All questions of CBT II for Computer Science Engineering (CSE) Exam

Arrange in descending order the units of memory TB, KB, GB, MB.
  • a)
    TB > MB > GB > KB
  • b)
    MB > GB > TB > KB
  • c)
    TB > GB > MB > KB
  • d)
    GB > MB > KB > TB
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
Computers do all calculations using a code made of just two numbers; 0 and 1. This system is called binary code.
Unit of Memory Abbreviation Exact Memory Amount
Binary Digit Bit, b 1 or 0
Byte B 8 bits
Kilobyte KB or K 1024 bytes
Megabyte MB 1024 KB
Gigabyte GB 1024 MB
Terabyte TB 1024 GB

Which is not the component of the information system.
  • a)
    hardware
  • b)
    software
  • c)
    people
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
  • An information system has five key components hardware, software, data, processes, and people.
  • Hardware consists of everything in the physical layer of the information system. For example, hardware can include servers, workstations, networks etc.
  • Software refers to the programs that control the hardware and produce the desired information or results. Software consists of system software and application software.
  • People who have an interest in an information system are called stakeholders. Stakeholders include the management group responsible for the system.

The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called:
  • a)
    attenuation
  • b)
    prorogation
  • c)
    scattering
  • d)
    interruption
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
Attenuation is the reduction in power of the light signal as it is transmitted. It is caused by passive media components such as cable, and connectors.

A distributed network configuration in which all data information pass through a central computer is________.
  • a)
    Bus Network
  • b)
    Ring Network
  • c)
    Star Network
  • d)
    Font to Point Network
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
Star networks are one of the most common computer network topologies. In its simplest form, a star network consists of one central hub which acts as a conduit to transmit messages.

Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation?
  • a)
    First Generation
  • b)
    Second Generation
  • c)
    Third Generation
  • d)
    Fifth Generation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
Artificial intelligence (AI) is an area of computer science that emphasizes the creation of intelligent machines that work and react like humans. Fifth generation computers are in a developmental stage which is based on artificial intelligence.

Who can read and modify the message sent from the authenticated user?
  • a)
    active intruder
  • b)
    passive intruder
  • c)
    active intruder as well as passive intruder
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
  • Assume intruder, hears and accurately copies down the complete ciphertext
  • However, unlike the intended recipient, he does not know what the decryption key is and so cannot decrypt the ciphertext easily
  • If the intruder can only listen to the communication channel and cannot modify the message, then such an intruder is passive intruder
  • If the intruder can listen to the communication channel also record messages and play them back later, inject his own messages, or modify legitimate messages before they get to the receiver then such an intruder is active intruder
  • Therefore, active intruder as well as passive intruder can read the message, but only active intruder can modify it

Which among the following is a non-conventional energy source?
  • a)
    Coal
  • b)
    Petroleum
  • c)
    Wind Energy
  • d)
    Natural Gas
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
Energy produced by organic matter is called biomass energy. Different forms of biomass include wood, crop residues, cattle dung, etc, which are renewable or non-conventional energy sources.
Other Non-conventional energy sources are Wind energy, Solar energy, Bio Energy, Tidal Energy, etc.
Non-renewable or conventional energy sources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas take a lot of time to get replenished on Earth.

In which type of SQL join returns all the rows from left table combine with the matching rows of the right table
  • a)
    Inner join
  • b)
    Left outer join
  • c)
    Right outer join
  • d)
    Full join
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Sharma answered
Left Outer Join
The left outer join is a type of SQL join that combines all the rows from the left table with the matching rows from the right table. It returns all the rows from the left table and the matching rows from the right table. If there are no matches found in the right table, NULL values are returned for the columns of the right table.

Explanation:
To understand the left outer join, let's consider two tables: "Customers" and "Orders".

