UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 1

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mangroves?

  1. Mangrove plants have Pneumatophores roots which help to enhance deposition of sediment in area.
  2. Mangroves grow in areas with low- oxygen soil.
  3. They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pneumatophores help in obtaining oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate.
  • Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone.
  • Mangroves grow in areas with lowoxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate.
  • Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
  • They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud.
  • The Sundarbans delta is the largest mangrove forest in the world and is intersected by a complex network of tidal waterways, mudflats and small islands of salt-tolerant mangrove forests. It lies at the mouth of the Ganges.
  • Mangroves have breathing roots also called aerial roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air.
  • The mangrove mud is rather anaerobic (oxygen poor) and unstable and different plants have root adaptations to cope with these conditions.
  • Pneumatophores - Pneumatophores are erect roots that are some form of upward extension of the underground root system. 
  • Because these roots are exposed at least part of the day and not submerged underwater, the root system can obtain oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate. Pneumatophores also accumulate sediments in protected sites and form mangrove peats.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about E-Shram Portal:

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. It is a registration portal for unorganized workers.
  3. Registration on this portal is paid with a nominal charge of ₹50.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 2
  • The Ministry of Labour & Employment has launched e-SHRAM portal, a National Database of the Unorganised Workers on 26th August, 2021.
  • The e-Shram portal is a centralized database that helps to implement social security services for unorganized workers.
  • It also helps to share information with stakeholders and provide a comprehensive database for national crises.
  • The portal uses Aadhaar to deliver social security benefits and ensure that the benefits are portable to migrant and construction workers at their workplaces.
  • Registration on portal is free.
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 3

With reference to the Ring of Fire, consider the following statements:

  1. The Ring of Fire is a region characterized by high volcanic activity but no seismic activity.
  2. The Ring of Fire is primarily located in the Indian Ocean and is home to numerous coral reefs.
  3. It is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic plate movements.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 3
  • Only statement 3 is correct.
  • The Ring of Fire is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to the movement of tectonic plates. It is where several tectonic plates meet, resulting in significant geological activity, including the formation of volcanoes and seismic events.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about the Strait of Gibraltar:

  1. It is one of the narrowest straits in the world.
  2. It separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Mediterranean Sea.
  3. It was formed as a result of volcanic activity in the last 100 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 4

Let's analyze each statement about the Strait of Gibraltar:

1. It is one of the narrowest straits in the world.
   - This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar is indeed one of the narrowest straits, with a width of about 13 kilometers (8 miles) at its narrowest point.

2. It separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Mediterranean Sea.
   - This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Europe (Spain) from Africa (Morocco).

3. It was formed as a result of volcanic activity in the last 100 years.
   - This is false. The Strait of Gibraltar was not formed by volcanic activity, nor was it formed in the last 100 years. It is a much older geological feature, formed millions of years ago due to tectonic processes.

Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.

The correct answer is:

2. Only two

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 5

Consider the following freedom fighters:

  1. Ram Prasad Bismil
  2. Ashfaqulla Khan
  3. Sachindra Nath Bakshi
  4. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

How many among the above were the founders of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 5
  • The HRA was founded by a group of young men who were disillusioned by Gandhi’s tactics and what they felt was zealous preaching of “non-violence.”
  • Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan, both of whom had a flair for poetry, were among the group’s founders. Others included Sachindra Nath Bakshi and trade unionist Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. Figures such as Chandra Shekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh would also join the HRA. Their manifesto released on January 1, 1925, was titled Krantikari (Revolutionary).
  • It proclaimed, “The immediate object of the revolutionary party in the domain of politics is to establish a federal Republic of United States of India by an organized and armed revolution.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about the BhashaNet portal:

  1. It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
  2. It provides an ecosystem to enable citizens to easily create, communicate, transact, process and retrieve information with ease in digital medium without language barrier.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 6
  • Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) have launched the BhashaNet portal during the Universal Acceptance Day event with support from the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
  • It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
  • Universal Acceptance (UA) is a technical requirement that ensures that all domain names, email addresses, and top-level domains (TLDs) are treated equally.
  • This means that all UA domain names can be used by any internet-enabled device, application, or system, regardless of script, language, or character length.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 7

Consider the following:

  1. 3D printing
  2. Quantum computing
  3. Detection of contamination of food

How many of the areas/fields mentioned above is nanotechnology used?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 7
  • Both 3D printing and nanotechnology often join forces to provide novel structures and application methods. Nanomaterials are utilized to enhance the features of printed materials such as electrical conductivity and sensing properties while 3D printing technologies are utilized to obtain nanosized structures that are not feasible by any other method.
  • The convergence of nanotechnology and quantum science is rapidly expanding and proving to be mutually beneficial to both fields. Quantum nanoscience is a vital research area that intersects nanoscale science and quantum science, providing essential insights for developing nanotechnologies. It leverages quantum mechanics to explore and exploit coherent quantum effects in engineered nanostructures, offering possibilities for new nanodevices and nanoscale materials. Nanoscale materials and devices are used for quantum metrology and sensing, building blocks for quantum computing, and sources and detectors for quantum communication. They enable investigations into quantum behavior and unconventional states in nano- and opto-mechanical systems, low-dimensional systems, molecular devices, nano-plasmonics, quantum electrodynamics, scanning tunneling microscopy, and more.
  • The benefits of nanotechnology for the food industry are many and are expected to grow with time. This new, rapidly developing technology impacts every aspect of the food system from cultivation to food production to processing, packaging, transportation, shelf life and bioavailability of nutrients.
  • Nanomaterials are used as sensors to detect contamination and regulate the food environment. They can detect microbial and other food contaminants. Therefore, they are used as sensors in food production and at packaging plants. They can monitor the condition of food during transport and storage. They can detect nutrient deficiency in edible plants, and dispensers containing nutrients can deliver them to plants when needed. Therefore, nanomaterials can be used as nanosensors and nanotracers with almost unlimited potential by the food industry. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Other applications of nanotechnology include:
    • Nanoscale additives to or surface treatments of fabrics can provide lightweight ballistic energy deflection in personal body armor or can help them resist wrinkling, staining, and bacterial growth.
    • Clear nanoscale films on eyeglasses, computer and camera displays, windows, and other surfaces can make them water- and residue-repellent, antireflective, self-cleaning, resistant to ultraviolet or infrared light, antifog, antimicrobial, scratch-resistant, or electrically conductive.
    • Nanoscale materials are beginning to enable washable, durable “smart fabrics” equipped with flexible nanoscale sensors and electronics with capabilities for health monitoring, solar energy capture, and energy harvesting through movement.
    • Lightweighting of cars, trucks, airplanes, boats, and spacecraft could lead to significant fuel savings. Nanoscale additives in polymer composite materials are being used in baseball bats, tennis rackets, bicycles, motorcycle helmets, automobile parts, luggage, and power tool housings, making them lightweight, stiff, durable, and resilient.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 8

We feel burning pain when stung by Ant. Which of the following acid is responsible for the burning pain?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 8

Formic acid or Methanoic Acid is present in a natural state in stinging nettles and is responsible for the burning pain in contact with them. It is also found in the stings and bites of many insects, including bees and ants, which use it as a chemical defence mechanism. When the ant contracts its poison gland, the formic acid stored in this gland passes in the sting and is propelled out in jets (up to a distance of one meter in some species!) toward the attackers of the ant. Since formic acid has a pH of ~2-3, the attackers usually flee or are killed. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. Predictable environment
  2. The complex relationship amongst species
  3. Niche similarity amongst species
  4. More insolation

How many of the above can enhance the biodiversity of the Earth?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 9

Biodiversity

  • Some important reasons that influence the pattern of Biodiversity are as follows:
    • Speciation which is needed for species diversification
    • A relatively more constant and predictable environment that promotes niche specialization and lead to greater species diversity.
    • More insolation contributes to higher productivity, in turn, contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
    • The more complex ecosystem provides more food web i.e. many entry points for any organism. This, in turn, sustains the greater biodiversity.
  • Niche similarity is not good, promotes high competition and leads to loss of biodiversity.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 10

Consider the following pairs:  
Technologies : Used for

  1. Gravitational settling : To control air pollution
  2. Phytoremediation : To control noise pollution
  3. Electrostatic precipitators : To control water pollution

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 10
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gravitational settling is used to control air pollution. It is used to remove large diameter suspended particles from a gas by using gravitational force.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Phytoremediation is used to control soil pollution. It uses microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to damage the environment into less toxic form. The microorganisms may be native to the polluted area or they may be invasive.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Electrostatic precipitators are the control measure of air pollution. Works on the principle of electrostatic precipitation, in which electrically charged particulates existing in the polluted gas are isolated from the gas stream under the influence of electrical field.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 11

