Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 22nd to 30th - UPSC MCQ

The Kavach System in Indian Railways is designed to prevent train collisions through advanced technology. By utilizing components like Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology integrated into tracks and equipping the driver's cabin with RFID readers and brake interface equipment, the system acts as a vigilant watchdog over the existing signalling system, alerting the loco pilot and applying brakes if necessary to prevent overshooting signals. This technological advancement aims to significantly enhance the safety and security of India's railway network, reducing the risk of accidents and ensuring a safer travel experience for passengers.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Penal Code (IPC), enacted in 1860, indeed forms the basis of India's criminal justice system. It is a comprehensive code intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List, not the Union List. This means these areas fall under the jurisdiction of state governments rather than the central government.

Statement 3 is correct: In the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, the Supreme Court held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they perform, recognizing their right to be compensated for their work.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List. - Incorrect. Article 246 places these items in the State List, not the Union List.

2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement. - Correct. Section 161 CrPC allows the investigation officer to question any person who is supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case and to record their statement.

3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes. - Correct. The NPC recommended that there should be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes to prevent abuse of power.

4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders. - Correct. The Krishnan Iyer Committee recommended the appointment of women staff in the police force specifically for dealing with child offenders to ensure better handling of such cases.

Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement-I: The Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India is not solely based on the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enacted in 1860. The CJS also includes other important legal frameworks such as the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973, the Indian Evidence Act 1872, and various special laws and regulations.

Statement-II: Article 246 of the Constitution of India does place the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List, making these subjects primarily under the jurisdiction of state governments.

Given this analysis:

• Statement-I is incorrect, as the CJS in India is based on multiple legal documents and frameworks, not solely the IPC.
• Statement-II is correct, as these subjects are indeed in the State List under Article 246 of the Constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

3. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

The primary aim of the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia is to streamline military logistics support, making joint operations and long-distance missions more efficient and cost-effective for both countries. This agreement plays a crucial role in enhancing military cooperation and ensuring smoother utilization of logistics networks for both nations.

All three statements accurately describe the various aspects and strategic significance of the RELOS agreement between India and Russia.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The RELOS agreement will indeed facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies such as fuel, rations, and spare parts, which is crucial for sustaining continuous military operations.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks, enhancing operational efficiency and reach.

3. Statement 3 is correct: One of the strategic intentions behind the RELOS agreement is to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region, providing a strategic edge to both India and Russia.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D

The correct answer is (a) because both Statement-I and Statement-II are factually correct and there is a logical progression between them. The Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty of 1971 indeed came about after the Indo-Pak war of 1971, where Russia supported India. Subsequently, the Declaration on the India-Russia Strategic Partnership in October 2000 represented a qualitative shift in India-Russia relations, marking enhanced levels of cooperation across various sectors.

According to the IMD criteria, a Heat Wave is determined based on the departure from the normal maximum temperature of a station. When the departure from normal is 6°C or more, it falls under the category specified in the criteria. This definition helps in identifying and categorizing heat waves based on specific temperature variations, aiding in better preparedness and response strategies during periods of high temperatures.

- Statement 1: Correct. The IMD defines a heatwave in hilly regions when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.

- Statement 2: Incorrect. A severe heatwave in the plains is defined when the actual maximum temperature is above 47°C, not 45°C.

- Statement 3: Incorrect. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is not specifically defined by the temperature departure of 7°C or more. The IMD criteria for severe heatwaves in coastal areas involve different parameters.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Statement-I is incorrect because Hooch is not known for high-quality production standards; it is typically associated with poor-quality alcohol made in unregulated and unsanitary conditions. Statement-II is correct as it accurately describes the common production conditions associated with hooch, highlighting the health risks that can arise from its consumption.

The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) has strengthened the ability of Scheduled Tribes (STs) to resist large-scale commercial activities like mining that can cause deforestation, leading to a greater reduction in deforestation in PESA villages near mines. This act has granted STs greater political representation, allowing them a say in how forests are managed and increasing economic incentives for ST communities in protecting the forest.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The PESA Act indeed provides political representation to Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India's Scheduled Areas. This is one of the key objectives of the Act, which aims to ensure self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.

2. Statement 2 is correct. According to the findings of the recent study, PESA has contributed to a reduction in deforestation rates in villages located near mining areas. This is attributed to the empowerment of STs to resist large-scale commercial activities that can cause deforestation.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The study found that the Forest Rights Act, 2006, did not have significant additional impacts on forest conservation beyond what was already achieved by PESA. This indicates that PESA alone has had a substantial impact on forest conservation efforts.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

1. PESA Act - Enacted in 1996 to ensure self-governance for tribal areas through Gram Sabhas
Correct. The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 was enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas.

2. Forest Rights Act - 2006 had additional impacts on forest conservation beyond PESA
Incorrect. The study mentioned found that the Forest Rights Act, 2006 had no additional impacts on conservation beyond those caused by PESA.

3. Gram Sabha - Responsible for identifying development projects in Scheduled Areas
Correct. The PESA Act establishes the Gram Sabha as a forum for community participation in the development process, including identifying development projects.

4. Scheduled Areas - Areas predominantly inhabited by tribal communities, notified by the President
Correct. Scheduled Areas in India are areas notified by the President as predominantly inhabited by tribal communities.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and enactment of the PESA Act, highlighting its focus on self-governance in tribal areas through Gram Sabhas. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that the PESA Act primarily empowers urban local bodies, which is incorrect as the Act specifically pertains to tribal areas and their governance structures.

