utilised in precise amounts to get increased average yields, compared to traditional cultivation techniques.
• An information and technology-based farm management system identifies, analyses, and manages variability in fields by conducting crop production practices at the right place and time and in the right way, for optimum profitability, sustainability, and protection of the land resource.
• Technologies include a vast array of tools of hardware, software, and equipment:
  • Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) receivers
  • Differential Global Positioning System (DGPS)
  • Geographic Information Systems (GIS)
  • Remote Sensing (RS) technique
  • Variable Rate Applicator
  • Combine harvesters with yield monitors
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Sustainable precision farming and healthy food production increase profitability and output, improve economic efficiency, and lessen adverse environmental effects. Other advantages include efficient use of water resources, prevention of soil degradation and even improving farmers' socio-economic standing.
• Precision farming also enables climate-smart agri-business which is necessary for achieving climate goals.
   

The correct answer is Option A - A global health campaign by WHO to raise prices of three unhealthy products, tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks-by the year 2035.

The World Health Organization routinely recommends taxation and other price-based measures as effective population-level interventions to reduce consumption of harmful products; these measures are part of WHO's set of cost-effective interventions often called the "best buys" for non-communicable disease prevention.

Increasing the price of products such as tobacco, alcohol and sugary drinks reduces demand, especially among young people and low-income groups, and is a widely endorsed public-health strategy to lower disease burden linked to these products.

The stated target year, 2035, represents a long-term policy horizon consistent with multi-year public-health campaigns that aim to reduce prevalence of tobacco- and alcohol-related harms and to curb unhealthy diets that drive non-communicable diseases.

Hence, Option A is correct.

• Phytoplankton, also known as microalgae, are similar to terrestrial plants in that they contain chlorophyll and require sunlight in order to live and grow. Most phytoplankton are buoyant and float in the upper part of the ocean, where sunlight penetrates the water.
  • Phytoplankton also require inorganic nutrients such as nitrates, phosphates, and sulfur which they convert into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
• The two main classes of phytoplankton are dinoflagellates and diatoms. Dinoflagellates use a whip-like tail, or flagella, to move through the water and their bodies are covered with complex shells. Diatoms also have shells, but they are made of a different substance and their structure is rigid and made of interlocking parts.
  • Diatoms do not rely on flagella to move through the water and instead rely on ocean currents to travel through the water.
• Coccolithophores are also a group of phytoplankton that live in large numbers throughout the upper layers of the ocean. Coccolithophores surround themselves with a microscopic plating made of limestone (calcite).
• Crustaceans include all the animals of the phylum Arthropoda. Crustaceans are a very diverse group of invertebrate animals that includes active animals such as crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, copepods, amphipods, and more sessile creatures like barnacles. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of Animal Kingdom.
• Foraminifera represents an ancient species of zooplankton that live mostly in sediment but also in the water column. They belong to the kingdom Protista.
• Phytoplankton varies seasonally in amount, increasing in spring and fall with favourable light, temperature, and minerals.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. It recommended the reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor - This statement is incorrect. The Dhar Commission, officially known as the Linguistic Provinces Commission, was appointed in 1948 to study the feasibility of reorganizing states on a linguistic basis. However, the commission did not recommend the reorganization of states solely on linguistic lines. Instead, it recommended that administrative convenience, economic factors, and other considerations should take precedence over linguistic factors.

2. Sardar Patel was one of the members of this commission - This statement is also incorrect. The Dhar Commission was headed by S.K. Dhar, a judge of the Allahabad High Court. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was not a member of this commission.

• The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was set up in 2016, under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, for administering the Investor Education and Protection Fund.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority was established under the provisions of section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The IEPFA Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the Investor Education Protection Fund (IEPF), making refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors, promoting awareness among investors, and protecting the interests of the investors.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund is utilized for
  • The refund in respect of unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, matured debentures, the application money due for refund and interest thereon
  • Promotion of investors’ education, awareness and protection
  • Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants for shares or debentures, shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who have suffered losses due to wrong actions by any person, in accordance with the orders made by the Court which had ordered disgorgement

• The Commission for the Control of INTERPOL's Files (CCF): The CCF is an independent body that ensures that all personal data processed through INTERPOL’s channels conform to the rules of the organization.
• It is not under the control of the INTERPOL Secretariat. To perform its functions, the Commission directly consults the INTERPOL General Secretariat; the National Central Bureaus; and other relevant entities.
• The CCF comprises seven members, appointed for a five-year term, renewable once for an additional term of three years.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy in Agriculture Sector:

• As per the extant FDI Policy, 100% FDI is allowed in the following sector through an automatic route:
  • Floriculture, Horticulture, Cultivation of Vegetables & Mushrooms under controlled conditions;
  • Development and Production of seeds and planting material;
  • Animal Husbandry (including breeding of dogs), Pisciculture, Aquaculture, Apiculture and
  • Services related to agro and allied sectors
• Further, 100% FDI is also permitted in tea sector including tea plantations, Coffee plantations, Rubber plantations, Cardamom plantations, Palm Oil plantations and Olive oil tree plantations through automatic route.
• FDI in Multi-Brand retail is also permitted up to 51% through the Government route in the agricultural sector with some conditions.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Option (a) is correct:
9^th schedule (Article 31-B) Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review. The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.

