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TSPSC AE Civil AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 (150 Questions)

You can boost your Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam preparation with this TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 150 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 150
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Which season contributes 80% rain fall in Telangana?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct answer is South West Monsoon

Explanation

  • In Telangana Rainfall Varies from 732 mm in Mahabubnagar district to 1121 mm in Adilabad district.
  • It increases from less than 800 mm in the southwest part of the state to more than 1200 mm in the north and northeast parts of the state.
  • The northeast monsoon season contributes 13% of the annual rainfall.
  • Telangana generally receives Modest rain fall.
  • The average annual rainfall in the state is about 906 mm, 80 percent of which is received from the South-West monsoon (June-September).

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Cities accommodating population sizes between one to five million are called ______

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The correct answer is Metropolitan.

Explanation

Classification of Towns on the basis of Population Size -

  • Urban centre with population of more than one lakh is called a city or class I town.
  • Cities accommodating population sizes between one to five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities.
  • Hence the correct answer is option 1.
  • The majority of metropolitan and mega cities are urban agglomerations.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which mountain range is found between Karakoram mountain range and Pir Panjal mountain range?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The correct answer is Zaskar mountain range.

Zaskar Range

  • The Zaskar Range, sometimes called Zanskar, is a mountain range in the Himalayas, south-central Asia, northern India, and China's western Tibet Autonomous Region.
  • It divides Ladakh from the Kashmir lowlands and the Chenab River.
  • It lies between the Karakoram mountain range and the Pir Panjal mountain range. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • In other words, it acts as a borderline between Kashmir's Ladakh area and the state's other two regions, the Jammu region and the Vale of Kashmir.
  • Many rivers originate in various parts of this mountain and run northward to join the big Indus River.
  • Hanle River, Khurana River, Zanskar River, Suru River, and Shingo River are among these rivers.
  • It also divides Kinnaur and Spiti in Himachal Pradesh.
  • Himachal's tallest peaks are found in the Zanskar range.
  • The Zanskar Range is notable for the Nanga Parbat (8126 m).

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

The rocky outer part of the Earth is called :

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct answer is the Lithosphere

Explanation

  • The lithosphere is the rigid, outermost rocky shell of a terrestrial planet or natural satellite.
  • On Earth, it is composed of the crust and the portion of the upper mantle.
  • It is bounded by the atmosphere above and the asthenosphere (another part of the upper mantle) below.
  • The lithosphere can be divided into the oceanic and continental lithosphere.
Other Related Points
  • The innermost layer of the earth is called the “Core or Barysphere”. It is otherwise known as NIFE, because of the presence of Nickel and Ferrous (iron). This layer produces the earth's magnetic field.
  • Earth's mantle is a layer of silicate rock between the crust and the outer core.
  • The biosphere is made up of the parts of Earth where life exists. The biosphere extends from the deepest root systems of trees to the dark environment of ocean trenches, to lush rain forests and high mountaintops.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Swadesamitran was the first Tamil language newspaper founded by _______.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The correct answer is G. Subramania Iyer.

The Swadesamitran was the first Tamil language newspaper founded by G. Subramania Iyer.

  • Swadesamitran was a Tamil language newspaper that was published from the then Madras city from 1882 to 1985.
  • The newspaper was sold to A. Rangaswami Iyengar of the Kasturi family in 1915 and the newspaper remained with them until its liquidation in 1985.
  • It was founded as a sister paper of The Hindu which Aiyer had also founded two years earlier in 1879. The name translated from Tamil to English literally means friend of self-rule.
  • It was originally started as a weekly and became a daily by 1889.

Other Related Points

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Indian economy has

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The correct answer is Mixed economy.

