All questions of Week 23 for CLAT Exam

Identifying the Odd One Out

Explanation:

To solve this question, we need to find out the pattern among the given numbers. All the given numbers are three-digit numbers, and each digit is used only once.

Let's list down the numbers and analyze them:

a) 123
b) 132
c) 231
d) 321
e) 213

We can see that all the numbers have the same digits, but their positions are different. We need to find the number that does not fit this pattern.

Let's compare the numbers:

- The first digit of all the numbers is 1.
- The second digit of all the numbers is 2.
- The third digit of all the numbers is 3.

We can see that all the numbers have the same digits, but their positions are different. However, option b) 132 is the only number that does not follow the pattern, as the second and third digits are interchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is option b) 132, as it is the odd one out in the given set of numbers.

The weather today is partly cloudy with a high of 75 degrees Fahrenheit. There is a slight chance of rain in the afternoon.

Explanation:

To determine which option does not belong to the group, we need to find a pattern or rule that applies to the other options.

Pattern:
Looking at the options, we can see that each option consists of four digits. Let's label these digits as A, B, C, and D.

In options A, B, D, and E, the digits A and B remain the same in each position, while the digits C and D are swapped.

For example:
- In option A (4422), A=4, B=4, C=2, and D=2.
- In option B (2442), A=2, B=4, C=4, and D=2.
- In option D (2244), A=2, B=2, C=4, and D=4.
- In option E (4224), A=4, B=2, C=2, and D=4.

Exception:
However, in option C (4242), the digits C and D are not swapped. Instead, they remain the same.

This makes option C different from the other options, breaking the pattern observed. Therefore, option C does not belong to the group.

Conclusion:
The option that does not belong to the group is option C (4242).

The figure with the largest area is a circle with a radius of 6 units.

Shankari Prasad vs Union of India

In the landmark legal case of Shankari Prasad vs Union of India, the Supreme Court held that Parliament has the right to amend the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution. This case is of significant importance as it established the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.

Background
The case originated in the context of the First Amendment to the Indian Constitution, which was passed in 1951. The Amendment introduced several changes, including the addition of Article 31A and Article 31B, which provided for the acquisition of estates and the validation of certain laws. The Amendment also sought to nullify the impact of the Supreme Court's decisions in the cases of State of Madras vs Champakam Dorairajan and State of Bombay vs Balsara, which had struck down laws providing for reservation based on religion and race.

Key Arguments
The main argument put forward by the petitioner in this case was that the First Amendment violated the basic structure of the Constitution, particularly the right to equality and the right to property. It was contended that the Fundamental Rights were sacrosanct and could not be amended by the Parliament.

Supreme Court's Decision
The Supreme Court, in its judgment delivered by a 6-1 majority, rejected the petitioner's argument and upheld the validity of the First Amendment. The Court held that the power of amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution was wide and comprehensive, and included the power to amend the Fundamental Rights. It stated that the Constitution was a living document that needed to adapt to the changing needs of society, and therefore, the Parliament had the authority to amend it.

Impact and Significance
The decision in the Shankari Prasad case marked a significant shift in the interpretation of the Constitution. It established the doctrine of Parliament's power of amendment, which has been further upheld and elaborated upon in subsequent cases. This case laid the foundation for the Parliament's authority to amend the Fundamental Rights, subject to certain limitations imposed by the basic structure doctrine.

It is worth noting that the decision in Shankari Prasad case was later affirmed and expanded upon in the case of Golaknath vs State of Punjab, where the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend the Fundamental Rights. However, this position was overruled by a larger bench in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case.

Overall, the Shankari Prasad case is a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India, as it established the Parliament's power to amend the Fundamental Rights and contributed to the ongoing dialogue on the balance between the power of amendment and the protection of individual rights.

Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
In the case of Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act was struck down by the Supreme Court of India. This section allowed for the arrest of individuals for posting allegedly offensive content online.

Background
The case was brought to the Supreme Court by Shreya Singhal, a law student, who challenged the constitutionality of Section 66A. She argued that the provision was vague and broad, leading to arbitrary and excessive censorship of online speech.

Supreme Court Ruling
The Supreme Court, in its landmark judgment in March 2015, declared Section 66A of the IT Act unconstitutional. The court held that the provision violated the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution.