Customers Table:
| CustomerID | CustomerName |
|------------|--------------|
| 1 | John |
| 2 | Mary |
| 3 | David |

Orders Table:
| OrderID | CustomerID | OrderDate |
|---------|------------|------------|
| 1 | 1 | 2021-01-01 |
| 2 | 2 | 2021-02-01 |
| 3 | 2 | 2021-03-01 |
| 4 | 4 | 2021-04-01 |

If we perform a left outer join on the "Customers" table with the "Orders" table using the "CustomerID" column, the result will be as follows:

| CustomerID | CustomerName | OrderID | OrderDate |
|------------|--------------|---------|------------|
| 1 | John | 1 | 2021-01-01 |
| 2 | Mary | 2 | 2021-02-01 |
| 2 | Mary | 3 | 2021-03-01 |
| 3 | David | NULL | NULL |

Key Points:
- The left outer join returns all the rows from the left table (Customers) and the matching rows from the right table (Orders).
- In this example, the rows with CustomerID 1, 2, and 3 exist in both tables, so they are included in the result.
- The row with CustomerID 4 exists only in the Orders table, so it is not included in the result of the left outer join.
- When there is no match found in the right table, NULL values are returned for the columns of the right table (OrderID and OrderDate in this case).

Conclusion:
The left outer join is used to fetch all the rows from the left table combined with the matching rows from the right table. It is useful when you want to retrieve records from the left table even if there are no matches found in the right table.

The IP address 1.225.225. 10 belongs to ________ class.
  • a)
    A
  • b)
    B
  • c)
    C
  • d)
    D
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mita Mehta answered
Address range for class A is 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255 IP address 1.255.255.10 to belong to class A network.

Which of the following are components of the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
  • a)
    Arithmetic logic unit and Mouse
  • b)
    Arithmetic logic unit and Control unit
  • c)
    Arithmetic logic unit and Integrated Circuits
  • d)
    Control Unit and Monitor
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mita Mehta answered
There are three basic units of a computer system:
  • Input Unit: Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Light pen, Trackball, etc.
  • Central Processing Unit
  • Output Unit: Monitor and Printer
Central Processing Unit (CPU): It is the most important unit, where all the processing jobs take place. The CPU is the control centre of the computer and hence it is said to be the brain of the computer. CPU has three main components:
  • Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): It performs all the arithmetic operations like addition (+), multiplication (*), subtraction (-), division (/) on the numerical data directed by the control unit. All the logical operations, like less than (<), greater="" than="" (="">), equal to (=), not equal to (≠) etc. are also carried out by ALU.
  • Control Unit (CU): It controls and coordinates all the operations taking place in the system. It controls the flow of data and information from one unit to the other.
  • Registers/Memory Unit (MU): To execute a program, data and instructions need to be stored temporarily. This storage is done in the MU. The data and instructions are retrieved from MU by the Control Unit for supplying to ALU as when required by the program.

Which network topology is highly reliable?
  • a)
    Bus topology
  • b)
    Star topology
  • c)
    Ring topology
  • d)
    Mesh topology
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Menon answered
Mesh Topology: The Highly Reliable Network Topology

Introduction:
When it comes to network reliability, the mesh topology stands out as the most robust and dependable option. This topology connects each device in the network to every other device, creating multiple paths for data transmission. In this response, we will explore why the mesh topology is highly reliable compared to other network topologies.

Advantages of Mesh Topology:

1. Fault Tolerance:
- In a mesh topology, each device is interconnected with multiple links, ensuring redundancy and fault tolerance.
- If one link or device fails, the network can still function because data can be rerouted through alternative paths.
- This redundancy significantly improves network reliability and minimizes the chances of complete network failure.

2. High Reliability:
- With multiple paths available for data transmission, a mesh topology provides high reliability and uptime.
- If one link becomes congested or experiences issues, data can be sent through other available paths.
- This ensures that the network remains operational even during peak usage or when specific links encounter problems.

3. Scalability:
- Mesh topologies are highly scalable as new devices can be easily added without affecting the overall network performance.
- Each new device can be connected to multiple existing devices, spreading the load and ensuring efficient data transmission.
- This flexibility allows the network to grow seamlessly, accommodating additional devices and users as needed.

