Daily Current Affairs MCQ- December 2, 2023 - UPSC MCQ

Piezoelectricity is what generates the spark inside a stove lighter which is quite wondering for the one who is observing it.

• The term “piezoelectric” originates from the Greek words “piezein,” meaning ‘to squeeze’, and “elektron”, for amber – a material known for its association with static electricity.
• Piezoelectricity is a remarkable phenomenon whereby some materials – including quartz, ceramics such as lead zirconate titanate (PZT), and even certain biological substances like bone and the tendons – can generate an electric charge in response to mechanical stress.
• This property is the result of their unusual crystal structures.
• Usually, the charges on atoms in the molecules that make them up are symmetric on two sides of an axis.
• When some stress is applied, the molecule becomes distorted and the asymmetry of charges gives rise to a small electric current.
• Some materials also display an inverse piezoelectric effect, where the application of an electric current induces a mechanical deformation.
• Applications
• Both direct and inverse piezoelectric materials are widely used in pressure sensors, accelerometers, and acoustic devices – where their ability to convert mechanical signals into electrical signals is crucial.
• It is also used in quartz watches.
• Piezoelectric transducers are common in ultrasonic applications, such as intrusion detectors and alarms. 
• Piezoelectric devices are employed at AF (audio frequencies) as pickups, microphones, earphones, beepers, and buzzers. 
• In wireless applications, piezoelectricity makes it possible to use crystals and ceramics as oscillators that generate predictable and stable signals at RF (radio frequencies).

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

A recent study sheds light on the complex link between serum lipids, lipid-modifying targets, and cholelithiasis.

• The condition of having gallstones is called cholelithiasis.
• It is a common hepatobiliary condition affecting mostly Western populations.
• It is a major risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma, which is a kind of bile duct cancer.
• Gallstones are hardened deposits of digestive fluid that form in the gallbladder.
• The gallbladder is a small, pear-shaped organ that lies beneath the liver and stores bile made by the liver.
• Bile is a digestive fluid made of cholesterol, bile salts, and bilirubin and gets released into the small intestine through the cystic duct and common bile duct, to aid in fat digestion.
• Causes: The exact cause of cholelithiasis is not entirely clear. Cholelithiasis most commonly results from a chemical imbalance within the contents of the gallbladder in which the bile contains too much cholesterol or bilirubin. 
• Symptom: The most common symptom of cholelithiasis is abdominal pain localized to the upper right or central abdomen. 
• Treatment: It may be treated with medications or procedures. 

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, astronomers have identified six sub-Neptune planets orbiting in a rare synchronised dance around a distant star.

Key findings:

• The star, known as HD110067, is located approximately 100 light-years away in the constellation Coma Berenices and is about 20% less massive than our Sun.
• The six planets were detected by observing minute dimming of the star's brightness as each planet transited, or passed in front of, the star from our perspective on Earth
• The orbital resonance of these planets i.e their orbits are synchronised in such a way that they have remained stable for about 4 billion years.

About Sub-Neptune planets:

• These are the most commonly observed type of planet in our galaxy.
• They could be rocky worlds with thick atmospheres of hydrogen and helium gas, or perhaps composed of rock and ice with warm, water-rich atmospheres.
• These planets have radii between that of the Earth and Neptune.

Key points about Neptune

• It's the last of the planets in our solar system.
• It's more than 30 times as far from the sun as Earth is.
• Neptune is very similar to Uranus. It's made of a thick fog of water, ammonia, and methane over an Earth-sized solid center.
• Its atmosphere is made of hydrogen, helium, and methane.
• Structure and Surface
• Neptune is encircled by six rings and is an ice giant.
• It is made of a thick soup of water, ammonia, and methane flowing over a solid core about the size of Earth.
• It has a thick, windy atmosphere.
• Time on Neptune
• One day on Neptune goes by in 16 hours.
• Neptune has such a long journey around the Sun it takes 165 Earth years to go around once.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Recently, the Codex Alimentarious Commission (CAC) has praised India’s Standards on Millets and accepted its proposal for the development of global standards for millets during its 46th session held in Rome, Italy.

• It is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body.
• It was created by World Health Organisation and Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations in May 1963.
• Objective: Protecting consumer’s health and ensuring fair practices in food trade.
• Members: It consists of 189 member countries,
• Membership of the Commission is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
• The Commission meets in regular session once a year alternating between Geneva and Rome.
• Funding: The programme of work of the Commission is funded through the regular budgets of WHO and FAO with all work subject to approval of the two governing bodies of the parent organizations. 
• The Commission works in the six UN official languages.
• Currently it has standards for Sorghum and Pearl Millet.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently agreed to review its 2018 judgment on the expiry period of stay orders to expedite trial proceedings.

About Stay Order:

• A ‘stay’ or ‘stay order’ is defined as the act of temporarily stopping or postponing any judicial proceeding through the court or legal authorities in India in order to secure the rights of a citizen.
• It could lead to the suspension of a case, or even the suspension of any specific proceeding within an ongoing case.
• So, till a stay order is in action, the operation of the Court’s proceedings is made standstill, and the party who seeks it can cause the operation of the other party (against whom the order is given) to cease.
• In the case of any key development that may require it, a judge may decide to issue a stay order without even formally prompting the other party or even a request being made to them in this regard.
• There are two types of stay orders: ‘stay of proceedings’ and ‘stay of execution’.
• A stay of proceedings is issued by the court in case there are parallel proceedings that take place, which may affect either one. 
• A stay of execution refers to the complete halting of the enforcement of a verdict or judgement against someone, for example, when it is believed that a person is innocent and is given a pardon. 
• This means that stay orders can persist conditionally or even absolutely.
• The Supreme Court on March 28, 2018,passed several directions with regard to stay orders, applicable to both civil and criminal matters, which are as follows:
• In all pending cases where a stay is granted and is operating, the stay will come to an end on expiry of 6 months from the March 28, 2018, unless, in exceptional cases, a speaking order extends the stay.
• In cases where stay is granted in the future, i.e, after March 28, 2018, the stay order will expire 6 months from the date of such order, unless an order of extension is granted by a speaking order.
• The speaking order granting an extension must show that the case was of such exceptional nature that continuing the stay was more important than having the trial finalized.
• The trial court may fix a date not later than 6 months from the date of the stay order.
• On the expiration of the period of 6 months, the trial court will resume the proceedings without waiting for any other intimation unless an express order extending the stay is produced.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Bank of England (BoE) recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for cooperation and exchange of information in relation to the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL). 

About Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL):

• It was set up in April, 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in Money, G-Secs, Foreign Exchange, and Derivative markets.
• CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-currency transactions through the CLS Bank.
• Promoters: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank Ltd.
• The Company was incorporated with an authorized equity share capital of Rs. 50 Crores.
• CCIL’s adherence to the stringent principles governing its operations as a Financial Market Infrastructure (FMI) has resulted in its recognition as a Qualified Central Counterparty (QCCP) by the Reserve Bank of India in 2014.
• It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives.
• Through its fully owned subsidiary, Clearcorp Dealing Systems Limited (CDSL), CCIL has introduced various platforms for electronic execution of deals in various market segments.
• Further, CDSL has developed, implemented, and manages the NDS-OM, the RBI-owned anonymous electronic trading system for dealing in G-Secs and also for reporting OTC deals, as well as the NDS-CALL platform, which facilitates electronic dealing in the Call, Notice & Term Money market.  
• CCIL is also the trade repository for all OTC transactions in the Forex, Interest Rate and Credit derivative transactions.

Hence both statements are correct.

Amazon recently signed an agreement with SpaceX to launch three of Elon Musk’s Falcon 9 rockets to support deployment plans for its Project Kuiper.

About Project Kuiper:

• It is Amazon’s project to build a network of 3,236 satellites in low Earth orbit, to provide high-speed internet access anywhere in the world.
• Its mission is to bring fast, affordable broadband to unserved and underserved communities around the world.
• Project Kuiper has three main parts:
• Ground infrastructure:
• It includes gateway antennas that securely send and receive customer data to and from satellites, along with telemetry, tracking, and control (TT&C) antennas that keep the satellites properly operating.
• Global networking connects those gateway antennas to the internet, public cloud, or private networks.
• Satellites: They operate in low Earth orbit (LEO) and relay data traffic to and from gateway antennas and customers.
• Customer terminals:
• These are the technology that Project Kuiper customers use to receive broadband service.
• The terminals combine antennas and processors into a single, compact system to deliver connectivity.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Andhra Pradesh recently took control of half of the Nagarjuna Sagar dam on the Krishna River, sparking a dispute with Telangana.

About Nagarjuna Sagar Dam:

• It is built between the Nalgonda district of Telangana and the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is built across the River Krishna.
• It is the largest and highest masonry dam in the world.
• The dam is 150m tall and 1.6 km long.
• The dam has a storage capacity of nearly 11,472 million cubic meters and an irrigation capacity of 9.81 lack acres of land. 
• It derives its name from a nearby hillock and island called Nagarjunakonda, where an ancient Buddhist Guru had once lived. 
• It is also one of the earliest projects built in post-independence India for irrigation and hydroelectricity generation.
• The construction of the dam commenced in 1956 and was completed by 1967. 
• This dam supports the national grid with its electric power and provides irrigation water to five districts, including Khamman District, Nalgonda District, Guntur District, Prakasam District and Krishna District.
• As per the provisions of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, Nagarjunasagar dam is controlled and supervised by Telangana.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched a sounding rocket as part of its INFUSE mission.

• The Integral Field Ultraviolet Spectroscope Experiment (INFUSE) was launched from the White Sands Missile Range in New Mexico.
• It was launched to study the Cygnus Loop, a supernova remnant.

What will INFUSE mission do?

• The INFUSE mission is expected to collect information about the remnant for a few minutes from a height of 150 miles (240 km).
• Specifically, the instrument will gather light streaming from the Cygnus Loop in far-ultraviolet wavelengths. 
• It will observe how the supernova dumps energy into the Milky Way by catching light given off just as the blast wave crashes into pockets of cold gas floating around the galaxy.
• It will study the Cygnus Loop and try to understand the life cycle of stars. 

What is Cygnus Loop?

• It is the remnant of a star that was once 20 times the size of our Sun.
• Some 20,000 years ago, that star collapsed under its own gravity and erupted into a supernova.
• Even from 2,600 light-years away, astronomers estimate the flash of light would have been bright enough to see from Earth during the day

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The National Medical Commission (NMC) is all set to launch its “one nation, one registration platform’‘ for doctors across India.

• The NMC will unveil a patch pilot of the National Medical Register (NMR) in the next six months where doctors will be allotted a unique identification number.
• Doctors can also apply for their licence to work in any State depending on where they are.
• The commission had earlier this year issued a gazette notification titled “Registration of Medical Practitioners and Licence to Practice Medicine Regulations, 2023”
• The idea is to provide a masked ID to undergraduate students on the NMR and depending on when they complete their course the ID is unmasked and allotted.
• This ID can be used to update any further qualification and all State registers for licence to work in any part of the country will be linked here 
• Aim: To eliminate duplication, red tape and allow the public to access information on any physician working in India.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.