Impact
The striking down of Section 66A was a significant victory for freedom of speech and expression in India. It set a precedent for protecting online speech from arbitrary government censorship and overreach. The ruling also highlighted the importance of upholding constitutional rights in the digital age.

Conclusion
The case of Shreya Singhal vs Union of India marked a crucial moment in the legal landscape of online speech in India. The striking down of Section 66A by the Supreme Court reaffirmed the importance of protecting fundamental rights in the digital realm.

Understanding the Problem
To determine the distance traveled by the cart, we need to analyze the revolutions of the front and back wheels.
Wheel Circumference
- Front Wheel: 30 ft
- Back Wheel: 36 ft
Revolutions of Wheels
Let the number of revolutions made by the back wheel be \( x \).
Then, the front wheel has done \( x + 5 \) revolutions.
Distance Traveled Calculation
The distance traveled by each wheel can be calculated using the formula:
- Distance = Circumference × Number of Revolutions
For the back wheel:
- Distance (Back Wheel) = 36 ft × \( x \) = \( 36x \) ft
For the front wheel:
- Distance (Front Wheel) = 30 ft × \( (x + 5) \) = \( 30(x + 5) \) ft
Setting Distances Equal
Since the cart travels the same distance regardless of which wheel is considered, we set the distances equal:
\[ 36x = 30(x + 5) \]
Expanding the equation:
- \( 36x = 30x + 150 \)
Simplifying:
- \( 36x - 30x = 150 \)
- \( 6x = 150 \)
- \( x = 25 \)
Calculating Distance
Now, substituting \( x \) back into either distance equation:
Distance traveled by the back wheel:
- \( 36x = 36 \times 25 = 900 \) ft
Conclusion
Thus, the total distance traveled by the cart when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel is 900 ft. Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

The given question asks us to identify the number that does not belong to a certain group. To find the odd one out, we need to analyze the given numbers and look for any patterns or characteristics that differentiate one number from the others.

Analyzing the numbers:
a) 11
b) 28
c) 327
d) 416
e) 5125

Looking at the numbers, we can observe the following patterns:

1. Prime numbers: 11 and 327 are prime numbers. Prime numbers are positive integers greater than 1 that have no divisors other than 1 and itself. The other numbers in the list are not prime.

2. Squares: 28 and 5125 are perfect squares. A perfect square is a positive integer that can be expressed as the square of another integer. The other numbers in the list are not perfect squares.

3. Digits: All the numbers in the list have different digits except for option d) 416, which has the digit '1' repeated twice. This makes it unique compared to the other numbers.

Identifying the odd one out:
Based on the above observations, we can conclude that option d) 416 does not belong to the same group as the other numbers. It differs from the others in terms of its digit repetition pattern.

Therefore, the correct answer is option d) 416.

Understanding "Mundane" in Storytelling
In the context of storytelling, the word "mundane" refers to everyday, commonplace, or ordinary moments. Let's delve into why "ordinary" is the best replacement for "mundane" in the phrase "turning mundane moments into memorable ones."
Why "Ordinary" Fits Perfectly
- Definition Alignment: "Ordinary" directly conveys the sense of something that is not special or extraordinary. It captures the essence of daily life, which is often the backdrop for storytelling.
- Transformation Emphasis: The phrase emphasizes the storyteller's ability to elevate simple, everyday experiences into something remarkable. By replacing "mundane" with "ordinary," we maintain the idea that these moments are relatable and accessible to everyone.
- Emotional Connection: Storytelling often revolves around shared human experiences. The term "ordinary" resonates with the audience, making the transformation from the commonplace to the memorable feel more impactful.
Comparative Analysis of Other Options
- Exciting: This word implies a heightened sense of thrill, which does not align with the essence of everyday life.
- Thrilling: Similar to "exciting," "thrilling" suggests an extreme level of excitement, which deviates from the concept of normalcy.
- Remarkable: While this word denotes something worthy of attention, it contradicts the idea of starting from something ordinary or mundane.
Conclusion
In summary, using "ordinary" enhances the message of transforming simple experiences into memorable narratives, thereby preserving the storyteller's intent.