4. Privacy and Security:
- Mesh topologies offer enhanced privacy and security compared to other topologies.
- Since data travels through dedicated connections between devices, it is less susceptible to interception or unauthorized access.
- This makes mesh networks suitable for sensitive applications where data security is crucial.

5. Easy Troubleshooting:
- In a mesh topology, isolating and troubleshooting network issues is relatively straightforward.
- If a particular link or device fails, it can be easily identified and replaced without disrupting the entire network.
- This ease of troubleshooting reduces downtime and simplifies maintenance tasks.

Conclusion:
In summary, the mesh topology is highly reliable due to its fault tolerance, high reliability, scalability, privacy and security features, and ease of troubleshooting. It provides a robust network infrastructure that can handle failures, congestion, and expansion efficiently. For these reasons, the mesh topology is the most reliable network topology compared to the bus, star, and ring topologies.

Shadow paging provides which of the following transaction property in DBMS?
  • a)
    Atomicity
  • b)
    Consistency
  • c)
    Durability
  • d)
    Both (a) and (c)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Raj Chauhan answered
Shadow Paging in DBMS

Shadow paging is a technique used in database management systems (DBMS) to provide certain transaction properties. It is particularly used for maintaining data consistency and atomicity during transaction processing.

Transaction Properties:
- Atomicity: Atomicity ensures that a transaction is treated as a single, indivisible unit of work. It means that either all the operations within a transaction are executed successfully or none of them are executed at all. If a transaction fails or is interrupted, all the changes made by the transaction are rolled back, leaving the database in its original state.

- Consistency: Consistency ensures that a transaction brings the database from one valid state to another. It means that the execution of a transaction should not violate any integrity constraints or rules defined on the database. Consistency ensures that the database remains in a consistent state throughout the transaction process.

- Durability: Durability ensures that once a transaction is committed, its changes are permanent and will survive any subsequent system failures. The changes made by a committed transaction are written to permanent storage, ensuring that they are not lost due to system crashes or power failures.

Shadow Paging and Transaction Properties:
Shadow paging is primarily used to provide atomicity and durability in DBMS. Here's how it achieves these transaction properties:

- Atomicity:
- Shadow paging maintains two copies of the database: the current database and a shadow database.
- During a transaction, all the updates are performed on the shadow database, while the current database remains unchanged.
- If the transaction is successful, the changes in the shadow database are merged with the current database in a single atomic operation called "swapping".
- If the transaction fails or is interrupted, the shadow database is discarded, and the current database remains unchanged.
- This ensures that either all the changes in a transaction are applied to the current database or none of them are applied, providing atomicity.

- Durability:
- Shadow paging maintains a log or a page map that keeps track of the changes made to the shadow database during a transaction.
- After a transaction is committed, the log or page map is updated to reflect the changes made in the shadow database.
- This log or page map is stored in a stable storage, which ensures that it survives system failures.
- In case of a system failure, the log or page map is used to recover the database and bring it back to a consistent state, ensuring durability.

Therefore, shadow paging provides both atomicity and durability in DBMS, making it a suitable technique for maintaining transaction properties.

Which grep option prints the matches either with uppercase or lowercase pattern?
  • a)
    -l
  • b)
    -i
  • c)
    -n
  • d)
    -v
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Manoj Unni answered
The Correct Option

The correct option is 'B' (-i).

Explanation

The '-i' option in the grep command stands for "ignore case". When this option is used, grep will match patterns regardless of whether they are in uppercase or lowercase.

For example, let's say we have a file called "example.txt" with the following content:

```
This is an Example
of how the grep command
works with the -i option.
```

If we run the following grep command:

```
grep -i "example" example.txt
```

The output will be:

```
This is an Example
of how the grep command
works with the -i option.
```

As you can see, grep has matched the pattern "example" regardless of the case of the letters in the file.

Other Options

Let's briefly explain the other options mentioned in the question:

- Option 'A' (-l): This option is used to print only the names of files that contain a match, rather than the actual matching lines.

