Previous Year Questions (PYQs): Indian Polity | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Polity 

Q.1. A parliamentary system of government is one which 
(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government 
(b) The government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it 
(c) The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them 
(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but can not be removed by it before completion of a fixed term
Ans. (b)
Solution: This is obvious since people don’t remove the government (option C), it is the Parliament that can remove the government.

Q.2. Which part of the constitution of India declares the ideals of welfare state?
(a) Directive Principles of State policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh schedule
Ans. (a)
Solution: Straightforward.

Q.3. Consider the following statements
1. The constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy
2. The constitution of India provides for the ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution: S1: The Supreme Court has defined the Basic structure, not the Constitution, so S1 is wrong.
S2: Straightforward

Q.4. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is 
(a) The final goal of a stateless society 
(b) Class struggle 
(c) Abolition of private property 
(d) Economic determinism
Ans. (a)
Solution: Quoting from the source below, “When Marx spoke of the stateless communist society of the future, he did believe that it was a historical necessity and did not, therefore, depend on the ethical goodness of this individual or that, of this class or that. Somewhat similarly, when Gandhi speaks of Rama Rajya, a social order free from political bindings and consisting of self-governing individuals, he was really convinced that this is a destiny which mankind in its quest for perfection has been aiming at all the time.”

Q.5. In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for Bureaucracy? 
(a) An agency for widening the scope for parliamentary democracy 
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism 
(c) An agency for facilitating the political stability and economic growth 
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Ans. (d)

Q.6. The preamble to the constitution of India is
(a) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect
(b) Not a part of the constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) A part of the constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.
Ans. (d)
Solution: It is a part of the Constitution as declared by the SC. It certainly does not have a legal effect independently since it cannot be enforced in a court of law. Although not enforceable in court on its own (option C is wrong), the Preamble states the objects of the Constitution and acts as an aid during the interpretation of Articles when language is found ambiguous. Therefore, it begets some kind of legal effect when read along with the constitution, not independent from it. Option D is more appropriate.

Q.7. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the Constitution of India, Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by the courts
2. They shall not be enforceable by any courts
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.
Select the correct answer using the given code below-
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)

Q.8. Consider the following statements
1. According to Constitution of India, A person who eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state
2. According to the representation of people act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for at least five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: S1: Not quite technically true, since one who is eligible to vote isn’t necessarily eligible to be a Minister (e.g. on grounds of age). But, since UPSC has used the term a voter “can” and not “every voter”, S1 is correct since many voters who meet the eligibility to be a Member of Parliament can be made a Minister.
For e.g. here are few correct and incorrect statements:
Correct: A voter CAN become a minister for six months. CORRECT: A voter eligible to become a Member of Parliament CAN become a minister for six months.
Correct: Every voter that is eligible to become a Member of Parliament CAN become a minister for six months. The first statement is only part of a larger correct statement, still true.
Incorrect: EVERY voter can become a minister for six months.
S2: Specifically, Section 8 of RPA, 1951 states the grounds for disqualification on conviction of certain offences pursuant to Section 8 of RPA, 1951, in case the candidate is convicted of certain offences specified under sub-section (1) (2) (3) of Sec. 8 and sentenced to indicated fine or imprisonment, then such a candidate is disqualified from being a member of either house of Parliament or State Legislature from the date of such conviction till the stated time. This is not permanent, so S2 is wrong.

Q.9. Consider the following statements:
1. The president of India can summon a session of parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The constitution of India provides for three sessions of the parliament in a year but it is not mandatory to conduct all the sessions
3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
Solution: S1 and S2: Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session.
S3: This is correct, refer to the explanation above.

Q.10. Rajyasabha has equal power with Loksabha in
(a) The matter of creating new all India services
(b) Amending the constitution
(c) The removal of the government
(d) Making cut motions
Ans. (b)

Q.11. Which of the following categories of Fundamental Rights Incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against exploitation 
(b) Right to freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies 
(d) Right to equality
Ans. (d)

Q.12. In India, separation of judiciary from executive is enjoined by
(a) The preamble of the constitution
(b) The directive principles of state policy
(c) The seventh schedule
(d) The conventional practice
Ans. (b)

Q.13. Along with the budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the parliament which include “The Macro-Economic Framework Statement” The aforesaid document is presented because this mandated by
(a) Long-standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the constitution of India
(c) Article 114 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Ans. (d)

Q.14. A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) Government by legislature
(b) Popular government
(c) Multi-party government
(d) Limited government
Ans. (d)
Solution: A constitutional government may not have a legislature, could be a bi-party government and need not be a popular government, and can instead be a monarchy. All except D are incorrect.