What Is an Inflationary Gap?
An inflationary gap is a macroeconomic concept that measures the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the GDP that would exist if an economy was operating at full employment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
KEY TAKEAWAYS

• An inflationary gap measures the difference between the current level of real GDP and the GDP that would exist if an economy was operating at full employment.
• For the gap to be considered inflationary, the current real GDP must be higher than the potential GDP. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Policies that can reduce an inflationary gap include reductions in government spending, tax increases, bond and securities issues, interest rate increases, and transfer payment reductions.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• An inflationary gap exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due to factors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities, or elevated government expenditure.
• Against this backdrop, the real GDP can exceed the potential GDP, resulting in an inflationary gap. The inflationary gap is named as such because the relative rise in real GDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, leading prices to climb in the long run.
• The inflationary gap represents the point in the business cycle when the economy is expanding. Due to the higher number of funds available within the economy, consumers are more inclined to purchase goods and services. As demand for goods and services increases but production has not yet compensated for the shift, prices rise to restore market equilibrium.
• When the potential GDP is higher than the real GDP, the gap is instead referred to as a deflationary gap.
• The other type of output gap is the recessionary gap, which describes an economy operating below its full-employment equilibrium.

Option (c) is correct:
North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North- Eastern Council Act of 1971. Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. Its functions are similar to those of the zonal councils, but with few additions. It has to formulate a unified and coordinated regional plan covering matters of common importance. It has to review from time to time the measures taken by the member states for the maintenance of security and public order in the region.

• Indian National Army (INA) was an armed force formed by Indian Nationalists in 1942, through the patronage of the Imperial Japanese Army.
• The idea of INA was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh. The outbreak of the Quit India movement gave a fillip to INA. On 1st September, the first division of INA was formed with 16300 men.
• But due to serious differences between the INA army led by Mohan Singh and the Japanese over the role INA was going to play, little further gain was made in its first phase.
• The second phase of the INA began when Subash Chandra Bose was brought to Singapore in 1943.
• On 21 October 1943, Bose announced the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind (Free India), with himself as the Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister of War. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• The Provisional Government not only enabled Bose to negotiate with the Japanese on an equal footing but also facilitated the mobilization of Indians in East Asia to join and support the INA. Soon after the announcement, the Provisional Government received recognition from various countries.
• The provisional government then declared war on Britain and was recognized by the axis powers and their satellites. In World War II, the three great Allied powers include Great Britain, the United States, and the Soviet Union. The three principal partners in the Axis alliance were Germany, Italy, and Japan. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is:

1. Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The statement is correct. The Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme was indeed launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan as a central sector scheme.
2. This statement is also correct. The primary objective of the PMFME Scheme is to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry

The correct answer is Option A - Regulation of migrant labour in several Gulf countries

The Kafala system is a legal and administrative framework in which a migrant worker's legal status is tied to a sponsor, typically the employer, who is responsible for the worker's residency and work permits.

The system has been widely used in several Gulf states, notably Saudi Arabia, Qatar, United Arab Emirates, Kuwait, Bahrain, and Oman.

Key characteristics include employer control over job changes and, in many cases historically, requirement of an employer's permission for exit from the country; these features have led to concerns about restricted freedom of movement and violations of labour rights.

International bodies such as the International Labour Organization (ILO) and various human-rights groups have criticised the system, and several Gulf states have introduced reforms (for example in Qatar and Saudi Arabia) to increase worker mobility and reduce employer control, though the scope and implementation of reforms vary.

Because the system is primarily an employer-based sponsorship regime affecting the employment and immigration status of migrant workers in these states, Option A is the correct choice.