- Option 'C' (-n): This option is used to print the line numbers of the matching lines along with the lines themselves.

- Option 'D' (-v): This option is used to invert the match, i.e., to print lines that do not match the given pattern.

In this particular question, option 'B' (-i) is the correct answer as it matches patterns regardless of the case of the letters.

________ testing is done to assure that software will not fail.
  • a)
    Quality assurance test
  • b)
    Interface test
  • c)
    Integration test
  • d)
    Volume test
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrita Shah answered
Quality Assurance Test:
Quality assurance testing is a crucial part of the software development life cycle (SDLC). It is performed to ensure that the software meets the required quality standards and will not fail when deployed in a production environment. This type of testing involves various techniques and processes to identify defects and verify that the software functions as intended.

Definition:
Quality assurance testing, also known as QA testing or software quality testing, is the process of evaluating the software's functionality, performance, and reliability to ensure that it meets the specified requirements and delivers a high-quality user experience.

Purpose:
The primary purpose of quality assurance testing is to identify defects, bugs, and other issues in the software before it is released to end-users. By conducting thorough and comprehensive tests, QA teams can ensure that the software is stable, reliable, and performs as expected in different scenarios.

Types of Quality Assurance Testing:
1. Functional Testing: This type of testing verifies that the software functions correctly and performs its intended tasks accurately. It focuses on validating individual features and their interactions within the system.

2. Performance Testing: Performance testing is conducted to evaluate the software's responsiveness, scalability, and stability under various workloads and stress conditions. It ensures that the software can handle a large number of users or transactions without performance degradation.

3. Security Testing: Security testing is performed to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the software's security mechanisms. It aims to protect the software from unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security threats.

4. Usability Testing: Usability testing assesses the software's user-friendliness and intuitiveness. It examines how easily users can navigate through the system, accomplish tasks, and understand its features and functionalities.

5. Compatibility Testing: Compatibility testing checks the software's compatibility with different platforms, devices, browsers, and operating systems. It ensures that the software works seamlessly across various environments.

6. Regression Testing: Regression testing is conducted to validate that recent changes or modifications in the software do not introduce new defects or break existing functionalities. It helps ensure that the software remains stable and performs as expected after updates or enhancements.

Conclusion:
Quality assurance testing plays a vital role in software development by ensuring that the software meets the required quality standards and does not fail when deployed. It encompasses various testing techniques and processes like functional testing, performance testing, security testing, usability testing, compatibility testing, and regression testing. Through rigorous testing, QA teams can identify and resolve defects, thus delivering a high-quality software product to end-users.

A second normal form does not permit…………. dependency between a non-prime attribute and the relation key.
  • a)
    Partial
  • b)
    Multi
  • c)
    Functional
  • d)
    Valued
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Menon answered
A second normal form does not permit partial dependency between a non-prime attribute and the relation key.

Introduction:

The concept of normalization in database design helps in organizing data efficiently and eliminates data redundancy. Normalization is categorized into different normal forms, such as first normal form (1NF), second normal form (2NF), third normal form (3NF), and so on. Each normal form has certain rules and restrictions that need to be followed for achieving a well-structured and efficient database design.

Second Normal Form (2NF):

The second normal form (2NF) builds upon the rules of 1NF and introduces additional requirements for eliminating partial dependencies. In a relation to be in 2NF, it must meet the following conditions:
1. It should already be in 1NF.
2. It should not have any partial dependencies.

Partial Dependency:

Partial dependency refers to a situation in which a non-prime attribute depends on only a part of the primary key, rather than the entire key. In other words, a non-prime attribute is functionally dependent on a subset of the primary key attributes.

Explanation:

In the context of the given question, a second normal form (2NF) does not permit partial dependency between a non-prime attribute and the relation key. This means that a non-prime attribute cannot be functionally dependent on only a part of the primary key.

For example, consider a relation called "Employees" with attributes like Employee_ID (primary key), Employee_Name, and Department. Let's assume that the primary key is Employee_ID. Now, if the Department attribute is functionally dependent on only a subset of the primary key, such as the first two digits of the Employee_ID (which represents the department code), it would violate the 2NF.

