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All questions of 2010 for NEET Exam

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

Splicing activity is a function of:

  • A:

    mRNA

  • B:

    snRNA

  • C:

    tRNA

  • D:

    rRNA

The answer is b.

Ashutosh Shah answered
SnRNA is precursor of mRNA means it's a raw form of RNA that contain both introns and exons in splicing process these introns are removed so splicing activity is function of snRNA.
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Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all except:
  • a)
    Carbohydrates
  • b)
    Triglycerides
  • c)
    Lecithin
  • d)
    Cholesterol
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Naveen Mehra answered
Eukaryotic Plasma Membrane

The plasma membrane is a thin, semi-permeable layer that surrounds the cell and separates the intracellular environment from the outside environment. It is composed of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins, and carbohydrates are also present in the form of glycoproteins and glycolipids. The eukaryotic plasma membrane also contains cholesterol and lecithin.

Composition of Eukaryotic Plasma Membrane

Carbohydrates

Carbohydrates are present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane and are covalently linked to proteins (glycoproteins) or lipids (glycolipids). These carbohydrates serve as recognition sites for other cells or molecules, allowing for cell-cell communication and identification.

Lecithin

Lecithin is a phospholipid that is a major component of the plasma membrane. It is amphipathic, meaning it has both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions, and helps to maintain the fluidity of the membrane.

Cholesterol

Cholesterol is also present in the plasma membrane and helps to maintain membrane fluidity and stability. It is found in the hydrophobic region of the lipid bilayer and helps to prevent the membrane from becoming too rigid or too permeable.

Triglycerides

Triglycerides are not a component of the plasma membrane. They are a type of lipid that is found in the cytoplasm and are used for energy storage.

Conclusion

The eukaryotic plasma membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins, carbohydrates, lecithin, and cholesterol. Triglycerides are not a component of the plasma membrane. The various components of the plasma membrane work together to maintain membrane fluidity, stability, and function.

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia –

  • A:

    Procaine

  • B:

    Prilocaine

  • C:

    Etiodicaine

  • D:

    Ropivacaine

The answer is b.

Ravi Verma answered
Specific local anesthetics used routinely in denti... morestry , most notably prilocaine and benzocaine, have a propensity to cause methemoglobinemia. It is crucial to patient care for a dentist not only to understand the risk factors for methemoglobinemia, but also to be able to diagnose and subsequently treat the condition.

Capacitance of sperms takes place in:
  • a)
    Seminiferous tubules
  • b)
    Epididymis
  • c)
    Vas deference
  • d)
    uterus
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Azeem answered
The change undergo by sperm in the female reproductive tract that enables them to penetrate and fertilize an egg.

 Coeliac plexus is located
  • a)
    Anterolateral & around the aorta
  • b)
    Posterolateral & around the aorta
  • c)
    Anteromedical to lumbar sympathetic chain
  • d)
    Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Correct answer is 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anu Bajaj answered
The celiac plexus or coeliac plexus, also known as the solar plexus because of its radiating nerve fibers,[1] is a complex network of nerves (a nerve plexus) located in the abdomen, near where the celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, and renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta. It is behind the stomach and the omental bursa, and in front of the crura of the diaphragm, on the level of the first lumbar vertebra.

The plexus is formed in part by the greater and lesser splanchnic nerves of both sides, and fibers from the anterior and posterior vagal trunks.

Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
  • a)
    Cricothyroid
  • b)
    Thyrohyoid
  • c)
    Hyoepiglottie
  • d)
    Cricotracheal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Mehta answered
The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage, and its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

A child brought with suspected ingestion, presented with dry mouth, dilated pupil, difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin, the substance is:
  • a)
    Anti-cholinergic
  • b)
    Sympathetic
  • c)
    Cholinergic
  • d)
    Alpha-blocker
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sapna Patel answered
Anticholinergic: Opposing the actions of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the transmission of parasympathetic nerve impulses, thereby reducing spasms of smooth muscles (for example, muscles in the bladder). Side effects of anticholinergic medications include dry mouth and related dental problems, blurred vision, delirium, tendency toward overheating (hyperpyrexia), and in some cases, dementia-like symptoms.

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non-complaint. Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intracerebral calcification. Which of the these is likely cause?

  • A:

    Toxoplasmosis

  • B:

    CMV

  • C:

    Cryptococcus

  • D:

    Rubella

The answer is a.

Meera Singh answered
Caught during pregnancy, toxoplasmosis can cause miscarriage, stillbirth or damage to the baby's brain and other organs, particularly the eyes. However, most babies born with toxoplasmosis have no obvious damage at birth but develop symptoms, usually eye damage, during childhood or even adulthood.

Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except –
  • a)
    Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins
  • b)
    Mentoanterior
  • c)
    Extended breech
  • d)
    Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sreemoyee Chopra answered
1. Breech presentation
2. Placenta previa
3. Active genital herpes infection
4. Abnormal fetal heart rate pattern
5. Umbilical cord prolapse
6. Maternal medical conditions such as severe hypertension, heart disease, or diabetes
7. Multiple gestation with certain complications such as fetal growth restriction or twin-twin transfusion syndrome.