Important Points

Mixed Economy

  • After achieving independence, India sought an alternative to the extreme versions of capitalism and socialism.
  • This resulted in a mixed economy model in which, the government and the market together answer the three questions of what to produce, how to produce, and how to distribute what is produced.
  • In a mixed economy, the market will provide whatever goods and services it can produce well, and the government will provide essential goods and services which the market fails to do.
  • A mixed economic system combines elements of the market and command economy.
  • The main features of this type of economy include the co-existence of public and private sectors, economic planning, individual freedom, welfare approach towards the underprivileged section of the society.
  • The areas of economic activities of each sector are generally demarcated.
  • The government uses its various policies e.g. licensing policy, taxation policy, price policy, monetary policy, and fiscal policy to control and regulate the private sector.
  • Individuals and enterprises are free to maximize their income, choose any occupation and consume as per their choice.
  • But producers are not given the freedom to exploit consumers and laborers.
  • Thus in a mixed economy, people at large enjoy individual freedom and government support to protect the interests of weaker sections of the society.
  • Indian economy is considered a mixed economy as it has well-defined areas for the functioning of public and private sectors and economic planning.
  • Even countries such as the USA, UK, etc. which were known as capitalistic countries are also called mixed economies now because of the active role of their government in economic development.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

_________ is the science that studies the structure of the body.

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The correct answer is Anatomy.

Explanation

  • Anatomy is the science that studies the structure of the body.
  • Anatomy is a branch of natural science that deals with the structural organization of living things.

Other Related Points


TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Which is the hardest substance in the human body?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The correct answer is Tooth Enamel.

Explanation

  • Tooth Enamel is the hardest substance in the human body.
  • Tooth enamel is made up of crystalline Calcium Phosphate.
  • Tooth enamel is the hard outer surface of the tooth that protects it from tooth decay.
  • It is the hardest substance in the human body.
  • However, it can corrode and develop cavities by the action of acids and substances released upon decomposition of the organic materials which are left, if the mouth is not kept clean properly.

Other Related Points

Skull Bones:​

  • The skull is made up of 29 bones.
  • The only bone that can move is Mandible.
  • The nasal bone is part of Skullbone.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The form of Information Signal used in sending fax and email is

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is Analog and Digital signal both.

Explanation

  • The form of Information Signal used in sending fax and email is Analog and Digital signal both
  • Analog Signals
    • These signals are continuous in both values and time.
    • These were used in many systems to produce signals to carry information.
    • These signals are more subjected to noise as they travel through the medium.
  • ​Digital Signals
    • These are not continuous, but signals are discrete in value and time.
    • They can be noise-immune without deterioration during transmission.
    • They are stored in the form of binary bits.
  • When fax machines were introduced, they were all analogue devices. They transmitted the scanned lines as a continuous analogue signal through the phone line.
  • Traditional analogue fax uses a phone line that can send or receive only one fax at a time, and only in one location.
  • However, sending an e-mail is a pure digital signal.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which of the following satellites launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is a navigation satellite?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is IRNSS-1I.

Explanation

  • IRNSS-1I is the eighth satellite in the Indian Regional Navigational Satellite System (IRNSS) series of satellites.
  • Although IRNSS - 1I is the ninth satellite to launch in the IRNSS constellation, it is counted as the eighth satellite because IRNSS - 1I is the eighth satellite to successfully launch in the IRNSS constellation.
  • IRNSS-1A, IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1D, IRNSS-1E, IRNSS-1F, IRNSS-1G, and IRNSS-1H have already been launched by ISRO.
  • The assembly, integration, and testing of the satellite are done in part by a consortium of six small companies managed by Alpha Design Technologies, a Bengaluru-based aerospace corporation overseen by URSC.

Important Points

  • SARAL is a joint mission of the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Centre National d'Études Spatiales to develop altimetry technology. SARAL collects altimetric data in order to better understand ocean circulation and sea surface elevation.
  • SCATSAT-1 was an Indian weather satellite that provided forecasting, cyclone prediction, and tracking services. The ISRO Satellite Centre in Bangalore created it, while the Space Applications Centre in Ahmedabad designed the payload.
  • Resourcesat-2A is a follow-up mission to Resourcesat-1 and Resourcesat-2, both of which were launched in October 2003 and April 2011. The new satellite performs the same functions as the previous Resourcesat missions.

Other Related Points

ISRO:

  • Formed 15 August 1969; 52 years ago
  • Preceding agency: Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR)
  • Headquarters Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • Chairman: Sreedhara Panicker Somanath

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Which rocket is called the work horse of ISRO?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The correct answer is PSLV.