Q.15. Other than the fundamental rights, Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of human rights(1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive principles of state policy
3. Fundamental duties
Select the correct answer using the given code below-
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution: If you overread the question, you might exclude S3 from the answer, but this will be incorrect.
S1: e.g. from UDHR: Article 3. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
S2: eg. Article 22 UDHR: Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realization, through national effort and international co-operation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each State, of the economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality. Or, Article 26:
(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit.
S3: e.g. Article 27 of UDHR:
(1) Everyone has the right freely to participate in the cultural life of the community, to enjoy the arts, and to share in scientific advancement and its benefits.
(2) Everyone has the right to the protection of the moral and material interests resulting from any scientific, literary, or artistic production of which he is the author.

Q.16. In India, legal service authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs2,00,000
3. Member of other backward classes(OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All senior citizens
Select the correct answer using the given code below-
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
Solution: S1 and S3: The sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled to free legal services, they are :
(a) A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
(b) A victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
(c) A woman or a child;
(d) A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
(e) A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or (f) An industrial workman; or
(g) In custody, including custody in a protective home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956(104 of 1956); or in a juvenile home within the meaning of clause(j) of Section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986); or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987(14 of 1987); or
(h) a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court.
S2: Limit for Transgender – Rs. 2,00,000
S4: Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Any individual above the age of 60 can apply for free legal aid/services.

UPSC Prelims 2019: Polity 

Q.1. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Ans. (c)

Solution: The ‘Sarkaria Commission’ recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links and that he should not have taken part in politics in the recent past and should not be a member of the ruling party.

Q.2. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans. (a)
Solution: Finance commission and NITI Aayog are of advisory nature, they do not review the functioning of any regulator. So, 3 and 5 are clearly wrong. FSLRC was setup once to review financial legislations and not regulators in the country. So, 4 is also wrong. The Parliamentary Departmental related standing Committees may do such work, and the ad hoc committees sometimes set up to review the working of regulators specific to their respective departments.

Q.3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

Q.4. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
Ans. (d)
Solution: Liberty can be seen from two perspectives – negative and positive. Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers, or constraints. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental purposes. One may surmise that the purpose of ensuring that one has no obstacles is to realize one’s full potential. Therefore, option B only covers part of the definition of liberty, whereas option D covers it fully. Option A is also a partial definition and has a connotation more towards fundamental rights rather than liberty. One can be protected from tyranny by rule of law, but that does not by itself guarantee liberty.

Q.5. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Ans. (b)
Solution: As per Article 142, “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.

Q.6. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: S1: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons.
S2: As per Article 208 of the Constitution: Rules of procedure “(1) A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business (2) Until rules are made under clause (1), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to the Legislature of the State subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be” This implies that state legislature does not follow Lok Sabha rules, no such provision exists.

Q.7. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Ans. (b)
Solution: “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, the Supreme Court had recently set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.

Q.8. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution: S1: The Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975–1977.
S2: 99th CA would have established the National Judicial Appointments Commission. But, in 2015, the Constitution Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional.

Q.9. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Solution: The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion, so S1 is wrong. S2: It has not been defined.

Q.10. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans. (a)
Solution: The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.

Q.11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Solution: Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A. According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding the office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in a position to gain financial benefit. The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.

Q.12. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Ans. (b)

UPSC Prelims 2018: Polity 

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a  party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 1: It is wrong because the Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First General Election. CPI won in 16 seats.
Statement 3: It is wrong because in order to receive the status of the opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavalakar Rule.

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law passed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny. The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
Statement 2: The mandate of the ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 19, 20, and 21 of the Constitution.

Q.3. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then 
(a) The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved 
(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament 
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state 
(d) The President can make laws relating to that State
Ans. (b)
Solution: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
(1) If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
(a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.

Q.4. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans. (b)
Solution: Committee of Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, and by-laws delegated by the parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it. In both houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

Q.5. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct because under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act 2009, the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE),  has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII, which are applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

Q.6. Consider the following events
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then-largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3 
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 1: First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957. The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats.
Statement 2: Imperial bank was renamed as state bank of India in 1955.
Statement 3: Air India was nationalized in 1953. The government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons. Statement 4: Goa became an independent India on 18 December 1961. Indian troops crossed the border into Goa and “liberated” it.

Q.7. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.
(c) Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in part III
(d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendment to the constitution.
Ans. (c)
Solution: Privacy is a constitutionally protected right that emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.

Q.8. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be money bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the government of India
Ans. (c)
Solution: A110. Definition of Money Bill (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund; (d) the appropriation of money out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.

Q.9. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: S1: Value of vote of MLA is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value hence, statement 1 is correct
S2: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is a little unclear on whether it refers to an individual MP or MPs as a whole. But, then the term “The value of THE VOTE (and not VOTES)” makes it clear that the examiner is not asking you for the total number of votes. So, “MPs of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha” are to be understood as a single group here, and not as a plural entity. Thus, S2 will be wrong.