To comply with the 2NF, the attribute Department must be functionally dependent on the entire primary key, i.e., the Employee_ID. This means that the Department attribute should be determined by the Employee_ID alone, not by a subset of it.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the second normal form (2NF) does not permit partial dependency between a non-prime attribute and the relation key. This restriction ensures that the database design is free from redundancy and anomalies, leading to better data integrity and efficiency.

Consider an array with 6 elements starting with index 0 given below
20, 10, 9, 40, 21, 19
Find the element at index 5 after 1st iteration if bubble sort is applied on a given set of data?
  • a)
    19
  • b)
    20
  • c)
    21
  • d)
    40
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
Bubble sort, sometimes referred to as sinking sort, is a simple sorting algorithm that repeatedly steps through the list, compares adjacent pairs and swaps them if they are in the wrong order. The pass through the list is repeated until the list is sorted.
In 1st iteration:
STEPS
20 > 10 then swap
Array: 10, 20, 9, 40, 21, 19
20 > 9 then swap
Array: 10, 9, 20, 40, 21, 19
20 < 40="" no="" />
Array: 10, 9, 20, 40, 21, 19
40 > 21 then swap
Array: 10, 9, 20, 21, 40, 19
40 > 19 then swap
Array: 10, 9, 20, 21, 19, 40
At 5th index, element 40 is present

Which system privilege a user must have to create a function in their own schema or in another user’s schema or to replace a function in another user’s schema?
  • a)
    CREATE PROCEDURE
  • b)
    CREATE ANY PROCEDURE
  • c)
    ALTER ANY PROCEDURE
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
  • To create a function in user schema, user must have the CREATE PROCEDURE system privilege
  • To create a function in another user's schema, user must have the CREATE ANY PROCEDURE system privilege
  • To replace a function in another user's schema, user must have the ALTER ANY PROCEDURE system privilege

Which of the following communication devices combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line?
  • a)
    Concentrator
  • b)
    Modifier
  • c)
    Multiplexer
  • d)
    Full-duplex line
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
Multiplexer (MUX) is a device that selects one of several analog or digital input signals and forwards the selected input into a single line. So, MUX multiplexes input signals into an aggregate signal (common channel) for transmission.

Which of the following statements is true?
The velocity of sound is:
  • a)
    less in summer than in winter
  • b)
    same in winter and summer
  • c)
    independent of seasons
  • d)
    more in summer than in winter
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
  • The velocity of sound is more in summer than in winter because the sun evaporates more water from the surface and as a result, the moisture in the atmosphere is more which makes the air to travel faster.
  • Speed of sound is lower when density is higher.
  • Sound waves are generated by causing pressure differences.
  • It's high when pressure is high. Density over pressure gives temperature. Therefore, sound travels faster in summers.

Which command is used to record a session in linux?
  • a)
    rec
  • b)
    session
  • c)
    script
  • d)
    print
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct command to record a session in Linux is the "script" command.

Explanation:
The "script" command is used to record a session in Linux. It creates a typescript file that records all the input and output of the session. This can be useful for various purposes, such as documenting a troubleshooting session or reviewing a training session.

Usage:
To start recording a session, simply open a terminal and type the "script" command followed by the name of the output file. For example:
```
script session.log
```
This will start recording the session and save the output in the "session.log" file.

Recording Session:
Once the "script" command is executed, it starts recording everything that is being displayed on the terminal. This includes all the commands entered, their output, and any error messages. The recording continues until the user exits the terminal session.

Exiting Session:
To stop recording the session, simply type the "exit" command or press Ctrl+D. This will terminate the session and save the recorded output to the specified file.

Viewing Recorded Session:
To view the recorded session, open the output file in a text editor or use the "cat" command. For example:
```
cat session.log
```
This will display the contents of the recorded session on the terminal.