Explanation

PSLV:

  • It is an acronym for Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
  • PSLV is the third generation launch vehicle of India.
  • It has been called the Workhorse of ISRO due to its consistent delivery of various satellites to Low Earth Orbits.
  • It is a four-stage launch vehicle of ISRO with second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines and first and third stages using solid rocket motors.
  • While the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is developed, designed and operated by ISRO mainly to deliver communication satellites.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

What is not true about Chandrayaan-2 Mission?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The correct answer is option 3

Explanation

  • ISRO has released the first set of data from the country's second mission to the Moon, the Chandrayaan-2, for the general public.
  • Chandrayaan-2 was launched on July 22, 2019, from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
  • The Orbiter which was injected into a lunar orbit on September 2, 2019, carries eight experiments to address many open questions on lunar science.

Other Related Points

  • Chandrayaan-2 is the second lunar exploration mission developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), after Chandrayaan-1.
  • It consists of a lunar orbiter, and also included the Vikram lander, and the Pragyan lunar rover, all of which were developed in India.
  • The main scientific objective is to map and study the variations in lunar surface composition, as well as the location and abundance of lunar water.
  • The spacecraft was launched on its mission to the Moon from the second launch pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh in 2019 by a GSLV Mark III-M1.
  • The craft reached the Moon's orbit on 20 August 2019 and began orbital positioning manoeuvres for the landing of the Vikram lander. The lander and the rover were scheduled to land on the near side of the Moon, in the south polar region at a latitude of about 70° south on 6 September 2019 and conduct scientific experiments for one lunar day, which approximates to two Earth weeks.
  • A successful soft landing would have made India the fourth country after the Luna 9 (Soviet Union), Surveyor 1 (United States) and Chang'e 3 (China) to do so.
  • The mission's lander is called Vikram.
  • About this sound Pronunciation named after cosmic ray scientist Vikram Sarabhai, who is widely regarded as the founder of the Indian space programme.
  • Vikram crash-landed during this attempt.
  • However, the lander crashed when it deviated from its intended trajectory while attempting to land.
  • According to a failure analysis report submitted to ISRO, the crash was caused by a software glitch. ISRO may re-attempt a landing in 2022 with Chandrayaan-3.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

What is the time duration of men Kabaddi game?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Kabaddi:

  • Kabaddi is a popular contact sport in Southern Asia that first originated in Ancient India.
  • It is played across the country and is the official game in the states of Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Telangana, and Maharashtra.
  • In the kabaddi game, each side has 7 players when the game starts.
  • There will be 5 substitutes for each side as well.
  • The games in Kabaddi are 40 minutes long.
  • Each side gets alternating turns to send any one player to the opponent’s side.
  • This player is called the raider and each player on the opposing team is called a defender.
  • The two teams alternate between raiding and defending for two halves of twenty minutes each (with a five-minute break between halves and newly introduced small timeouts for teams are used to generate advertisement revenue).
  • After halftime, the two teams switch sides of the court.
  • The Lobby is the area of the court which is considered active only when contact has been made between the raider and a defender.
  • Else, it is considered out of bounds for both raider and the defenders.
  • The team with the most points at the end of the game wins.

Thus, the time duration of men Kabaddi game is 20-20 minutes.

Confusion Points

  • In Kabaddi each team shall consist of a minimum of 10 and a maximum of 12 Players.
  • Seven players shall play at a time and the remaining players are substitutes.
  • The question asks for the active number of players involved during the game of Kabaddi.

Other Related Points

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Which country hosted the G20 Foreign Ministers’ meet, held on the 7th and 8th of July 2022?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The correct answer is Indonesia.

  • External Affairs Minister Dr S. Jaishankar visited Bali in Indonesia on the 7th and 8th of July 2022 participated in the G20 Foreign Ministers’ meeting.
  • During his visit, Dr Jaishankar attended several bilateral meetings with his counterparts from other G20 member states.
  • India also convenes the G20 leaders' summit in J&K in 2023 for the first time.

Other Related Points

  • ​The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union.
  • It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.
  • As of 2022, there are 20 members in the group: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, South Korea, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.
  • ​The G20:
    • Chairman: Joko Widodo, President of Indonesia
    • Founder: G-7 countries
    • Founded: 26 September 1999

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Which day is celebrated as the Telangana Formation Day?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The correct answer is 02 June.