Q.10. Consider the following statements:
1. Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office of he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly
2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1, not 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
2. If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
3. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.

Q.11. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law of the land and liberty?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty
(b) If there is no law, there is no liberty
(c) If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people
(d) If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger
Ans. (b)
Solution: The statements in this question are a little vague and prone to various interpretations based on the context.
Option B is a popular choice because it was a statement made by John Locke. He, in the Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSE (Unregulated liberty). Therefore, B is correct.
But, then such statements are not to be considered objective realities. If there are no laws, there can be either complete liberty, because nothing restricts the actions of citizens, or NO liberty because then lawlessness can heavily curtail liberty. It really depends. It is an extreme statement to say that when there are no laws, there is no liberty (Can we say there is no liberty in a Jungle?) There can be liberty despite the absence of laws.
Option D: This can also be justified, but this would not be the most appropriate answer here
1. The fundamental philosophy of rule of law in a liberal society is that laws should be just, reasonable, and based on the principles of fairness and equity. If laws are changed too often, one would find their actions restricted because what was a completely lawful action, such as smoking, may suddenly become illegal because it hurts the health of a common citizen.
2. And then on the next day, the government can legalize smoking and thus infringe on the liberty of those who cannot bear public smoking.
3. When laws are changed too often, and when there is no fundamental principle on which laws are based, it can lead to dictatorship and arbitrariness, which defeats the very purpose of the rule of law based on reason.
4. But, laws can also be changed too often based on the exigencies and contingencies and this may not violate someone’s liberty. However, if there was no option B, this would have been the most appropriate answer.
Option A is incorrect because if there are more laws, it may lead to more liberty as well as laws themselves might be enabling more liberty.

Q.12. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office
2. Emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution: Article 361. Protection of President and Governors No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office, Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office

Q.13. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before the law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 ad 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Solution: Rule of Law includes:
1. Absence of arbitrary power
2. Equality before the law
3. Primacy of individual rights
Statement 3 is wrong because it should be that the government is responsible to the people and not vice versa.

UPSC Prelims 2017: Polity 

Q.1. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution: Statement 1: It is introduced by any member who is not a Minister. A bill introduced by a Minister is called a public bill.
Statement 2: Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence.

Q.2. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of 
(a) Privileges 
(b) Restraints 
(c) Competition 
(d) Ideology
Ans. (a)
Solution: Article 18 of the constitution justifies this. Under Right to equality, A18 abolishes titular privileges (except military or academic) granted to citizens of India.

Q.3. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education, and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Ans. (b)
Solution: The 42nd Amendment added new Directive Principles, viz Article 39A, Article 43A, and Article 48A. Article 43A deals with ‘Participation of workers in the management of industries’.

Q.4. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. 
(b) Rights are privileges that are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. 
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. 
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Ans. (c)
Solution: Option C: The philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen by the state. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the state.
Option B: This is wrong because rights are not privileges, they are the bare minimum for the formation of a democratic state. Also, the constitution abolishes the concept of special privileges.

Q.5. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Ans. (b)
Solution: Option B: Decentralization and grassroots empowerment are the core guiding principles of local self-government as under the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments. For e.g. Gram Panchayats can sanction sanitation and welfare projects on their own.
Option A: Local bodies are not federal entities as is the position of states in India.
Option C: This isn’t administrative delegation because local self-government bodies are political entities that are elected directly (or indirectly) by people and managed by their representatives.
Option D: Since it involves election and indirect decision making by people’s representatives, there can be no direct democracy (where all decisions are made directly by the people).

Q.6. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution: It is the fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether legislative or executive). The directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. It guides them, not restricts them.

Q.7. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution: Statement 1: While FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for e.g. Environment Protection Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environment protection), the constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce them. However, since the Parliament has enforced the most fundamental duties already via a legislative process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct.
Statement 2:  ‘legal duties’,  for all practical purposes can be considered as ‘law of the land’. FDs are in sync with legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women). Also, it is an Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.

Q.8. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Ans. (b)

Q.9. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Ans. (a)
Solution: This is another ambiguously framed question.
Option A: Democracy allows you to vote (by exercising your intellect), gives you the liberty and freedom of expression (so that your intellectual potential is fulfilled), and ensures adherence to moral values (character) such as justice and equality. So, A seems appropriate.
Option B: There is no ground for this statement.
Option C: Since it specifies a “superior individual”, it attaches a sense of privilege to selected people, which is against democratic values. It also does not clarify what dynamism and vision mean.
Option D: No ground.

Q.10. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without an election.
Ans. (c)
Solution: Straightforward question based on the core Parliamentary democracy principles.

Q.11. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Ans. (a)
Solution: Rights and duties have an organic relationship. One cannot enjoy a right if others do not obey their duties.

