UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 7 - UPSC MCQ

• A cell consists of three parts: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and, between the two, the cytoplasm Within the cytoplasm lie intricate arrangements of fine fibers and hundreds or even thousands o miniscule but distinct structures called organelles.
• Cell membrane: Every cell in the body is enclosed by a cell (Plasma) membrane. The cell membran separates the material outside the cell, extracellular, from the material inside the cell, intracellular. It maintains the integrity of a cell and controls passage of materials (ions and molecules) into and ou of the cell. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Nucleus and Nucleolus: The nucleus, formed by a nuclear membrane around a fluid nucleoplasm, is th control center of the cell. Threads of chromatin in the nucleus contain deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), th< genetic material of the cell. The nucleolus is a dense region of ribonucleic acid (RNA) in the nucleus an< is the site of ribosome formation.
• Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm is the gel-like fluid inside the cell. It is the medium for chemical reaction. 1 provides a platform upon which other organelles can operate within the cell. All of the functions for cel expansion, growth and replication are carried out in the cytoplasm of a cell.
• Cytoplasmic organelles are "little organs" that are suspended in the cytoplasm of the cell. Each type o organelle has a definite structure and a specific role in the function of the cell. Examples of cytoplasmi organelles are mitochondrion, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and lysosomes.
  • The Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi body are single membrane bound structures. The membrane has the same structure (lipid-protein) as the plasma membrane but ribosomes do not have membranes. Ribosomes are involved in synthesis of proteins in the cell, Golgi bodies in secreting and the ER in transporting and storing the products. These three organelles operate together.
  • Ribosomes are present either as free particles in cytoplasm or attached to ER. Also found stored in nucleolus inside the nucleus. 80S types found in eukaryotes and 70S in prokaryotes (S- svedberg unit of measuring ribosomes). Ribosomes are sites in a cell lin which protein synthesis takes place. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • The Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, functions as a factory in which proteins received from the ER are further processed and sorted for transport to their eventual destinations: lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. In addition, as noted earlier, glycolipids and sphingomyelin are synthesized within the Golgi. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Lysosomes are present in almost all animal cells and some non-green plant cells. They perform intracellular digestion. Lysosomes are called 'suicidal bags' as enzymes contained in them can digest the cell's own material when damaged or dead. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Paris Collaborative on Green Budgeting was launched in 2017 by Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

Green Budgeting

• Environmentally responsive or green budgeting means using the tools of budgetary policy*making to help achieve environmental goals. This includes evaluating environmental impacts of budgetary and fiscal pohcies and assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and international commitments. Green budgeting can also contribute to informed, evidence-based debate and discussion on sustainable growth.
• Incorporating environmental dimensions into fiscal frameworks, including the annual budget document, evaluation of tax and expenditure policies and longterm sustainabihty analysis, will help governments to become more accountable for their environmental commitments and support them in transforming towards sustainable and resilient societies.
• Green budgeting will support governments in achieving environmental goals by:
• Evaluating environmental impacts of budgetary and fiscal pohcies
• Assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and international commitments
• Contributing to informed, evidence-based debate and discussion on sustainable growth
• Green budgeting tools help gather evidence on how budget measures impact environmental and climate objectives. The tools may include:
• Green budget tagging — Classifying budget measures according to their environmental and/or climate impact
• Environmental impact assessments — Requiring environmental impact assessments to accompany new budget measures 
• Ecosystem services, including carbon pricing — Putting a price on environmental externalities, such as greenhouse gas emissions, often through taxes and emissions trading systems, to facilitate achievement of national environmental and climate goals
• Green perspective to spending review — Incorporating consideration of the impact of measures on national environmental and climate goals alongside considerations of efficiency
• Green perspective in performance setting — Integrating performance objectives related to national environmental and climate goals
• The Paris Collaborative on Green Budgeting (PCGB), launched in 2017, is convened by the OEGD and serves as a multi-disciplinary platform for focused research and analysis to help governments at all levels emhed consideration of climate and environmental goals within their budget frameworks.