Major developments in Company’s commercial privileges:

• The significant improvement in the English Company’s position was by the ‘Golden Farman’ issued to them by the Sultan of Golconda in 1632. On payment of 500 pagodas a year, they earned the privilege of trading freely in the ports of Golconda. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• By the Charter Act of 1793, the Company was empowered to give licences to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licenses, known as ‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China. Hence statement 2 is correct
• By the Charter Act of 1813, the Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea, which eventually ended by Charter Act of 1833. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Option A - 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has promoted collaborative initiatives to support river restoration and city-level action, and the Global River Cities Alliance was initiated under Indian efforts coordinated by the NMCG to bring together river cities for pollution control, riverfront planning and resilience.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The alliance was not launched as part of the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 29) in 2024; its initiation is tied to the NMCG-led effort rather than being a COP 29 launch.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

• Monsoon Trough is an elongated low- pressure area, which extends from heat low over Pakistan to Head Bay of Bengal. This is one of the semi-permanent features of monsoon circulation. Monsoon Trough may be a characteristic of the east-west orientation of the Himalayan ranges, and the north-south orientation of the Khasi- Jaintia hills.
• Generally, the eastern side of Monsoon Trough oscillates, sometimes southwards and sometimes northwards. The southward migration results in active/vigorous monsoon over major parts of India.
• In contrast, the northward migration of this Trough leads to break monsoon condition over major parts of India, and heavy rains along the foothills of the Himalayas, and sometimes floods in the Brahmaputra River.

Thalassemia Information:

• Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that results from a mutation in one or more genes that make hemoglobin.


• The mainstay treatment for the disorder is repeated blood transfusions.


• Thalassemia is not a disorder in which the blood lacks sufficient blood-clotting proteins, that statement is incorrect


 

The correct answer is Option A - Explaining innovation-driven growth and the role of creative destruction

• The phrase innovation-driven growth refers to long-run increases in output per person that arise from continual technological progress and the diffusion of new ideas, which raise productivity across the economy.

• Creative destruction describes the process by which new firms, products, or technologies replace older ones, causing structural change and reallocating resources toward more productive uses; a contribution that explains how this process drives aggregate growth fits the wording of the correct option.

• The other options describe distinct Nobel-recognised strands: behavioural models incorporating psychological biases were central to the prize awarded to Daniel Kahneman (2002); empirical use of randomised controlled trials (RCTs) in poverty research was central to the prize given to Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo, and Michael Kremer (2019); and advances in the modern theory of international trade are associated with laureates such as Paul Krugman (2008). These show why the other options refer to different recognised contributions.

• Because the described contribution focuses on the central role of innovation and the mechanism of creative destruction in generating sustained economic growth, Option A is the correct choice.

Option (d) is correct:
The Governor can reserve the bill for the consideration of the president passed by the state legislature. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court. In addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
(i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
(ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(iii) Against the larger interest of the country.
iv) Of grave national importance.
(v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.

• The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as the Chairman.
• The vice-president of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• During any period when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, he does not perform the duties of the office of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President.
• As a presiding officer, the powers and functions of the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha are similar to those of the Speaker in the Lok Sabha. However, the Speaker presides over a joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha can not preside over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament under any circumstances. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Unlike the Speaker (who is a member of the House), the Chairman is not a member of the House. The Chairman can not vote in the first instance. However, he can cast a vote in the case of an equality of votes. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Vice-President cannot preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman when a resolution for his removal is under consideration. However, he can be present and speak in the House and can take part in its proceedings, without voting, even in the case of an equality of votes (while the Speaker can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The salaries and allowances of the Chairman are fixed by the Parliament. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.
• During any period when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, he is not entitled to any salary or allowance payable to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. But he is paid the salary and allowance of the President during such a time.

Option (a) is correct:

• Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House while Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House.
• The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.

• The Coriolis effect describes the pattern of deflection taken by objects not firmly connected to the ground as they travel long distances around Earth. The Coriolis effect is responsible for many large-scale weather patterns.
• The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth’s rotation. Specifically, Earth rotates faster at the Equator than it does at the poles. Earth is wider at the Equator, so to make a rotation in one 24-hour period, equatorial regions race nearly 1,600 kilometers (1,000 miles) per hour. Near the poles, Earth rotates at a sluggish 0.00008 kilometers (0.00005 miles) per hour.
• Military snipers sometimes have to consider the Coriolis effect. Although the trajectory of bullets is too short to be greatly impacted by Earth’s rotation, sniper targeting is so precise that a deflection of several centimeters could injure innocent people or damage civilian infrastructure.
• The weather impacting fast-moving objects, such as airplanes and rockets, is influenced by the Coriolis effect. The directions of prevailing winds are largely determined by the Coriolis effect, and pilots must take that into account when charting flight paths over long distances.
• The development of weather patterns, such as cyclones and trade winds, are examples of the impact of the Coriolis effect. Cyclones are low-pressure systems that suck air into their center, or “eye.” In the Northern Hemisphere, fluids from high-pressure systems pass low-pressure systems to their right. As air masses are pulled into cyclones from all directions, they are deflected, and the storm system—a hurricane— seems to rotate counter-clockwise. In the Southern Hemisphere, currents are deflected to the left. As a result, storm systems seem to rotate clockwise. Outside storm systems, the impact of the Coriolis effect helps define regular wind patterns around the globe.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.