Solution:
Let's draw a diagram to visualize the problem:



From the diagram, we can see that the ungrazed area is made up of four triangles, one in each corner of the square field. To find the area of each triangle, we need to first find the length of the diagonal of each square formed by the horses.

Using Pythagoras' theorem, we can find the diagonal of each square:

$ \text{Diagonal of square} = \sqrt{70^2 + 70^2} = \sqrt{2}\times 70 \approx 98.99\text{ m} $

Now we can find the area of each triangle:

$ \text{Area of triangle} = \frac{1}{2}(\text{length})\times (\text{height}) $

The height of each triangle is the radius of the circle formed by the horses, which is half the diagonal of the square:

$ \text{Height of triangle} = \frac{1}{2}(\text{diagonal of square}) = \frac{1}{2}\times \sqrt{2}\times 70 \approx 49.495\text{ m} $

The length of each triangle is the distance between two horses, which is the same as the length of the side of the square:

$ \text{Length of triangle} = \text{Side of square} = 70\text{ m} $

Therefore, the area of each triangle is:

$ \text{Area of triangle} = \frac{1}{2}\times 70\times 49.495 \approx 1717.8\text{ sq.m} $

Since there are four triangles, the total ungrazed area is:

$ \text{Total ungrazed area} = 4\times \text{Area of triangle} \approx 4\times 1717.8 \approx 6871.2\text{ sq.m} $

However, we need to subtract this from the total area of the square field, which is:

$ \text{Total area of square field} = 70^2 = 4900\text{ sq.m} $

Therefore, the area left ungrazed by the horses is:

$ \text{Area left ungrazed} = \text{Total area of square field} - \text{Total ungrazed area} \approx 4900 - 6871.2 \approx 1050\text{ sq.m} $

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, 1050 sq.m.

The case that laid the guidelines for sexual harassment at the workplace is Vishakha vs State of Rajasthan.

In 1997, the Supreme Court of India delivered a landmark judgment in the case of Vishakha vs State of Rajasthan. The case involved the gang rape of a social worker, Bhanwari Devi, in Rajasthan. The court recognized sexual harassment at the workplace as a violation of a woman's fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution.

Background:
Bhanwari Devi, a social worker, was gang-raped by upper-caste men in 1992 when she tried to stop a child marriage. The incident brought attention to the issue of sexual harassment at the workplace, particularly in rural areas. Bhanwari Devi filed a case against her attackers, but the trial court acquitted them due to lack of evidence, leading to widespread protests.

Key Points of the Judgment:
1. Definition of Sexual Harassment: The Supreme Court defined sexual harassment broadly, stating that it includes any unwelcome sexually determined behavior, such as physical contact and advances, demand or request for sexual favors, sexually colored remarks, or any other conduct of a sexual nature that interferes with a woman's work or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.

2. Employer's Duty: The court held that it is the duty of the employer or other responsible persons in the workplace to prevent or deter the commission of acts of sexual harassment. They must also provide a mechanism for redressal of complaints and set up an appropriate complaint committee.

3. Complaint Committee: The court directed all workplaces to set up a complaint committee to receive and investigate complaints of sexual harassment. The committee should be headed by a woman and consist of at least half of its members as women. The committee should also include a member from a women's organization.

4. Guidelines for the Committee: The court provided detailed guidelines for the functioning of the complaint committee. It should provide a fair and impartial inquiry, maintain confidentiality, and complete the inquiry within a time frame of 90 days. The committee's recommendations should be implemented by the employer.

Impact and Significance:
The Vishakha judgment laid down the foundation for addressing sexual harassment at the workplace in India. It provided a clear definition of sexual harassment and established the employer's responsibility to prevent and address such incidents. The judgment also highlighted the importance of setting up complaint committees and provided guidelines for their functioning.

The guidelines laid down in the Vishakha case served as the basis for the enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013. This legislation further strengthened the legal framework for addressing sexual harassment at the workplace and provided more comprehensive protections for women.

Overall, the Vishakha case was a significant step towards ensuring a safe and harassment-free work environment for women in India. It recognized the rights of women and established guidelines to prevent and address incidents of sexual harassment, setting a precedent for future cases and legislation in this area.