The Indian Constituent Assembly played a pivotal role in shaping the Constitution of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding member of drafting committee?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

Important Personalities:

  • The Indian Constituent Assembly, through its composition, inclusive representation, and key debates, created a Constitution that reflects the aspirations and values of a diverse nation. The Constitution has provided a strong foundation for India’s democracy, upholding fundamental rights, ensuring social justice, and promoting the welfare of its citizens.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. He played a crucial role in drafting the Constitution and advocating for the rights of marginalized communities. His efforts were instrumental in incorporating provisions related to social justice and equality.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru: As the first Prime Minister of India, Nehru played an influential role in shaping the Constitution. He emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly. His leadership and guidance ensured smooth proceedings and maintained the integrity of the assembly.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Known as the “Iron Man of India,” Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union. His efforts in securing national unity and territorial integrity were essential during the framing of the Constitution.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 12

With reference to the Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. They are voluntary agencies, monitored by the State Legal Aid and Advice Boards.
2. It provides for setting up of Legal Services Authorities at the Central, State and District levels.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 12

Lok Adalats

  • Lok Adalats which are voluntary agencies is monitored by the State Legal Aid and Advice Boards. They have proved to be a successful alternative forum for resolving of disputes through the conciliatory method.
  • The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides statutory status to the legal aid movement and it also provides for setting up of Legal Services Authorities at the Central, State and District levels.
  • These authorities will have their own funds. Further, Lok Adalats which are at present informal agencies will acquire statutory status.
  • Every award of Lok Adalats shall be deemed to be a decree of a civil court or order of a Tribunal and shall be fi nal and binding on the parties to the dispute. 
  • It also provides that in respect of cases decided at a Lok Adalat, the court fee paid by the parties will be refunded.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 13

With reference to the external trade routes in Post-Mauryan period, consider the following:

  1. Kalyana
  2. Sopara
  3. Muziris
  4. Arikamedu

How many of the above were the important ports on the western coast of India ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 13
  • As regards external trade routes, after the discovery of monsoons by Hippatus a Greek navigator in 45 AD, more and more sea voyages were used for trading purposes. Important ports of India on the western coast were (from north to south direction) Bharukachchha Sopara, Kalyana, Muziris, etc. Ships from these ports sailed to the Roman Empire through the Red Sea. Hence, Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Trade with southeast Asia was conducted through the sea. Prominent ports on the eastern coast of India were Tamralipti (West Bengal), Arikamedu (Tamil Nadu Coast) etc. Sea trade was also conducted between Bharukachchha and the ports of Southeast Asia. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

1. Election Commission is the only electoral management body (EMB) in India.
2. As per the independent model of electoral management, members of Electoral management bodies (EMBs) are not accountable to any government ministry or department.
3. A national population or statistics bureau that produces electoral registers as part of the general process of population registration is not considered to be an EMB.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 14

Election Commission as an Electoral management Body

  • An EMB is an organization or body that has the sole purpose of, and is legally responsible for, managing some or all of the elements that are essential for the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments—such as referendums, citizens’ initiatives and recall votes—if those are part of the legal framework. These essential (or core) elements include:
    • determining who is eligible to vote;
    • receiving and validating the nominations of electoral participants (for elections, political parties and/or candidates);
    • conducting polling;
    • counting the votes; and
    • Tabulating the votes.
  • If these essential elements are allocated to various bodies, then all bodies that share these responsibilities can be considered EMBs. An EMB may be a stand- alone institution, or a distinct management unit within a larger institution that may also have non-electoral tasks.
  • In addition to these essential elements, an EMB may undertake other tasks that assist in the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments, such as voter registration, boundary delimitation, voter education and information, media monitoring and electoral dispute resolution. However, a body that has no electoral responsibilities other than, for example, boundary delimitation (such as a boundary delimitation commission), electoral dispute resolution (such as an electoral court), election media monitoring (such as a media monitoring commission), or the conduct of voter education and information (such as a civic education commission) is not considered an EMB because it is not managing any of the essential elements identified above.
  • Similarly, a national population or statistics bureau that produces electoral registers as part of the general process of population registration is not considered to be an EMB.
  • Different EMBs may be established for different electoral processes. In Mexico and Poland, the EMBs are responsible for both presidential and parliamentary elections; in Australia, the national EMB deals with national-level elections, while state-level elections are the responsibility of separate state-level EMBs. In the United Kingdom (UK), the arrangements for the conduct of elections and referendums are separate.
  • Some bodies that are not engaged in any of the essential elements of elections may nonetheless be popularly regarded as EMBs. 
  • The US Federal Election Commission (FEC) defi nes its mission as ‘administering and enforcing federal campaign fi nance laws’. However, such institutions do not qualify as EMBs under the definition above.
  • In addition to the division of functional responsibility for different elements of the electoral process, electoral responsibilities may be divided between bodies at different levels.
  • For example, some elements of the conduct of elections may be managed by a nationallevel electoral commission, a ministry (such as the Ministry of the Interior) or a national government agency, while others are implemented by local-level commissions, regional branches of government departments or local authorities (as in Spain).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 15