Benefits of Using "script" Command:
- It provides a detailed record of all the commands and their output during a session.
- It can be used for troubleshooting purposes to review what actions were taken.
- It can be used for training purposes to document a training session.
- It can be used as a reference to recreate a specific session in the future.

Overall, the "script" command is a useful tool in Linux for recording sessions and keeping a detailed record of all the input and output during a session.

Which margin helps users to format margins for back-to-back printing?
  • a)
    top
  • b)
    bottom
  • c)
    gutter
  • d)
    mirror
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Back-to-Back Printing and Mirror Margin
To format margins for back-to-back printing, the mirror margin setting is crucial. This setting helps ensure that the content on the front and back of each page lines up correctly when printed consecutively.

Mirror Margin Functionality
- The mirror margin setting creates a symmetrical layout where the margins of the left page mirror those of the right page.
- This setting is particularly useful for double-sided printing, as it helps maintain consistency in the spacing and alignment of content on both sides of the page.
- By using mirror margins, users can avoid issues such as uneven borders or misaligned text when printing on both sides of a sheet.

Setting Up Mirror Margins
- In most word processing software, users can access the mirror margin setting through the page layout or print settings.
- Users can specify the width of the mirror margins to ensure that the content is positioned correctly on each page.
- It is essential to adjust the mirror margins according to the printer and paper settings to achieve the desired layout for back-to-back printing.

Benefits of Mirror Margins
- Mirror margins help improve the overall appearance and readability of printed documents.
- They ensure that the content is correctly positioned on each page, enhancing the professional look of the final output.
- By using mirror margins, users can streamline the printing process for double-sided documents and avoid errors that may occur with manual adjustments.
In conclusion, when formatting margins for back-to-back printing, the mirror margin setting plays a crucial role in ensuring consistent alignment and spacing on both sides of the page. By utilizing mirror margins effectively, users can achieve professional-looking printed materials with ease.

Which of the following instructions perform operations on data?
  • a)
    Arithmetic instructions
  • b)
    Logical instructions
  • c)
    Shift instructions
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashwin Das answered


Arithmetic instructions
Arithmetic instructions are used to perform basic arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on data. These instructions manipulate numeric data to perform calculations.

Logical instructions
Logical instructions are used to perform logical operations such as AND, OR, and NOT on data. These instructions are used to manipulate binary data and make decisions based on the outcome of logical operations.

Shift instructions
Shift instructions are used to shift the bits of a binary number to the left or right. These instructions are useful for moving data within registers or performing multiplication and division by powers of 2.

All of the above
All the mentioned types of instructions - arithmetic, logical, and shift instructions - are crucial for performing operations on data in a computer system. They help in manipulating and processing data to achieve desired outcomes. By using a combination of these instructions, complex computations and logical decisions can be made efficiently.

The process of determining whether a full developed software conforms to its requirements specification is called _________.
  • a)
    Validation
  • b)
    Verification
  • c)
    Authentication
  • d)
    Prediction
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prerna Dey answered
Validation is the process of determining whether a fully developed software conforms to its requirements specification. It is an important step in the software development life cycle (SDLC) that ensures the software meets the intended purpose and functions correctly. Verification, on the other hand, is the process of evaluating whether the software has been developed according to its design specifications. While both validation and verification are essential in software development, they serve different purposes.

Validation Process:
1. Understanding Requirements: The first step in the validation process is to thoroughly understand the requirements specification. This involves reviewing the documented requirements and clarifying any ambiguities or inconsistencies.

2. Planning Validation: Once the requirements are understood, a validation plan is created. The plan outlines the activities, resources, and schedule required to validate the software. It also defines the acceptance criteria that the software must meet to be considered validated.

3. Designing Test Cases: Test cases are designed to validate each requirement specified in the requirements document. These test cases outline the inputs, expected outputs, and steps to be followed during testing.

4. Executing Test Cases: The test cases are executed to verify whether the software meets the specified requirements. This involves running the software with different inputs and comparing the actual outputs with the expected outputs.

5. Analyzing Test Results: The test results are analyzed to identify any deviations or failures. If the software fails to meet the specified requirements, the issues are documented, and the development team works on resolving them.