Nunataks: The higher peaks and mounds surrounded by ice from all sides are called nunataks. They look like scattered small islands amid extensive ice masses. That is why they are also called glacial islands. They decrease in size due to erosion caused by glacial lateral erosion and frost action.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Gender Budgeting is not a separate budget for women but entails dissection of the Government budgets to establish its gender differential impacts and to ensure that gender commitments are translated into budgetary commitments.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Gender Budget Statement (GBS) was first introduced in the Indian Budget in 2005-06.

Gender Budgeting

• It is a powerful tool for achieving gender mainstreaming so as to ensure that benefits of development reach women as much as men.
• It is not an accounting exercise but an ongoing process of keeping a gender perspective in policy/ programme formulation, its implementation and review.
• It is not a separate budget for women but entails dissection of the Government budgets to establish its gender differential impacts and to ensure that gender commitments are translated in to budgetary commitments.
• Since 2005-06, the Expenditure Division of Ministry of Finance has been issuing a note on Gender Budgeting as a part of Budget Circular every year. This Gender Budgeting statement comprises 2 parts:
• Part A reflects Women Specifi c Schemes i.e. those which have 100% allocation for women
• Part B reflects Pro Women Schemes i.e. those where at least 30% of allocation is for women. 

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Panchayat Development Index (PDI) is a Multidomain and multi-sectoral index that is intended to be used to assess the overall holistic development, performance & progress of panchayats. The Panchayat Development Index takes into account various socio-economic indicators and parameters to gauge the well-being and development status of the local communities within the jurisdiction of a panchayat.
The index typically considers factors such as:

• Infrastructure
• Health and Education
• Economic Indicators
• Social Indicators
• Governance and Administration
• Environmental Sustainability

Statement 2 is correct: The Panchayat Development Index shall provide public representatives, policy makers, government agencies, and local authorities with valuable insights into the areas that require attention for improvement within the rural areas under the jurisdiction of the panchayats. It helps in identifying disparities, achievement of development goals, and formulating targeted policies and interventions to enhance the overall well-being and quality of life of rural communities. The specific indicators and weights used in calculating the Panchayat Development Index can vary based on the goals and priorities of the governing body or organization that develops and utilizes the index.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Nanda dynasty ruled over Magadha when Alexander invaded India.The Nanda dynasty was the fifth ruling dynasty of Magadha in northern Indian subcontinent during the fourth century BCE and possibly also during the fifth century BCE. The Nandas overthrew the Shishunaga dynasty, and expanded the empire to include a larger part of northern India. While describing Alexander the Great's invasion of Punjab (327–325 BCE), the Greco-Roman writers depict this kingdom as a great military power. The prospect of a war against this kingdom, coupled with the exhaustion resulting from almost a decade of campaigning, led to a mutiny among Alexander's homesick soldiers, putting an end to his Indian campaign.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought in 326 BC between Alexander the Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdom on the banks of the Jhelum River in the Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent. The battle resulted in a Greek victory and the surrender of Porus.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: King Ambhi and Porus did not put up a joint front against Alexander and the Khyber pass remained unguarded. Ambhi submitted to Alexander, whereas Porus whose Kingdom laid between Jhelum and Chenab was defeated in the Battle of the Hydaspes. Although Alexander defeated Porus, he was impressed by the bravery and courage of the Indian prince. So he returned his kingdom to him and made him his ally.

Option (c) is correct: Average cost of funds and Return/profit on Net worth (investment) are not used in the calculation of MCLR.

MCLR: MCLR calculation methodology is based on the following four factors:

• Marginal cost of deposits/funds
• Cost of maintaining CRR and SLR Operational Costs of Banks
• Tenor Premium (based on the time period for which loan is given)

The basic difference between the previous Base Rate and the MCLR based rate is the Change of calculation of cost of deposits from average to marginal. The banks shall review and publish their MCLR every month.