Arrange the following historical events on a chronological sequence:

  1. Second Round Table Conference
  2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
  3. Karachi Resolution
  4. Execution of Bhagat Singh

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 15
  • After deliberating amongst itself for close to three weeks, and after long discussions with delegates who had returned from London's first RTC, and with other leaders representing a cross-section of political opinion, the Congress Working Committee authorized Gandhiji to initiate discussions with the Viceroy. The fortnight-long discussion culminated on 5 March 1931 in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which was variously described as a ‘truce’ and a provisional settlement.’ The Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, a procedure that was hardly popular with officialdom as it placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government.
  • The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or Delhi Pact. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier.
  • The Karachi Resolution was passed by the Indian National Congress at its 1931 Karachi session. The Session was conducted in the shadow of three major events. First, Mahatma Gandhi had just been released from prison following his Salt Satyagraha. Second, the Gandhi-Irwin pact had just been concluded which had brought the civil disobedience movement to an end. And third, the British government had, a week before the session, executed Bhagat Singh and two of his associates in connection with the Kakori Conspiracy case.The Resolution is three pages long and is mostly written in a quasi-legal style. It reiterated the Congress Party’s commitment to ‘Purna Swaraj’ or ‘complete independence’. In addition to fundamental rights which protected civil liberties, the Resolution for the first time put forward a list of socio-economic principles/rights that the Indian state had to adhere to. These included: protections for industrial workers, abolishing of child labour, free primary education and protections for agricultural labour. The Resolution also, which seems to be a Gandhian influence, prohibited intoxicating drinks and drugs.
  • Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death in the Lahore conspiracy case and ordered to be hanged on 24 March 1931. The schedule was moved forward by 11 hours and the three were hanged on 23 March 1931 at 7:30 pm in the Lahore jail.
  • Gandhiji sailed for London on 29 August 1931 to attend the Second Round Table Conference. It was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931. Nothing much was expected from the Conference for the imperialist political and financial forces, which ultimately controlled the British Government in London, were opposed to any political or economic concessions being given to India which could lead to its independence from their control. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding crowding out phenomena:
Statement-I: It is the result of an expansionary fiscal policy stance.
Statement-II: Crowding-out results in a decrease in the real interest rate in the economy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 16

Statement 2 is incorrect: Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy.
Supplementary Notes
Crowding out

