Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 8th to 14th - UPSC MCQ

Economic disparities between the North and South, particularly regarding the reliance on free labor in the North versus slave labor in the South, were significant causes of the US Civil War. The North's diverse economy clashed with the South's dependence on slave labor for its agricultural economy, leading to disagreements over the expansion of slavery into new territories and heightened tensions between the regions.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Slavery Act of 1843 was indeed enacted under British rule to formally abolish slavery in India. This act was a significant step towards ending the practice of slavery in the British colonies, including India.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The transatlantic slave trade was not the first global slave trade network. Prior to the transatlantic trade, the Arab slave trade dominated the Indian Ocean from the 7th to the 19th centuries, connecting Africa, the Middle East, and Asia. This trade predates the transatlantic slave trade, which began in the 16th century.

3. Statement 3 is correct: During the Mughal era in South Asia, Islamic rulers introduced systems of military slavery and domestic servitude. These systems were part of a broader pattern of slavery that existed in various forms across different regions and eras.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Statement-I correctly identifies the beginning of the US Civil War when Confederate forces attacked Fort Sumter in South Carolina in April 1861. This event marked the outbreak of the conflict.
Statement-II accurately describes the significance of the Emancipation Proclamation issued by Abraham Lincoln in 1863, which declared all slaves in Confederate states to be free. This proclamation was a critical moment in the Civil War and had far-reaching implications for the status of slavery in the United States. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the context and impact of Statement-I.

The key element highlighted by the Supreme Court in the Property Owners Association v State of Maharashtra Case 2024 was that resources that are scarce or essential for community welfare should be considered eligible for state acquisition, rather than advocating for the acquisition of all privately owned properties. This criterion aimed to guide the determination of resources subject to state acquisition, emphasizing the importance of community welfare and the public trust doctrine in such decisions.

1. The Supreme Court's ruling in the Property Owners Association v State of Maharashtra case (2024) emphasized the use of the "public trust doctrine" to determine which private resources the state may acquire for public distribution.

- This statement is correct. In the case mentioned, the Supreme Court did indeed emphasize the public trust doctrine as a guiding principle for determining the scope of state acquisition of private resources. The doctrine suggests that certain resources are to be preserved for public use, and the government acts as a trustee for the public.

2. The 25th Amendment Act, 1971, introduced Article 31C to protect state laws aimed at resource distribution under Articles 39(b) and (c) from constitutional challenges.

- This statement is correct. The 25th Amendment Act added Article 31C to the Constitution, which was designed to protect laws aimed at implementing the Directive Principles of State Policy under Articles 39(b) and 39(c) from being challenged on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.

3. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, abrogated Article 19(1)(f) which protected the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, thereby relegating the Right to Property from the list of fundamental rights.

- This statement is correct. The 44th Amendment removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and introducing Article 300A, which places the right to property as a constitutional right, not a fundamental one.

All three statements are accurate based on the provided information, hence the correct answer is Option D.

- Pair 1 is correctly matched. Article 31A does allow the state to acquire property or modify property rights without facing challenges based on fundamental rights. This provision was introduced to facilitate land reforms and other initiatives without being entangled in legal challenges related to fundamental rights.

- Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 31B ensures that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are immune from being challenged and invalidated on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. This was done to protect certain laws, particularly land reform laws, from judicial scrutiny.

- Pair 3 is correctly matched. Article 31C protects laws that aim to implement the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and (c) from being declared unconstitutional, even if they infringe upon rights guaranteed by Articles 14 and 19. This was established to prioritize certain socio-economic legislations.

- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Article 300A does not provide the right to property as a fundamental right; instead, it recognizes it as a constitutional right. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 moved the right to property from the list of fundamental rights to a constitutional right, thereby making it less protected than fundamental rights.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 3, making Option B: Only two pairs the correct answer.

Development economics emphasizes technological advancement as a key focus area to drive economic growth and sustainable development. This aspect includes innovations, investments in technology, and advancements that contribute to economic progress and overall welfare in developing nations.

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one:

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court recently overruled the 1967 S. Azeez Basha vs. Union Of India ruling, which had stated that an institution established by statute could not claim minority status. This decision by a 4:3 majority indicates that the earlier judgment was incorrect, and the minority status of AMU should be reassessed.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not directly grant minority status to AMU. Instead, it deferred the question of AMU's minority status to a regular bench to consider the historical context and other relevant factors. The court's decision was to overturn the previous judgment and require further examination by a lower bench.

Statement 3 is correct. The 1981 amendment to the AMU Act was indeed significant because it aimed to restore minority status to AMU after the S. Azeez Basha case. The amendment was a legislative response intended to secure the university's minority character, which had been denied by the 1967 judgment.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the right choice.

1. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution - Rights of Minorities: Correctly matched. Article 30 provides minorities with the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

2. S. Azeez Basha vs. Union Of India - AMU's Minority Status: Correctly matched. This 1967 case ruled that AMU could not claim minority status as it was established by a statute.

3. 1981 Amendment to the AMU Act - Deemed AMU Non-Minority: Incorrectly matched. The 1981 amendment to the AMU Act was meant to restore AMU's minority status, not deem it non-minority, countering the S. Azeez Basha ruling.

4. Allahabad High Court 2006 Ruling - Reserved Seats for Muslim Candidates: Incorrectly matched. The Allahabad High Court ruling in 2006 deemed AMU as a non-minority institution, which affected its ability to reserve seats for Muslim candidates, but it did not specifically rule about reserved seats.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1 and 2.

Statement-I accurately defines the focus of development economics, emphasizing sustainable growth, poverty reduction, and improving quality of life. However, Statement-II incorrectly attributes state-led development initiatives to neoclassical theory, which actually emphasizes free markets, private property rights, and minimal government involvement. Thus, Statement-I is correct while Statement-II is incorrect.

The key focus of the "Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024" is on upgrading or repairing existing old windmills. This policy aims to enhance energy efficiency by either extending the operational lifespan of windmills over 20 years old, replacing outdated windmills with modern machines, or upgrading and repairing existing old windmills. This initiative is crucial for optimizing wind energy use and ensuring the sustainability of wind power projects in Tamil Nadu.

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. India ranks fourth globally in terms of wind power capacity, following countries like China, the United States, and Germany. This places India among the top producers of wind energy worldwide.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While Tamil Nadu is a significant contributor to India's wind energy, it is not the state with the largest installed capacity. As of the latest data, Gujarat has surpassed Tamil Nadu in terms of installed wind energy capacity, making Gujarat the state with the largest installed capacity for wind energy in India.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. Repowering in the context of wind energy involves replacing older wind turbines, typically those over 15 years old or with capacities under 2 MW, with newer and more efficient models. This process is part of efforts to enhance energy efficiency and increase the output of wind power installations.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

1. Repowering: Correctly matched. Repowering involves replacing wind turbines that are older than a specified age (often around 15-20 years) or have lower capacity with new, more efficient models to increase energy output.

2. Refurbishing: Incorrectly matched. Refurbishing involves upgrading existing turbines, such as increasing their height, changing blades, or installing higher-capacity gearboxes to enhance energy output. It does not involve installing new turbines in previously unused areas.

3. Life Extension: Correctly matched. Life extension involves implementing measures, including safety enhancements, to extend the operational lifespan of older wind turbines.

4. Tamil Nadu Capacity: Incorrectly matched. Tamil Nadu has the second-largest installed wind energy capacity in India, following Gujarat, not the largest.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Statement-I correctly states that India ranks fourth globally in wind energy capacity utilization, which is a factual statement supported by data. However, Statement-II is incorrect because India has not fully utilized its wind energy potential at the national level. In fact, only about 6.5% of India's wind energy potential is currently utilized, indicating that there is significant untapped potential for further utilization. Therefore, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II does not accurately reflect the current status of wind energy utilization in India.

The Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024 primarily aims to replace outdated windmills with modern machines. This policy intends to enhance energy efficiency by upgrading or replacing older wind turbines, ensuring optimal utilization of wind energy resources. By replacing obsolete infrastructure with newer and more efficient technology, the policy seeks to bolster the effectiveness and sustainability of wind power generation in Tamil Nadu.

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment, and Life Extension Policy requires wind energy generators to pay Rs 30 lakhs per MW every five years for the life extension of windmills that are over 20 years old. This payment is a point of contention among wind energy generators and has led to opposition against the policy.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While Tamil Nadu has a significant installed wind energy capacity and is a major contributor to India's wind energy sector, it is not the state with the largest installed capacity. As per the text, Gujarat has the largest installed capacity, with Tamil Nadu having the second-largest capacity.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. One of the primary focuses of the policy is to replace outdated windmills with modern machines to optimize the use of wind energy and enhance energy efficiency.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

1. Repowering - Replacing turbines older than 20 years: Incorrect. Repowering involves replacing wind turbines that are older than 15 years or have a capacity of under 2 MW, not specifically 20 years.

2. Refurbishing - Increasing turbine height and changing blades: Correct. Refurbishing involves upgrading turbines by increasing their height, changing blades, or installing higher-capacity gearboxes to enhance energy output.

3. Life Extension - Installing new turbines at existing sites: Incorrect. Life extension refers to implementing safety measures to prolong the lifespan of older turbines, not installing new turbines.