Marginal cost of lending rates (MCLR)

• It is the minimum interest rate below which no bank is permitted to lend money. It is determined by banks internally, depending upon the loan repayment time.
• The Reserve Bank of India introduced the MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates on 1 April 2016. It replaced the base rate structure, which had been in place since July 2010.
• The rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the repayment of a loan.

Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022

• Recently, the Union Minister of Public Grievances, and Pensions, launched the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022.
• It was conceptualised and designed by the Depart menl of Administrative Reforms and Pubhc Grievances (DARPG), Govt, of India.
• Its objective to present an organisation-wise comparative picture and provide valuable insights about strengths and areas of improvement regarding the grievance redressal mechanism. Eighty-nine Central Ministries and Departments were assessed and ranked based on a comprehensive index in the dimensions of (1) Efficiency, (2) Feedback, (3) Domain and (4) Organisational Commitment and corresponding 12 indicators.
• To compute the index, data between January and December 2022 was used from the Centralised Pubhc Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).
• Key facts about Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS)
• It is an onhne platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the pubhc authorities on any subject related to service delivery. It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and States.
• Every Ministry and State have role-based access to this system. It is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application.

Writs and their uses

• In the Indian Constitution, writs play a crucial role in safeguarding the fundamental rights and liberties of individuals.
• Writs are powerful legal remedies that can be sought from the courts to protect and enforce these fundamental rights.
• They are enshrined in Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution, which grant the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, the authority to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

• The process of developing transgenic crops is an elaborate one as inserting transgenic genes into plants to elicit a sustained, protective response is a mix of both science and chance.
• There is an array of crops — brinjal, tomato, maize, chickpea — in various stages of trials that employ transgenic technology. However, cotton remains the only transgenic crop that is being commercially cultivated in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India’s biotech regulator Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) gave approval to conduct BRL-1 trial for resistance against Pink Bollworm. The genetically modified cotton expresses Cry2Ai gene for resistance against Pink Bollworm. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Pair 1 is incorrect: Habeas Corpus - It ensures that a person is not unlawfully detained.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Mandamus - It is used when a person or entity is denied a right or benefi t that they are entitled to by law.

Writs

• The Constitution of India recognizes fi ve types of writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto. Each of these writs serves a specifi c purpose and can be invoked under different circumstances.

Habeas Corpus:

• Habeas corpus literally means “to have the body.” This writ ensures that a person is not unlawfully detained or imprisoned. It enables the court to inquire into the legality of a person’s detention and, if found unlawful, orders their immediate release.
• The writ of habeas corpus acts as a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention.

Mandamus:

• Mandamus means “command” in Latin. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court, public authority, or government offi cial, directing them to perform their legal duty or public duty.
• It is used when a person or entity is denied a right or benefi t that they are entitled to by law, and the writ commands the concerned authority to fulfi ll their obligation.

Ideological differences/similarities between Gandhi and Ambedkar:

• Ambedkar advocated the Parliamentary System of Government for independent India, but Gandhi had very little respect for the Parliamentary System of Governance. Gandhi believed that democracy tends to get converted into mass democracy with a propensity for domination by the leaders.
• Ambedkar denounced the Vedas and other Hindu scriptures. He believed that the caste system and untouchability were the manifestations of the Hindu religious scriptures. On the contrary, Gandhi held that caste system in Hinduism has nothing to do with religious precepts and spirituality. For Gandhi, caste and Varna were different, and caste was perversive degeneration.
• Ambedkar believed in freedom of religion, free citizenship and separation of State and religion. Gandhi also endorsed the idea of freedom of religion, but never approved a separation of politics and religion.

• Gandhi had carefully built the tempo through individual Civil Disobedience Movements or Satyagraha, organizational revamping and a consistent propaganda campaign. The government, however, was in no mood to either negotiate with the Congress or wait for the movement to be formally launched.
• In the early hours of August 9th, 1942, in a single sweep, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations. The Congress Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.
• The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under Rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The removal of established leaders left the younger and militant elements to their own initiative. With the major leaders out of the picture, young Aruna Asaf Ali, till then relatively unknown, presided over the Congress Committee Session on August 9th, and hoisted the flag.