  • Telangana Formation Day is observed on 2 June every year.
  • Telangana was officially formed on June 2, 2014.
  • It is India's 29th state and was carved out of Andhra Pradesh.
  • On 1 Nov 1956, Telangana merged with Andhra Pradesh to form a unified state for Telugu-speaking people by sculpting that state from erstwhile Madras.
  • In 1969, the Telangana region witnessed a protest for a new state.

Other Related Points

  • ​Telangana is a state in southern India.
  • In the capital of Hyderabad, the Charminar is a 16th-century mosque with 4 arches supporting 4 towering minarets.
  • Golconda Fort was a former diamond-trading center.
  • In the city of Warangal, the centuries-old Warangal Fort features carved stone towers and gateways.
  • Telangana:
    • Founded: 2 June 2014
    • Capital: Hyderabad
    • Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan
    • Chief minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The author of "A Passage To India" is ____________.

Detailed Solution: Question 16

The correct answer is E. M. Forster.

Explanation

  • A Passage to India (1924) is a novel by English author E. M. Forster set against the backdrop of the British Raj and the Indian independence movement in the 1920s.
  • It was selected as one of the 100 great works of 20th century English literature by the Modern Library and won the 1924 James Tait Black Memorial Prize for fiction.
  • Time magazine included the novel in its "All Time 100 Novels" list.

Other Related Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India.
    • He is the Prime Minister who has had the longest term in office.
    • He served as the prime minister of India from 15th August 1947 to 1964.
    • He is the architect of the Preamble of the Indian constitution.
    • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
    • He served as the first chairman of the planning commission of India.
    • He was honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
    • The name Panchayati raj was given by Jawaharlal Nehru.
    • National herald is the newspaper started by Jawaharlal Nehru.
    • He is the first prime minister to die in harness.
    • Shantivan is the cremation ground of Jawaharlal Nehru.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Sundar Pichai belongs to which of the following states of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Sundar Pichai:

  • He is an Indian origin American business executive.
  • He hails from the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • He is the chief executive officer(CEO) of Alphabet Inc and also of its subsidiary Google LLC.
  • Sundar Pichai joined Google in 2004.
  • In December 2019, he became the CEO of Alphabet Inc.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan award in the year 2022.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Who has been appointed as CEO of JioSaavn in May 2022?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The correct answer is Sahas Malhotra.

Explanation

  • Music app firm JioSaavn has appointed former Amazon Music director and entertainment industry veteran Sahas Malhotra as its new CEO.
  • Malhotra has earlier worked with Sony Music India and Tips Industries.
  • At Tips Industries, Sahas was leading the business at Tips Music and marketing for Tips Film production.

Other Related Points

  • Recent Appointments:
    • Indifi Technologies has announced the appointment of Rajnish Kumar, former Chairman of the State Bank of India (SBI), as an Advisor.
    • Procter & Gamble India has appointed LV Vaidyanathan, who leads the company’s business in Indonesia, as the new CEO.
    • Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has appointed Pomila Jaspal as the Director (Finance) and Chief Financial Officer with immediate effect.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

A statement and two actions numbered I and II are given below. You have to take the statement to be absolutely true and on the basis of the information given in the statement decide which of the two actions is logically correct.

Statement:

There has been a significant drop in the water level of all the lakes that supply water to the city.

Actions:

I. The water supply authority should make a partial cut in the supply to deal with the situation.

II. The government should appeal to the people through the media that they should use water sparingly.

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Statement:

There has been a significant drop in the water level of all the lakes that supply water to the city.

Here, due to water supply, the level of water in the lakes will drop and we know that the lake has a limited capacity to hold the water eventually we can face water problems in the future if we ignore the misuse of water.

Actions:

I. The water supply authority should make a partial cut in the supply to deal with the situation → Correct.

Because of this action, the water supply can be controlled and the level of water will NOT decrease rapidly.

II. The government should appeal to the people through the media that they should use water sparingly Correct.

Because of this action, the people will have awareness about water shortage and due to that, they will consume water carefully.