Paneth cells – true is
  • a)
    Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • b)
    High zine content
  • c)
    Foamy cytoplasm
  • d)
    Numerous lysozyme granules
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Akash Ghoshal answered
Understanding Paneth Cells
Paneth cells are specialized cells located in the intestinal crypts, primarily in the small intestine. They play a crucial role in maintaining gut health and immunity.
Rich in Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
- Paneth cells are indeed rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), which is essential for their function.
- The abundance of RER indicates a high level of protein synthesis, particularly for secreting antimicrobial peptides and proteins.
High Zinc Content
- While Paneth cells do contain zinc, it is not their distinguishing feature. Zinc is important for various cellular functions but does not specifically characterize Paneth cells.
Foamy Cytoplasm
- The cytoplasm of Paneth cells may appear foamy due to the presence of secretory granules; however, this is not a definitive feature when compared to their overall function.
Numerous Lysozyme Granules
- Paneth cells are known to have granules containing lysozyme, an antimicrobial enzyme, but this is not as significant as their rich RER.
- The presence of lysozymes contributes to the innate immune function of the intestine, yet it does not overshadow the importance of the RER in their structure.
Conclusion
- The correct answer is option 'A' because the rich rough endoplasmic reticulum in Paneth cells supports their primary role in producing and secreting a variety of antimicrobial substances.
- This high level of protein synthesis is critical for their function in gut immunity, making option 'A' the most accurate statement regarding Paneth cells.

Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except:
  • a)
    Maxillary sinus
  • b)
    Interior of nasal cavity
  • c)
    Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
  • d)
    Ethmoidal air cells
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Siddharth Joshi answered
The Anterior Ethmoidal nerve supplies all except Ethmoidal air cells.

Anatomy of Anterior Ethmoidal Nerve:
The Anterior Ethmoidal nerve is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1). It enters the anterior cranial fossa via the ethmoidal foramen on the orbital plate of the ethmoid bone. It then divides into a nasal and external branch.

Functions:
The Anterior Ethmoidal nerve provides sensory innervation to the following structures:
- Anterior and superior nasal cavity
- Frontal sinus
- Ethmoidal sinuses
- Dura mater of the anterior cranial fossa
- Meninges of the anterior cranial fossa
- Medial canthus of the eye
- Skin of the upper eyelid and forehead

Clinical Significance:
Damage to the Anterior Ethmoidal nerve can result in loss of sensation to the structures it innervates. This can lead to anosmia (loss of sense of smell), facial pain, and headaches.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Anterior Ethmoidal nerve supplies all except the Ethmoidal air cells. The Anterior Ethmoidal nerve plays an important role in providing sensory innervation to the anterior and superior nasal cavity, frontal sinus, dura mater, and meninges of the anterior cranial fossa, and medial canthus of the eye.

Best indicator of growth monitoring in children –
  • a)
    Weight
  • b)
    Mid-arm circumstance
  • c)
    Rate of increase in height & weight
  • d)
    Head circumstance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajat Kapoor answered
The best indicator of growth monitoring in children is option c) rate of increase in height and weight.

Growth monitoring is the process of tracking and assessing the physical growth and development of children to ensure that they are growing and developing at a healthy rate. Growth monitoring is typically performed by healthcare providers, such as pediatricians, who measure and record the height and weight of children at regular intervals to track their growth over time.

There are several different factors that can be used to monitor growth in children, including weight, mid-arm circumference, head circumference, and rate of increase in height and weight. However, the rate of increase in height and weight is generally considered to be the best indicator of overall growth and development.

This is because the rate of increase in height and weight reflects not only the child's size, but also their overall physical development, including the growth and maturation of their bones, muscles, and organs. Monitoring the rate of increase in height and weight can help healthcare providers identify any potential issues with growth and development and take appropriate action to address them.

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be –

  • A:

    Galactorrhoea

  • B:

    Diabetes insipidus

  • C:

    Loss of menstruation

  • D:

    Cushing’s syndrome

The answer is c.

Syeedabatool Quadri answered
Because due to placenta previa most of the blood is lost and due to this and shock during parturition lead to loss of mensuration in this case because the time is needed for body to overcome from shock and the hormonal secretion to balance again

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of

  • A:

    Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

  • B:

    Palatine division of maxillary nerve

  • C:

    Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve

  • D:

    none of the above

The answer is d.

Sapna Patel answered
The middle superior alveolar nerve is a nerve that drops from the infraorbital portion of the maxillary nerve to supply the sinus mucosa, the roots of the maxillary premolars, and the mesiobuccal root of the first maxillary molar.