Rural Development

• Ministry of Rural Development has evolved a comprehensive multi-level and multiformat system of monitoring and evaluation of the implementation of rural development programmes, including Performance Review Committee Meetings, District Development Co-ordination and Monitoring Committee (“DISHA") meetings. National Level Monitors (NLMs), Area Officers Schemes, Common Review Mission, Concurrent Evaluation and Impact Assessment Studies.
• Social Audits are also conducted by some schemes like Mahatma Gandhi NREGS and PMAY-G. Third-Party evaluation of the schemes is also carried out regularly and actions, as appropriate, are taken on the findings.
• In addition to above, steps have also been taken to strengthen transparency and accountability using transaction based IT systems for MIS which include geo-tagging of assets. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), National electronic Fund Management System (Ne-FMS), Aadhaar Based Payment System (ABPS), Software for Estimate Calculation using Rural rates for Employment (SECURE) and establishment of independent social audit units and appointment of Ombudsman.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of the mountainfront through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.
• Statement 2 is correct: An inselberg is an isolated hill that stands above welldeveloped plains and appears not unlike an island rising from the sea. The early German explorers of southern Africa were impressed by such features, and they dubbed the domed or castlelike highlands inselbergs. Spectacular examples include Uluru/Ayers Rock and the Olga Rocks in central Australia. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains. Inselbergs are relict features. They have maintained their relief as the adjacent surrounding landscape was lowered.

The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces is not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.

Originally from Topra (near Haryana) and Meerut, respectively, the Mauryan columns were brought to the capital by Feroz Shah Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi in the 14th Century.
Legend goes that the emperor was fascinated by these pillars when he noticed them during his military campaigns. Tarikh-i- Firoz Shahi recalls that the king said that the pillars were the walking sticks of Bhima from the Mahabharata. Filled with admiration, Tughlaq decided to bring them to Delhi as trophies of his conquest.

• Statement 1 is correct: Externalities lead to market failure because a product or service’s price equilibrium does not accurately refl ect the true costs and benefi ts of that product or service.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Equilibrium, which represents the ideal balance between buyers’ benefit s and producers’ costs, is supposed to result in the optimal level of production.
• However, the equilibrium level is fl awed when there are signifi cant externalities, creating incentives that drive individual actors to make decisions which end up making the group worse off. This is known as a market failure.
• Statement 3 is correct: A negative externality initiated in production which imposes an external cost on others may be received by another in consumption or in production. 

Externality

• An externality stems from the production or consumption of a good or service, resulting in a cost or benefi t to an unrelated third party.
• Equilibrium is the ideal balance between buyers’ benefi ts and producers’ costs, while market failure is the ineffi cient distribution of goods and services in the market.
• Externalities lead to market failure because a product or service’s price equilibrium does not accurately refle ct the true costs and benefi ts of that product or service.

Option (a) is correct: The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humifi cation and mineralisation.

Biodiversity

• Ecosystems thrive on biodiversity, which refers to the variety of different species and their interactions within an ecosystem. Biodiversity provides stability to ecosystems and contributes to their resilience.
• Different species play unique roles, such as pollination, seed dispersal, and pest control, which are crucial for ecosystem function.

Regulation of Environmental Conditions

• Ecosystems help regulate environmental conditions. Forests, for example, act as carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and mitigating climate change.

Sacred Groves

• Sacred groves are patches of natural vegetation preserved by ancient/indigenous societies on religious and cultural grounds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are rich in biodiversity and act as habitats of many endangered and threatened plant species.They consists of a dense cover of vegetation including climbers, herbs, shrubs and trees, with the presence of a village deity and is mostly situated near a perennial water source.
• They are considered to be symbols of the primitive practice of nature worship and support nature conservation to a great extent.
• They are maintained by rural communities. No governments have been involved in their maintenance so far. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Many are protected and maintained by the village community by evolving certain taboos and restrictions. Some are also maintained by individual families. In some cases, individual and ancient trees also act as sacred groves, with the idol of a deity under the tree.
• People believe that any damage to the sacred grove would harm any living fauna there or cutting any tree or climber of the grove may cause diseases and failure of agricultural crops.
• Many villages have set apart sanctified land to propitiate the Vanadevadas, or forest spirits. The entire grove is considered sacred in certain areas and worshipped.
• Sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’ in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002. Hence statement 2 is correct.