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

In the below question two statements I and II are given. These statements may either be independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements:

I) Saketh lost his job as a software professional due to the recession last month.

II) Ayansh, a salesperson, received only half his salary as there is fall in demand for their products in the market

Detailed Solution: Question 20

  • Saketh and Ayansh are working in two different fields, therefore, they cannot be the cause or effect of each other.
  • Saketh losing his job and Ayansh receiving less salary are effects of some event and not causes.
  • Both statements indicate the existence of an economic struggle in industries. Thus, it is likely that statements I and II are effects of a common cause.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III, Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All apples are bananas.

All grapes are bananas.

All bananas are nuts.

Conclusion:

I. All apples are nuts.

II. All grapes are nuts.

III. No nuts are bananas.

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows-

Conclusion:

I. All apples are nuts. → True (as all apples are bananas and all bananas are nuts)

II. All grapes are nuts. → True (as all grapes are bananas and all bananas are nuts)

III. No nuts are bananas. → False (as all bananas are nuts; some nuts will definitely be bananas)

Hence, only conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Directions: Choose the correct form of adjective for the given sentence:

He didn't know anyone at the wedding ______ than the bride and the groom.

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The correct answer is 'other.'

Explanation

  • The given sentence is talking about not knowing anyone except the bride and the groom.
  • The use of the word ''than'' in the sentence indicates apart from; except.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate adjective to be filled in the blank is 'other'.
  • 'Other' means further; additional.
    • Example: The doctor advised about many things other than medicine.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete Sentence: He didn't know anyone at the wedding other than the bride and the groom.

Other Related Points

  • Let us explore the other options:
    • 'Except' is a preposition that means not including; other than.
    • 'Rather' is an adverb used to indicate one's preference in a particular matter.
    • 'Apart' is an adverb that means (of two or more people or things) separated by a specified distance in time or space.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Name the Andhra Leader supported to Telangana demand, in Warangal meeting?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The correct answer is Gouthu Lacchhanna.Explanation

  • Gouthu Lachchanna supported toTelangana demand, in Warangal meeting.
  • Gouthu Lachchanna was one of the Andhra leaders who signed Gentleman's Agreement and participated in Warangal meeting.
  • He joined hands with Marri Chenna Reddy for Telangana and wrote books on explaining the need and relevance of Telangana state.
  • He was the only person in India to hold the title of Sardar after Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
  • Gouthu Lachchanna was the president of Andhra Pradesh state branch of the Swatantra Party.
  • Swatantra Party was the first political party to demand a separate Telangana state.

Other Related Points N.G. Ranga

  • Gogineni Ranganayakulu also known as N.G. Rana was a freedom fighter and farmer's leader.
  • He was the founding president of the Swatantra party.
  • He led the historic Ryot agitation in Andhra.

Korrapati Pattabhi Sitaramayya

  • Korrapati Pattabhi Sitaramayya was the only Andhra leader who went on hunger strike against the injustices done to Telangana during the 1969 Telangana movement.
  • On 4th March he started indefinite hunger strike in front of Andhra Pradesh assembly.
  • The state government arrested him on 4th March and kept him under police surveillance in Osmania Hospital.
  • He continued his strike in the hospital till 16th March.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Who is the author of the Book 'Kotha Vantena'?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Correct answer is K. Srinivas.

Explanation

  • Kotta Vantena book was written by K. Srinivas.
  • It is a journalist's observation about the changes in the society between the time period 2000-2002.
  • He also mentions about the changes in the Telangana region.
  • It was written with a feeling of concern with the poor.
  • It mainly involves the injustice done to the people of Telangana.

Other Related Points

  • Allam Narayana:
    • He is a Telugu journalist, poet, writer and also columnist.
    • He is known for being worked as chief editor of Namaste Telangana.
    • He even founded the Telangana journalist union.
    • He is now working as the Telangana Press Academy Chairman.
  • Sunkireddi Narayana Reddy:
    • He is a well-known poet, writer and also a researcher.
    • He wrote the books like Mattadi, Ganuma, Mungili and also Telangana Charitra.
    • He even received B.N. Sastry award in the Litterateurs category.
  • Sangisetty Srinivas:
    • He is a well-known writer in Telangana state.
    • He is mainly known for being the best researcher on history.
    • He wrote the books like Gayapadda Telangana, Shabnavis, Hyderabad sirf Hamara etc.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Who was the first among the rulers of the Vishnukundina dynasty ?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The correct answer is Indhira varma.