Q.12. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Ans. (a)

Q.13. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution: Statement 1:  Matters of urgent importance can be raised in the Adjournment motion.
Statement 2 and 3:  MPs hold the executive accountable by asking questions, and supplementary questions.

Q.14. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by 
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Ans. (c)

Q.15. Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution: Statement 1: We follow the First past the post system, where the majority of votes is sufficient to get elected, even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled.
Statement 2: Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Q.16. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Ans. (d)
Solution: There is a dispute whether the answer should be C or D. Case for Option C: Logically the answer seems to be C because Article 326 of the constitution grants adult suffrage which implies the right to vote. Moreover, a democratic constitution loses its essence if it does not provide for a right to vote as a constitutional right. It is true that the Representation of People’s Act also provides for a Right to Vote, but they may be considered qualifications (conditions) on the Right to Vote already granted by the constitution in A326.
An analogy can be the Child Labour Act or the Bonded labor prohibition Act where these fundamental rights are separately enforced by law. So, the case for Option C looks strong.
Option D: But, the Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the constitution and its view will prevail notwithstanding all arguments. The Supreme Court observed in PUCL vs. Union of India (2015), “No doubt, the right to vote is a statutory right but it is equally vital to recollect that this statutory right is the essence of democracy. Without this, democracy will fail to thrive. Therefore, even if the right to vote is statutory, the significance attached with the right is massive.” Therefore, the answer to this question is D, not C.

Q.17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
Solution: Why: The recent controversy surrounding Samajwadi Party split/merger in UP elections where ECI recognized the party led by Akhilesh Yadav as the one representing SP. Justification: Statement 1: Presently it is a three-member body, one CEC, and two other ECs. Statement 2:  ECI decides this schedule. Statement 3:  Splits, mergers, and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

Q.18. In India, Judicial Review implies 
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. 
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures. 
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President. 
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.
Ans. (a)
Solution: Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict with the Constitution of India.

Q.19. Which of the following is not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
Statement 1: The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1 is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.

Q.20. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Solution: Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality. Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.

Q.21. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Ans. (c)

Q.22. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? 
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India. 
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States. 
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. 
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Ans. (d)
Solution: The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

UPSC Prelims 2016: Polity 

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution: Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India. Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.

Q.2. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 1: It tries both Civil and Criminal cases. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: Gram Nyalayas Act, 2008 states:
“27. (1) For the purposes of section 26, the District Court shall, in consultation with the Appointment District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court.” 2 is correct.

Q.3. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution: Statement 1: With a view to strengthening and institutionalizing the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development, the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in December 2010 (much before NITI AAyog was even setup). So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC) Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and Chief Economic Adviser. So, 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Without prejudice to the autonomy of regulators, the Council monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates, and addresses inter-regulatory coordination and financial sector development issues. So, 3 is correct. It also focuses on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

Q.4. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Ans. (d)
Solution: If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with the special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7th Schedule).

Q.5. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution: Statement 1: It is 21 years, so 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution (i.e., before the expiry of the full period of five years) shall continue only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than six months it shall not be necessary to hold elections.

Q.6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution: Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House.
It is the pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse So, 2 is correct.

UPSC Prelims 2015: Polity 

Q.1. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between states
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats d) protect the interests of all the border States
Ans. (a)
Solution: Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with. Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the Panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.

Q.2. With reference to the Union Government considers the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution: The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund. Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs). The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making process

Q.3. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Ans. (d)
Solution: Supreme Court judges take the oath to “UPHOLD the constitution” and the laws. Hence, it is the Guardian of the constitution of India.

Q.4. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
Ans. (a)

Q.5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution: The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions). The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

Q.6. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
Ans. (d)
Solution: It has been mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution (Fundamental Duties).

Q.7. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Solution: There is some dispute about the answers. Some claim the answer to be A, some C and some D. We accept that there is some subjectivity inherent in the options. However, the question can be solved on objective basis. Statement 4 is INCORRECT because financial mobilization was never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj. Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective. In fact, only few states have devolved financial powers to their PRIs. Statement 3 is also INAPPROPRIATE in the context of the question.
Reasons are:
• Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local body.
• Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”.
• Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures. What has happened after 1993 is that it has only become easier to hold the representatives accountable. It is always easier to approach someone next door (ward councilor) than next district (MP or MLA/MLC).

Q.8. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Ans. (b)
Solution: In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital. DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India. Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.

Q.9. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
Solution: Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy. Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.

Q.10. With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution: The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 per cent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent. No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.

Q.11. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given below are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution: Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc. DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.

Q.12. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution: Only the Lok Sabha can vote on the demand for grants. Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to Lok Sabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by Lok Sabha. Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.

Q.13. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of member present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the House
(d) absolute majority of the House
Ans. (a)
Solution: Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and voting.

Q.14. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the 
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (d)