​​​​​​​Recent Context: Switzerland and India have reached consensus on Free-Trade Agreement after 16 years of negotiation.

• Political features
  • Landlocked country of central Europe.
  • Bordered to France (west), Germany (north), Austria and Liechtenstein (east), and Italy (south).
• Geographical features
  • Major Rivers: River Rhine, Rhone.
  • Highest Point: Dufourspitze.
  • Major mountain ranges: Alps, Jura.
• Danube River, river, the second longest in Europe after the Volga. It rises in the Black Forest mountains of western Germany and flows for some 1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth on the Black Sea. Along its course it passes through 10 countries: Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Steps taken during the National Movement for the upliftment of the depressed classes and the untouchables:

• While in jail, Gandhi set up the AllIndia Anti-Untouchability League in 1932, and started the weekly Harijan in 1933. After his release, he shifted to the Satyagraha Ashram in Wardha, as he had vowed in 1930 not to return to the Sabarmati Ashram, unless Swaraj was won.
• Gandhi distinguished between abolition of untouchability and abolition of caste system as such. On this point, he differed from Ambedkar, who advocated annihilation of the caste system to remove untouchability. Gandhi felt that whatever the limitations and defects of the Varnashram system, there was nothing sinful about it, as there was about untouchability. Untouchability, Gandhi felt, was a product of distinctions of high and low, and not of the caste system itself.
• When Gandhi named the depressed classes and the untouchables as Harijan‘, Ambedkar denounced it as a clever scheme. Thus, when the Depressed Classes League was renamed as Harijan Sevak Sangh (by Gandhi), Ambedkar left the organization by claiming that for Gandhi removal of untouchability was only a platform, not a sincere programme.

The correct chronological order of events from past to present is:

• Option 1: The Achaemenian rulers of Iran who expanded their empire at the same time as the Magadhan princes took advantage of the political disunity on the north-west frontier. The Iranian ruler Darius penetrated into North West India in 516 B.C. and annexed Punjab West of the Indus and Sindh.This area constituted the 20th province or Satrapy of Iran, the total number of Satrapies in Iranian empire being 28.
• Option 3: Xerxes, the successor of Darius employed Indians in the long war against the Greeks. It appears that India continued to be a part of Iranian empire till Alexander's invasion of India.
• Option 2: Mahapadma Nanda conquered the Shishunaga dynasty in Magadha and established the Nanda dynasty in 345 BCE. It lasted upto 321 BC. Mahapadma Nanda, is thought to have come from a low-caste background.
• Option 4: The invasion of north-west India by Alexander the Great and the defeat of King Porus happened in 326 BCE, which makes it the last event in the chronology.

State Election Commission 

•  In India, the State Election Commission (SEC) plays a vital role in ensuring free and fair elections at the state level. It is a constitutional body established under the provisions of the Indian Constitution. 
•  The role of the State Election Commission is primarily focused on conducting elections to the local bodies, such as municipal corporations, municipal councils, panchayats, and other urban and rural local bodies within the state.

Features and functions of the State Election Commission in India:

Constitutional Status 

• The State Election Commission derives its authority from Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution of India. 
• These articles provide for the establishment and composition of the State Election Commission and its powers and functions.

Independent Body 

• The State Election Commission is intended to be an independent and autonomous body.
• It is not under the control of the state government. 
• The Chief State Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the Governor of the state, and they are usually retired senior civil servants or judicial officers.

Conducting Elections 

• The primary responsibility of the State Election Commission is to conduct elections to local bodies in the state. 
• This includes preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, issuance of notifications for elections, and supervision of the entire election process.