  • Crowding out refers to a phenomenon where increased borrowing by the government (expansionary policy) to meet its spending needs causes a decrease in the quantity of funds that is available to meet the investment needs of the private sector .
  • Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy
  • One of the most common forms of crowding out takes place when a large government, such as that of the U.S., increases its borrowing and sets in motion a chain of events that result in the curtailing of private sector spending. The sheer scale of this type of borrowing can lead to substantial rises in the real interest rate, which has the effect of absorbing the economy’s lending capacity and of discouraging businesses from making capital investments. Companies often fund such projects in part or entirely through financing, and are now discouraged from doing so because the opportunity cost of borrowing money has risen, making traditionally profitable projects funded through loans cost-prohibitive.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Congress saw the Simon Commission as a violation of the principle of self-determination and an insult to self-respect.
  2. The anti-Simon Commission Movement immediately lead to a wider political struggle.
  3. After the Nehru Report, communalism began to grow in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 17
  • The catalyst to the new phase of the movement was provided when, in November, 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman, as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protests from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of the Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that the foreigners would discuss and decide upon India‘s fitness for self-government. In other words, this British action was seen as a violation of the principle of self-determination and a deliberate insult to the self-respect of the Indians.
  • At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission ―at every stage and in every form‖. The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress‘s decision. In fact, the Simon Commission united, at least temporarily, different groups and parties in the country.
  • As a gesture of solidarity with the nationalists, the Muslim League even accepted the principle of joint electorates, provided seats were reserved for the Muslims. All important Indian leaders and parties also tried to meet the challenge of the Simon Commission by getting together and trying to evolve an alternative scheme of constitutional reforms. Tens of conferences and joint meetings of leading political workers were held. The end result was the Nehru Report, named after its chief architect, Motilal Nehru, and finalized in August, 1928. Unfortunately, the All Party Convention, held at Calcutta in December, 1928, failed to pass the Report. Objections were raised by some of the communal-minded leaders belonging to the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League. Thus, the prospects of national unity were foiled by the communal groups. Communalism began to grow steadily after this.
  • It should also be noted that there existed a basic difference between the politics of the nationalists and the politics of the communalists. The nationalists carried on a political struggle against the alien government to win political rights and freedom for the country. This was not the case with the communalists, Hindu or Muslim. Their demands were made on the nationalists; on the other hand, they usually looked to the foreign government for support and favours. They frequently struggled against the Congress and cooperated with the government.
  • The Commission‘s arrival in India led to a powerful protest movement in which nationalist enthusiasm and unity reached new heights. On 3rd February, the day the Commission reached Bombay, an allIndia hartal was organized. Wherever the Commission went, it was greeted with hartals and black-flag demonstrations under the sloganSimon Go Back‘. The government used brutal suppression and police attacks to break the popular opposition.
  • The anti-Simon Commission Movement did not immediately lead to wider political struggle, because Gandhi, the unquestioned, though undeclared leader of the national movement, was not yet convinced that the time for struggle had come. But popular enthusiasm could not be held back for long, as the country was, once again, in a mood of struggle.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 18

The term ‘Brumbrella’ was recently seen in the news in the context of which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 18
  • Brumbrella takes its name from a large pitch covering that was used at Edgbaston from 1981 to 2001.
  • It’s the latest in the series of innovations implemented by England in the recent past as they attempt to spice up Test cricket. In this, all fielders were placed in close-catching positions, three on the offside and three on the leg, as the field setup looked like an umbrella.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 19

In the context of gravitational force and electromagnetic force, consider the following statements:

  1. While gravitational force is always attractive, electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
  2. While gravitational force is only dependent on mass, the electromagnetic force is dependent on both mass andcharge.
  3. While gravitational force is dependent upon the distance between the two bodies, the electromagnetic force is independent of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 19
  • The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
  • The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive. The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass.

Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 20

One thick woollen blanket is less warm than two thin woollen blankets joined together to same thickness. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the above phenomenon?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 20
  • There is air trapped in between the wool fibers in case of combined blankets. Hence air together with wool conducts less heat through the blanket as this air prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surroundings. Such is not the case with a single blanket.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 21

Which of the following pairs regarding the pollutants and their sources are correctly matched?

  1. Sulphur compounds : Oil Refineries
  2. Nitrogen compounds : Motor vehicle exhaust
  3. Carbon compounds : Automobile exhaust

Select the correct option using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 21

Pollutants and their sources

  • Nitrogen Compound

Source: Motor vehicle exhaust

  • Effects:
    • Irritation in eyes and lungs (NO and N2O) atmospheric reaction
    • Low productivity in plants
    • Acid rain damages material (metals and stone)
  • Sulphur compounds

Source: Power plants and refineries

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problems in humans (SO2 and H2S) volcanic eruptions
    • Loss of chlorophyll in plants (chlorosis)
    • Acid rain
  • Hydrocarbons (benzene, ethylene)

Source: Automobiles and petroleum industries

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problem
    • Cancer causing properties
  • Carbon compound (CO and CO2)

Source: Automobile exhaust, burning of wood and coal

  • Effects:
    • Respiratory problems
    • Greenhouse effect
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 22

With reference to the early medieval history of India, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 22

Pair 1 is correct: Karkota (also called Karkotaka) dynasty was founded by Durlabhavardhana (Reign:598-634 AD). Durlabhavardhana won the friendship of Harshavardhana by presenting him a prized tooth-relic of the Buddha for installation in a shrine at Kanauj. The most powerful ruler of the Karkota dynasty was Lalitaditya (Reign: 724-60 AD), who is known as/for:

  • the third son of Durlabhaka alias Pratapaditya.
  • Subjugation of Yashovarman of Kannauj ( 740 AD)
  • Invasion of Karnata, then subject to a queen named Ratta.
  • Occupation of Avanti and Kamboja, conquering a portion of the Punjab.
  • Campaigns in Tukharistan (the upper Oxus valley) and Daradadesa (Dardistan, north-west of Kashmir).
  • Carrying his arms to the land of the Bhauttas (Tibetans) and advancing into the realms of Uttarakuru.
  • Founding cities of Lalitapura and Parihasapura. In the city of Parihasapura, he built temples for Brahmanical goods – Bhutesa (Shiva) and Parihasa Kesava (Vishnu). Also, in this city, he erected stone-image of Garuda and constructed a colossal figure of the Buddha.
  • Erection of an image of Mukta Svamin and the temple of Jyestha Rudra in Huskapura.
  • Building Buddhist viharas at Huskapura.
  • Construction of the Martanda temple of the Sun.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala (Reign: 750-770 AD) in Bengal; he swiftly ended the prevailing conditions of Matsyanyaya (strong devouring the weak), establishing order. Another renowned ruler of the Pala Dynasty was:

  • Dharmapala (Reign: 770- 810 AD), son and successor of Gopala, who extended Pala's rule over substantial parts of north India. An ardent Buddhist, he commissioned the construction of several Buddhist monasteries and founded the renowned University of Vikramshila.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Yashovarman (Reign: 725-752 AD), who ascended the throne of Kannauj:

  • was a reputed warrior.
  • formed an alliance with China against the Arabs.
  • was a patron of Bhababhuti (great Sanskrit litterateur).
  • was a patron of Vakpati (who wrote Gaudavaho: Prakrit poem).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 23

Which of the following statements about parthenogenesis is/are true? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 23
  • Context: Researchers genetically modified the Drosophila melanogaster fruit fly, typically a sexually reproducing species, to reproduce asexually.
  • Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction where an embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many places in south India
Statement-II : The southern part of India played an important role in the maritime trade route due to easy access to the coast.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 24
  • Statement-I is correct: In trade, the barter system was much in vogue, though coins were also in use. Roman coins circulated as bullion. The major early historic ports have evidence of Roman amphora, glassware and other materials suggesting active maritime activities. The wealth brought by the Romans and the arrival of foreign merchants is evidenced in archaeology as well as literature. Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many hoards in the Coimbatore region and in many other places in south India
  • Statement-II is correct: Long distance trade existed, and the connections with the Roman Empire and southeast Asia are evidenced at many archaeological sites. The southern part of India, because of its easy access to the coast and location in the maritime trade route connecting the East and the West, played an important role in overseas contacts.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 25

With reference to the General Elections held in 1945, consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian National Congress won a majority of seats in the Central Legislative Assembly.
  2. The Muslim League assumed power in Bengal, Punjab and Sind.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 25
  • In the elections to the central assembly in December 1945, out of 102 seats, Congress won 57, the League 30, Independents 5, Akalis 2 and Europeans 8. Congress received 91 percent of non-Muslim votes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • In the elections to the provincial assemblies, Congress won 923 of 1585 seats, including 23 of the 38 labour seats, but was defeated by the Muslim League in the Muslim seats.
  • In the NWFP, the League contested all 33 Muslim seats and won 15 of them. 19 Muslim seats were won by the Congress, and 58.75 percent of the Muslim vote went to the non-League parties.
  • In Punjab, the League gained 73 seats, with its share of the Muslim vote being 65.10 percent. The League gained 83.6 percent of the Muslim vote in Bengal. It won 76 percent of the total Muslim vote in India. This was a sharp rise from the 4.8 percent vote in its tally in 1937.
  • The elections of 1946 were a watershed. The results made it clear that the Congress represented the large masses of the country. It was equally clear, however, that the Muslim League spoke for most Muslims.
  • The Congress was to go on to form governments in the provinces of Madras, Bombay, United Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Central Provinces and Berar and NWFP. The League formed ministries in Bengal and Sind.
  • In Punjab, after the 1946 elections, some negotiations between the Muslim League and Akalis were carried out with a possible coalition in mind. This had been unsuccessful, and Akalis joined with Unionists and Congress to form a coalition ministry. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh project and the Agro-Food Atlas:

  1. The Food Atlas is a repository of diverse crops across all the 127 agro-climatic zones of India.
  2. The project depends on the diverse data sources provided by ISRO and NASA among others.
  3. The project also documents social, behavioral and cultural practices that promote and reinforce healthy dietary behaviors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh

  • Ministry of Women and Child Development along with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) announced the Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh (BPKK) in New Delhi on 18th November, 2019.
  • Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh” project has two components – Development of a Food Atlas and Documentation of promising practices for Jan-Andolan for POSHAN Abhiyaan.
  • The Agro-Food Atlas is to act as a repository of diverse crops across 127 agro-climatic zones of the country having three parts- crops currently being grown, agro-ecological conditions (soil, organic carbon content, ground water availability etc) and guidance on how a greater diversity of crops could be encouraged in a particular district or block to promote dietary diversity and nutrition.
  • The project includes diverse data sources like National Sample Survey, Agri-Census, Soil Health Cards, ISRO’s Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA’s) Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectro-Radio meter.
  • Identification of promising practices with the help of a multi-disciplinary group of experts and developments of a tool kit to disseminate best strategies for Social and Behavioural Change Communication, specifi c to population groups in those regions is also a part of it.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A member country need not to present a declaration of balance of paymentsrelated needs to make a purchase in the reserve tranche.
Reason (R): The reserve tranche is a segment of an International Monetary Fund (IMF) member country’s quota that is accessible without any fees or economic reform conditions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 27

Reserve position

  • Reserve position in the IMF is the sum of (a) the “reserve tranche,” that is, the foreign currency (including Special Drawing Rights) amounts that a member country may draw from the IMF at short notice; and (b) any indebtedness of the IMF (under a loan agreement) in the General Resources Account that is readily available to the member country, including the reporting country’s lending to the IMF under the General Arrangement to Borrow (GAB) and the New Arrangement to Borrow (NAB).
  • While a member country must present a declaration of balance of paymentsrelated need to make a purchase in the reserve tranche (reduction in reserve position), the IMF does not challenge a member’s request for reserve tranche purchases. Convertible currencies from a reserve tranche purchase may be made available within days.
  • The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing. It is accessible without any fees or economic reform conditions. A member’s reserve position in the IMF constitutes part of its reserve assets in the international investment position. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 28

With reference to the ancient Indian history, consider the following statements:

  1. Kodumanal town of Tamil Nadu was well known for bead-making industry.
  2. Tortoise shells, sapphires, silk cloth and diamonds were exported from the Malabar coast.
  3. Major trade between India and the Roman empire was through the Persian Gulf.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 28
  • Here is an excerpt from Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, composed by an anonymous Greek sailor (c. first century CE): ‘They (i.e., the traders from abroad) send large ships to the Indian markettowns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and Malabathrum (possibly cinnamon, produced in these regions). 
  • There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of coin; topaz … antimony (a mineral used as a colouring substance), coral, crude glass, copper, tin, lead … There is exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these markets … Besides this there are exported great quantities of fine pearls, ivory, silk cloth, … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires, and tortoise shells.’
  • Archaeological evidence of a bead-making industry, using precious and semi-precious stones, has been found in Kodumanal (Tamil Nadu). It is likely that the local traders brought the stones mentioned in the Periplus from sites, such as these to the coastal ports. 
  • Majority of the sea trade share between India and the Roman empire was through the Red Sea or the Erythraean Sea. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Statement-II: It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 29

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

  • Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.
  • The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court.
  • The Supreme Court, if satisfi ed that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases itself.
  • Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 30

With reference to the soil profile, consider the following pairs:
Soil Horizon : Soil Component

  1. Horizon A : Loose parent Material
  2. Horizon B : Primarily water
  3. Horizon C : Organic materials

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 - Question 30

A soil profile is a vertical cross-section of the soil from the ground surface to the underlying parent material. It is made up of layers, called horizons, that have different physical, chemical, and biological properties. The horizons are formed by the weathering of parent material, the addition of organic matter, and the movement of water and solutes through the soil.

  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Horizon A is the topsoil, and it contains organic materials incorporated with mineral matter, nutrients, and water essential for plant growth. It is not characterized by loose parent material.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Horizon B is a transition zone between Horizon A and Horizon C, containing matter derived from both above and below. It has some organic matter in it, although the mineral matter is noticeably weathered. It does not primarily consist of water.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Horizon C’ is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is the first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms the above two layers.

Underneath these three horizons is the rock which is also known as the parent rock or the bedrock.

View more questions
Information about UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for UPSC

Download as PDF

Top Courses for UPSC