4. Wind Energy Potential at 150m - 1,163.86 GW: Correct. India's wind power potential is indeed 1,163.86 GW at 150 meters above ground level.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

The Inter-State Council in India primarily aims to promote cooperation between the Centre and States and among States. It serves as a platform for discussing topics of mutual interest and making recommendations for policy coordination, fostering effective governance and maintaining a balance of power between the Union and the states.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-State Council (ISC) was indeed established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. This article provides the President with the power to establish such a council if it appears that the public interest would be served by the establishment of a body for the purpose of facilitating coordination between the states and the Centre.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Inter-State Council are advisory in nature and not binding on either the Union or the State governments. This limits the ISC's effectiveness in enforcing its recommendations, as it serves more as a consultative body rather than a decision-making one.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. While the ISC is intended to meet regularly, it is not mandated by the Constitution to meet at least three times a year. In practice, the meetings have been infrequent, which has been a point of criticism regarding its functioning. The council has met only a limited number of times since its inception.

Thus, only the first statement is correct, making Option A: 1 Only the correct answer.

1. Establishment Year - 1990: Correct. The Inter-State Council was formally established in 1990 via a Presidential Order following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.

2. Chairperson - Home Minister of India: Incorrect. The Chairperson of the Inter-State Council is the Prime Minister of India, not the Home Minister.

3. Secretariat Location - Mumbai: Incorrect. The Secretariat of the Inter-State Council is located in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

4. Function - Investigates issues impacting Centre-State relations: Correct. One of the main functions of the ISC is to investigate and discuss issues impacting Centre-State and Inter-State relations to promote effective governance.

Thus, two pairs are correctly matched: Pair 1 and Pair 4. The correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Statement-I correctly states that the Inter-State Council (ISC) was established under Article 263 of the Constitution to promote cooperation between the Centre and States. This is accurate as per the constitutional provision regarding the establishment of the ISC.
Statement-II correctly mentions that the Sarkaria Commission recommended that the ISC should become a permanent body, leading to its formal establishment in 1990 via a Presidential Order. This recommendation by the Sarkaria Commission indeed played a significant role in the formal establishment of the ISC as a permanent body.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II explains the historical context and recommendation that led to the establishment of the ISC as a permanent body.

The primary aim of establishing the Organised Crime Investigative Agency (OCIA) is to combat sex trafficking and other organized crimes effectively. This agency would specialize in targeting sex trafficking and other organized crimes in high-risk areas, deploying trained personnel for intelligence collection and rescues, collaborating with various stakeholders for victim rehabilitation, and advocating for stronger anti-trafficking laws. By focusing on these aspects, the OCIA aims to enhance law enforcement efforts and protect victims of trafficking more efficiently.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the OECD's Agricultural Policy Monitoring and Evaluation 2024 report, India's agricultural policies have led to a negative Market Price Support (MPS) for farmers. This means that the policies have resulted in farmers receiving lower prices for their produce compared to what they would have received in the absence of such policies, effectively taxing the agricultural sector and reducing farmers' incomes.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The report highlights that export restrictions on products like sugar, onions, and de-oiled rice bran have indeed contributed to lower domestic prices. Such policies are implemented with the intention of keeping consumer prices low but end up depressing the prices that farmers receive for their produce.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is intended to protect farmers by providing a price floor for their produce, it is not always set above international market levels. In some cases, the MSP has been set lower than international market prices, leading to situations where farmers receive less than they might in a competitive global market.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 2 Only, as only the second statement accurately reflects the conditions described in the source material.

1. Market Price Support (MPS) - Incorrect. MPS is a governmental measure aimed at ensuring that the domestic price of specific agricultural products remains at or above a set minimum, thus raising domestic prices above global market rates, not below.

2. Producer Support Estimate (PSE) - Correct. PSE reflects the annual value of transfers from consumers and the government to agricultural producers, accurately describing the financial transfers supporting producers.

3. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - Correct. MSP is indeed a government policy where the government purchases crops at a predetermined price to ensure farmers' income, thereby providing a safety net for farmers against price fluctuations.

4. Environmental Public Goods Payments (EPGP) - Correct. EPGP are payments made to promote sustainable farming practices that enhance land health and biodiversity, aligning with environmental objectives.

Hence, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three pairs correct. However, the correct response should align with the explanation that only two pairs are correctly matched, which was a misalignment in the question's options. Given the confusion, the correct answer based on the accurate matching should be Option C: Only three pairs, not Option B as initially stated.

Statement-I correctly highlights that India heavily taxed its farmers in 2023 due to government policies like export restrictions and duties, as indicated in the OECD report.
Statement-II accurately points out that India's negative market price support in 2023, especially on specific products, led to a substantial loss for farmers, outweighing positive support like MSP subsidies. Thus, Statement-II provides a detailed explanation for the taxation impact mentioned in Statement-I.