Water cycle (hydrological cycle).

• Water received from the atmosphere on the earth returns back tthe atmosphere as water vapour resulting from direct evaporation and through evapotranspiration, the continuous movement of water in the biosphere is called the water cycle (hydrological cycle).
• Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, rivers and streams evaporates from the sun’s heat energy. Plants alstranspire huge amounts of water. Water remains in the vapour state in the air and forms clouds which drift with the wind. Clouds meet with the cold air in the mountainous regions above the forests and condense tform rain precipitate which comes down due tgravity.

Distribution of water:

• Water is not evenly distributed throughout the surface of the earth. Almost 95 % of the total water on the earth is chemically bound trocks and does not cycle. Out of the remaining 5%, nearly 97.3% is in the oceans and 2.1% exists as polar ice caps. Thus only 0.6% is present as fresh water in the form of atmospheric water vapours, ground and soil water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The driving forces for the water cycle are 1) solar radiation and 2) gravity. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Evaporation and precipitation are twmain processes involved in water cycle. These twprocesses alternate with each other.

• On an average 84% of the water is lost from the surface of the through oceans by evaporation. While 77% returns tit from precipitation. Water runoff from lands through rivers toceans makes up 7% which balances the evaporation deficit of the ocean. In other words, Precipitation in oceans is less than Evaporation. Whereas On land, evaporation is 16% and precipitation is 23%. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The Thar Desert, alsknown as the Great Indian Desert, is an arid region in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent that covers an area of 200,000 km² in India and Pakistan. The Thar Desert is about 4.56% of the total geographical area of India. More than 60% of the desert lies in the Indian state of Rajasthan; the portion in India alsextends intGujarat, Punjab, and Haryana.
• The climate of this region is characterised by excessive drought, the rainfall being scanty and irregular.
  • The winter rains of northern India rarely penetrate intthe region. November tMarch is characterized by extreme varia- tions of temperature and the temperature is frequently below freezing point at night.
  • During April tJune the heat are intense, frequent scorching winds prevail with great desiccating.
• The natural vegetation consists of tropical thorn forests and tropical dry deciduous forests, sandy deserts with seasonal salt marshes and mangroves are found in the main estuaries. Typical shrubs are phog growing on sand dunes. Sewan grass covers extensive areas called pali. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Thar desert possesses most of the major insect species. 43 reptile species and moderate bird endemism are found here. Nniche of the Thar is devoid of birds. The black buck was once the dominant mammal of the desert region, now confined only tcertain pockets. The gazelle is the only species of the Indian antelope of which the females have horns. Nilgai the largest antelope of India and the wild ass, a distinct subspecies, is now confined tthe Rann of Kutch which is a breeding site in the Indian subcontinent for the flamingoes. Other species like desert fox, great Indian bustard, chinkara and desert cat are alsfound. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-forprofit, industry body on data protection in India, setup by nasscom, committed to making the cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. To further its objectives, DSCI engages with governments and their agencies, regulators, industry sectors, industry associations and think tanks for policy advocacy, thought leadership, capacity building and outreach activities.
• Statement 2 is correct: The aim of the council is to strengthen thought leadership in cyber security and privacy, DSCI develops best practices and frameworks, published studies, surveys and papers. It builds capacity in security, privacy and cyber forensics through training and certification programs for professionals and law enforcement agencies and engages stakeholders through various outreach initiatives including events, awards, chapters, consultations and membership programs. DSCI also endeavors to increase India’s share in the global security product and services market through global trade development initiatives. These aim to strengthen the security and privacy culture in India.

Only statement 1 is correct.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
• In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the I op three positions.

World Press Freedom Index 2023

• India was ranked 161 out of 180 countries. Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the top three positions.
• It is released by Paris based Reporters Without Borders (RSF), one of the world’s leading NGOs in defense and promotion of freedom of information. It is published on World Press Freedom Day (3 May).
• Evaluation is done using live contextual in dicators: political context, legalframework, economic context, sociocultural context and safety.