The primary objective of India's Rooftop Solar Programme is to promote grid-connected solar rooftop systems on residential buildings. This initiative aims to reduce dependency on centralized power grids, promote energy security, and empower consumers to contribute to renewable energy production.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The target for the Rooftop Solar Programme was initially set to achieve 40 GW of installed capacity by 2022 but was later extended to 2026 due to unmet goals.

2. Statement 2 is correct: Gujarat and Maharashtra are among the top-performing states in terms of installed rooftop solar capacity.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana provides 300 units of free electricity per month to households with rooftop solar systems, not 500 units.

Hence, the correct answer is Option B.

1. SUPRABHA : Sustainable Partnership for RTS Acceleration in Bharat
- This pair is correctly matched. SUPRABHA is an initiative aimed at accelerating the adoption of rooftop solar systems in India.

2. SRISTI : Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India
- This pair is correctly matched. SRISTI is aimed at promoting the implementation of rooftop solar systems across India.

3. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana : Free 300 units of electricity every month
- This pair is correctly matched. Under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, participating households can receive 300 units of electricity free every month.

4. Suryamitra : Training program for skilled workforce in the solar sector
- This pair is correctly matched. Suryamitra is a training program to develop a skilled workforce in the solar energy sector.

All four pairs provided are correctly matched. These initiatives and schemes are part of India's strategy to enhance the adoption of rooftop solar systems, improve energy security, and promote sustainable development.

Statement-I correctly presents the information regarding India's rooftop solar capacity and the increase during the mentioned period. Statement-II accurately describes the original target under the Rooftop Solar Programme and the subsequent extension of the goal to 2026. Statement-II explains the context provided in Statement-I, aligning well with the chronology and targets associated with India's rooftop solar initiatives. Thus, both statements are correct, with Statement-II explaining the background related to the Rooftop Solar Programme's targets and timeline.

The estimated growth rate of remittances to India in 2024, as per the World Bank report, is 3.7%. Remittances play a crucial role in the Indian economy by providing financial support to families and contributing to foreign exchange reserves. This growth rate reflects the changing dynamics of global economic conditions and migration patterns, impacting the flow of funds back to India.

1. The roots of Indian music stretch back to the Sama Veda, where slokas were harmonized with music. - This statement is correct. The Sama Veda is one of the four Vedas, and it is known for its hymns and chants that were sung in a specific musical form. This forms the earliest evidence of music in India.

2. Haripala coined the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music, marking the distinction between northern and southern musical traditions. - This statement is correct. Haripala is credited with distinguishing between the northern (Hindustani) and southern (Carnatic) styles of Indian classical music.

3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Carnatic Ragas under the 'Thaat' system. - This statement is incorrect. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande is known for systematizing Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' system, not Carnatic Ragas. The 'Thaat' system pertains to Hindustani classical music, whereas Carnatic music has its own framework of Melakarta ragas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

1. Narada Muni - Correctly matched
Narada Muni is traditionally credited with introducing the art of music to humanity and imparting the knowledge of Naada Brahma, which is the cosmic sound that permeates the universe. This aligns with ancient Indian texts and traditions.

2. Ilango Adigal - Correctly matched
Ilango Adigal is known for his contributions to the musical ideas in ancient Tamil culture, which are documented in texts like Silappadi Kaaram. His work is significant in the context of early Tamil literature and music.

3. Haripala - Incorrectly matched
Haripala did not coin the term 'Thaat' system. He is known for coining the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music to mark the distinction between northern and southern Indian musical traditions.

4. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande - Correctly matched
Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' system. His work laid a structured foundation for musical education and performance in Hindustani classical music.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is not.

Answer: Option B

1. Trans fatty acids are naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables.

   • This statement is incorrect. Trans fatty acids are not naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables. They are found in small amounts in some animal products, but the primary source of trans fats in the diet comes from partially hydrogenated oils.

2. Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease.

   • This statement is incorrect. Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to increase the risk of heart disease, not reduce it. Trans fats raise bad cholesterol levels (LDL) and lower good cholesterol levels (HDL), which contributes to the development of heart disease.

3. Trans fatty acids are produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.

   • This statement is correct. Trans fatty acids are produced during the industrial process of hydrogenation, which is used to convert liquid vegetable oils into solid or semi-solid fats, like margarine and shortening.

Based on the analysis, only the third statement is correct.

So, the correct answer is: Only one.

Statement-I correctly highlights the introduction of terms Hindustani and Carnatic music by Haripala, which marked a significant development in the evolution of Indian music during the medieval period.
However, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems solely due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India. While it's true that there were influences, the statement oversimplifies the complex interactions and exchanges that shaped Indian music during that period. The evolution and influences on Indian music were more nuanced and multifaceted than solely attributing it to the arrival of Muslim rulers.

Campbell Bay National Park is a national park in India, located on the island of Great Nicobar, the largest of the Nicobar Islands in the eastern Indian Ocean, some 190 km to the north of Sumatra. It was gazetted as a national park of India in 1992, and forms part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.

1. The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.

   • This statement is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker is not appointed by the President. Instead, the Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.

2. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.

   • This statement is correct. The Deputy Speaker is indeed elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.

3. The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.

   • This statement is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker does have a role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker presides over the meetings of the assembly and performs the duties of the Speaker when the Speaker is absent.

Based on the analysis, only the second statement is correct.

So, the correct answer is: Only one.