Indhra varma:-

  • Indhira Varma was the first among the rulers of the Vishnukundina dynasty.
  • He built the capital called Indrapuram. Now it is known as Indrapalapuram.

Madhava varma I :-

  • He married the Vakatakula princess.
  • He carved the caves of Undavalli, Bhairavakona and Mughal Rajpuram.

Govindha varma:-

  • One of the first kings of the Vishnukundins.
  • He ruled with Indrapalpuram as his capital.
  • A Mahavihara was built for Buddhist monks at Indrapalapuram in the name of his pattamahishi Mahadevi.
  • Govindavarma donated the villages of Penkapura and Enmadala for this vihara.
  • Later Venendendra Bhattakaravarma (the second Venendendravarma) donated the village 'Irundera' to this vihara.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Who among the following gave the features of the Telangana Thalli Statue ?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The corret answer is 1.

Explanation

  • Byroju Venkataramana Chari gave the features of the Telangana Thalli Statue.
  • He hails from Nirmal city of Adilabad district.
  • He was awarded by CM KCR in 2015 at Golconda on the event of Independence day for his dedication.
  • On 15 November 2007, KCR inaugurated the statue in his party office.

Other Related Points

Features of Telangana Thalli Statue:

  • Telangana Thalli statue is a symbolic mother goddess for the Telangana people.
  • The statue is distinct, with a Bathukamma in left hand and corn in right hand.
  • Crown on the head with Kohinoor and Jacob diamond.
  • There is a Gold Necklace around the neck of Telangana Thalli statue.
  • The statue is draped with Gadwal and Pochampalli Pattu saree.
  • The statue is featured with a Gold waist belt and toe rings.
  • The toe rings represents Karimnagar Filigree silver.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

In which clause of Fundamental Right, Right to Privacy is implied as

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Explanation

There are six Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution and they are as follows:

  • Right to equality.
  • Right to freedom.
  • Right against exploitation.
  • Right to freedom of religion.
  • Cultural and educational rights.
  • Right to constitutional remedies.

Other Related Points

Article 19 to 22 comes under the Right to freedom of the Fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

________ is the District Environmental Protection Officer under Section 4(1) of Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is Collector.Explanation

  • Collector is the District Environmental Protection Officer under Section 4(1) of Environment Protection Act, 1986.
  • Environment Protection Act, 1986
    • It extends to the whole of India.
    • The Central Government shall have the power to take all such measures as it deems necessary for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, controlling and abating environmental pollution.
    • The Central Government or any officer empowered by it in this behalf, shall have power to take, for the purpose of analysis, samples of air, water, soil or other substance from any factory, premises or other place.
    • Persons handling hazardous substances to comply with procedural safeguards.

Other Related Points

  • The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,
    • establish one or more environmental laboratories;
    • recognise one or more laboratories or institutes as environmental laboratories to carry out the functions entrusted to an environmental laboratory under this Act

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Under which Article of Indian Constitution, can the state legislature endow powers to Panchayats to enable them to function as self-governments?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct answer is Article 243G.

Explanation

  • Article 243G
    • ​It contains Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
    • It has provisions of the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.

Important Points

  • The 11th schedule contains the provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 matters.
  • Article 73 contains Extent of executive power of the Union.
    • It says that the executive power of the Union shall extend-
      • To the matters with respect to which Parliament has the power to make laws
      • To the exercise of such rights, authority and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the Government of India by virtue of any treaty or agreement
  • Article 343 contains Official language of the Union.
    • It refers to Hindi as the official language of Government of India and the script used for it is Devanagari script.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

The Alamatti Dam is built across the river

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct answer is Krishna River

Explanation

  • ​​The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam also known as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric project on the Krishna River in North Karnataka, India which was completed in July 2005.
  • It is in Vijayapura District, Karnataka.

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