A 65 yrs old man with H/O back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. On examination marked stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found. On x-ray, syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae. Diagnosis is –
  • a)
    Ankylosing spondylitis
  • b)
    Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
  • c)
    Ankylosing hypersteosis
  • d)
    Lumbar canal stenosis
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaviya Lakshmi answered
1. Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a rare type of arthritis that causes pain and stiffness in your spine. This lifelong condition, also known as Bechterew disease, usually starts in your lower back. It can spread up to your neck or damage joints in other parts of your body. Symptoms include Low back pain; Uveitis; Joint stiffness...
2. Osteoarthritis of the spine is a breakdown of the cartilage of the joints and discs in the neck and lower back. Sometimes, osteoarthritis produces spurs that put pressure on the nerves leaving the spinal column. This can cause weakness and pain in the arms or legs.
3. Ankylosing hyperostosis is a condition in which new. bone is laid down on the right antero-lateral aspect of. the dorsal vertebrae and across the intervertebral. spaces forming spurs or bridges.
4. Lumbar spinal stenosis is a narrowing of the spinal canal, compressing the nerves traveling through the lower back into the legs. 
Hence the symptoms in the above case suits with Ankylosing spondylitis.

Pain insensitive structure in brain is:
  • a)
    Falx cerebri
  • b)
    Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
  • c)
    Middle meningeal artery
  • d)
    Choroid plexus
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Nambiar answered
Understanding Pain Insensitivity in Brain Structures
The brain has various structures, and some possess insensitivity to pain, which is crucial for understanding neurological conditions and interventions.
Key Structures in the Brain
- Falx Cerebri: This is a sickle-shaped fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres. While it is a protective structure, it is innervated and can sense pain.
- Dural Sheath Surrounding Vascular Sinuses: The dura mater, including the sheath around vascular sinuses, contains pain-sensitive nerve endings. Thus, it can transmit pain signals during conditions like meningitis or dural irritation.
- Middle Meningeal Artery: This artery supplies blood to the meninges and is closely associated with pain sensation. Its irritation can lead to headaches, particularly in cases of trauma.
Choroid Plexus: The Pain-Insensitive Structure
- Definition: The choroid plexus is a network of cells located in the ventricles of the brain responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
- Pain Insensitivity: The choroid plexus does not contain pain receptors (nociceptors), making it insensitive to pain. This characteristic is significant during surgical procedures, as manipulation of the choroid plexus does not elicit a pain response.
- Clinical Relevance: Understanding that the choroid plexus is pain-insensitive aids in neurosurgical practices where minimizing patient discomfort is paramount.
In summary, the correct answer to the question regarding the pain-insensitive structure in the brain is indeed the choroid plexus. This understanding is fundamental for both medical professionals and students preparing for competitive exams like NEET.

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

True about prostatic urethra are all except:

  • A:

    Trapezoid in cross section

  • B:

    Presence of verumontanum

  • C:

    Openings of prostatic ducts

  • D:

    Contains urethral crest

The answer is a.

Nishtha Shah answered
Explanation:

Trapezoid in cross section:
- The prostatic urethra is not trapezoid in cross section. It is actually wider and more dilated compared to other parts of the urethra.

Presence of verumontanum:
- The prostatic urethra does have a raised, slightly elevated ridge called the verumontanum, which is an important anatomical landmark.

Openings of prostatic ducts:
- The prostatic urethra contains openings of prostatic ducts, which allow the secretion of prostatic fluid into the urethra.

Contains urethral crest:
- The prostatic urethra contains a urethral crest, which is a longitudinal ridge that runs along the posterior wall of the urethra.

Summary:
- In summary, the statement that the prostatic urethra is trapezoid in cross section is incorrect. The prostatic urethra is wider and more dilated compared to other parts of the urethra.

Direct standarlization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the differences in:
  • a)
    Causes of death
  • b)
    Numerators
  • c)
    Age distributions
  • d)
    Denominators
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Mukherjee answered
The correct answer is: c) Age distributions

Direct standardization is a statistical method that is used to compare mortality rates between two or more populations with different age distributions. It is used to adjust for differences in age structure between the populations being compared, so that the mortality rates can be more accurately compared.

In direct standardization, the mortality rates of the different populations are calculated using a standard population as the reference. The standard population is typically chosen based on its age distribution, and the mortality rates of the other populations are calculated using the same age distribution. This allows for a more accurate comparison of the mortality rates between the populations, because the effects of differences in age structure are accounted for.

There are several factors that can influence mortality rates, including causes of death, numerators (the number of deaths in a population), and denominators (the size of the population). However, differences in age distribution are often the most significant factor that needs to be taken into account when comparing mortality rates between populations.

A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
  • a)
    Bulimia nervosa
  • b)
    Binge eating
  • c)
    Schizophrenia
  • d)
    Anorexia nervosa
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Supriya Senapati answered
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging. binge eating refers to eating a large amount of food in a short period of time. purging refers to the attempts to get rid of the food consumed. cognitive behavioral therapy is the primary treatment for the bulimia. antidepressants of the selective seretonin reuptake inhibitor or tricyclic antidepressants classes have modest benefit.

Chapter doubts & questions for 2010 - AIIMS Mock Tests & Previous Year Question Papers 2025 is part of NEET exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

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