Explanation:

District Magistrate's Role:
- The Sarfaesi Act amendment bill 2016 requires the District Magistrate to assist in the recovery process of the secured creditors.
- The District Magistrate plays a crucial role in expediting the recovery process and ensuring that it is completed efficiently.

Time Limit:
- According to the amendment bill, the District Magistrate is required to assist in the recovery process and complete the process within 30 days.
- This time limit is set to ensure that the recovery process is completed in a timely manner and to provide a clear timeline for the creditors to work within.

Importance of Timely Recovery:
- Timely recovery of assets is essential for secured creditors to mitigate their losses and maintain the stability of the financial system.
- Setting a specific time limit for the completion of the recovery process helps in streamlining the process and ensuring that it is done promptly.

Conclusion:
- The Sarfaesi Act amendment bill 2016 mandates that the District Magistrate has to assist in the recovery process of the secured creditors and complete the process within 30 days. This provision aims to expedite the recovery process and ensure that it is done efficiently for the benefit of all parties involved.

RBI, which stands for Reserve Bank of India, has allowed banks to merge, shift, or close branches in urban areas. Let us understand the reasoning behind this decision:

RBI's Approval:
RBI is the central banking institution of India and is responsible for regulating and supervising the country's banking system. It has the authority to make decisions regarding various aspects of banking operations, including branch expansion, mergers, and closures.

Branch Expansion:
Banks often need to expand their branch network to reach a wider customer base and provide banking services to various regions. This expansion is particularly crucial in urban areas, which are densely populated and have a higher concentration of potential customers.

Mergers and Acquisitions:
Sometimes, banks may decide to merge with or acquire other banks to enhance their market presence, increase their customer base, or achieve operational synergies. Such mergers and acquisitions can lead to the consolidation of branches, eliminating redundancies and optimizing the branch network.

Branch Shifting:
Banks may also need to relocate branches to better serve their customers or align with changing market dynamics. For example, if a particular area is experiencing rapid urbanization or demographic shifts, it may be beneficial for a bank to shift its branch to a more strategic location within that urban area.

Branch Closures:
In certain cases, banks may need to close branches due to various reasons such as low footfall, declining customer demand, or cost rationalization. Closing unprofitable branches allows banks to allocate their resources more efficiently and focus on more viable locations.

RBI's Decision:
The RBI's decision to allow banks to merge, shift, or close branches in urban areas reflects its recognition of the need for banks to adapt to changing market conditions and optimize their operations. By granting this approval, the RBI enables banks to make strategic decisions that align with their business objectives and improve their overall efficiency and profitability.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the RBI's decision to allow banks to merge, shift, or close branches in urban areas is a significant step towards enhancing the effectiveness and competitiveness of the banking sector. This decision empowers banks to make informed decisions about their branch network, ensuring that they can adapt to the evolving needs of customers and the market.

The correct answer is option 'D', which states that all of the above banks, namely State Bank of India, Oriental Bank of Commerce, and Bank of India, have entered the capital market in the wake of Narasimham Committee recommendations.

The Narasimham Committee was set up in 1991 by the Government of India to examine and suggest measures for the reform and restructuring of the Indian banking system. The committee was headed by M. Narasimham, a former governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

The committee made several recommendations to improve the functioning and efficiency of banks, including the entry of banks into the capital market. This recommendation was aimed at increasing the transparency and accountability of banks, as well as to enhance their access to capital for growth and expansion.

State Bank of India (SBI), the largest public sector bank in India, entered the capital market in 1993. It issued shares to the public through an initial public offering (IPO), thereby raising capital from the market. This move allowed SBI to strengthen its capital base and improve its ability to meet regulatory requirements and support its lending activities.

Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC), another public sector bank in India, also entered the capital market in 1997. It raised capital through an IPO, which helped the bank to enhance its capital adequacy, expand its operations, and support its lending activities.

Bank of India (BOI), a public sector bank, also followed the Narasimham Committee recommendations and entered the capital market. It raised capital through an IPO in 1997, which enabled the bank to strengthen its capital base and enhance its lending capacity.

In summary, all of the above-mentioned banks, State Bank of India, Oriental Bank of Commerce, and Bank of India, entered the capital market in the wake of Narasimham Committee recommendations. This move allowed these banks to strengthen their capital base, improve their ability to meet regulatory requirements, and support their lending activities.