6. Reporting and Documentation: A validation report is prepared to summarize the validation activities and results. It includes details of the test cases executed, any issues encountered, and their resolution. This report serves as evidence that the software has been validated and meets the requirements.

7. Acceptance and Sign-Off: Once the software successfully passes all the validation tests and meets the acceptance criteria, it is considered validated. The stakeholders review the validation report and provide their approval or sign-off, indicating that the software is ready for deployment.

Validation is a crucial step in software development as it ensures that the software meets the intended purpose, functions correctly, and satisfies the needs of the end users. By validating the software against the requirements specification, potential issues and deviations can be identified and resolved before the software is deployed, minimizing the risk of failures and ensuring customer satisfaction.

If the plaintext in Caesar cipher is “mumbai” then what will be its ciphertext?
  • a)
    PXPEDL
  • b)
    QXQEDL
  • c)
    QEQXDL
  • d)
    PEPXDL
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vedika Singh answered
  • In a substitution cipher each letter or group of letters is replaced by another letter or group of letters to disguise it
  • One of the oldest known ciphers is the Caesar cipher, attributed to Julius Caesar.
  • In this method, a becomes D, b becomes E, c becomes F, ... and z becomes C
  • Plaintext’s letter is shifted by 3 positions and ciphertext is in upper case ciphertext is PXPEDL

What are responsible for storing permanent data and instructions?
  • a)
    RAM chips
  • b)
    ROM chips
  • c)
    DRAM chips
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajeev Khanna answered
Overview:
Permanent data and instructions are stored in ROM (Read-Only Memory) chips. Unlike RAM (Random Access Memory) chips and DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) chips, ROM chips retain data even when the power is turned off. This makes them suitable for storing essential system instructions and other permanent data.

Explanation:
ROM chips are non-volatile memory devices that are responsible for storing permanent data and instructions. They are designed to retain data even when the power supply is disconnected, making them ideal for storing essential instructions that need to be available at all times.

Differences between RAM, DRAM, and ROM:
1. RAM (Random Access Memory):
- RAM is a type of volatile memory that stores data and instructions temporarily while the computer is running.
- It provides fast access to data, allowing the CPU to read and write information quickly.
- However, RAM requires a constant power supply to retain data. When the power is turned off, the data stored in RAM is lost.

2. DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory):
- DRAM is a type of RAM that stores data in capacitors within memory cells.
- It needs to be refreshed periodically to maintain the stored data, which requires additional circuitry.
- Similar to RAM, DRAM is volatile and loses its data when the power is turned off.

3. ROM (Read-Only Memory):
- ROM is a non-volatile memory that stores data and instructions permanently.
- It is manufactured with pre-programmed data and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations.
- ROM retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it suitable for storing critical instructions necessary for booting up the system and initializing hardware.

Conclusion:
In summary, ROM chips are responsible for storing permanent data and instructions. Unlike RAM and DRAM, ROM retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it ideal for storing essential system instructions and other permanent data.

Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called –
  • a)
    Metasearch engines
  • b)
    Web Crawlers
  • c)
    Spiders
  • d)
    Hits
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Kapoor answered
Metasearch Engines
Metasearch engines are programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously. They work by sending your query to multiple search engines and then compiling the results into a single list. Here are some key points about metasearch engines:

How They Work:
- Metasearch engines use algorithms to retrieve and display search results from multiple search engines at once.
- They save users time by eliminating the need to manually search each search engine separately.

Advantages of Metasearch Engines:
- They provide a more comprehensive list of search results by pulling information from multiple sources.
- Users can compare results from different search engines to get a broader perspective on their query.

Limitations:
- Metasearch engines may not provide as in-depth results as searching each search engine individually.
- There may be slight discrepancies in the results due to variations in search algorithms.

Examples of Metasearch Engines:
- Some popular metasearch engines include Dogpile, MetaCrawler, and WebCrawler.
- These platforms allow users to search multiple search engines, directories, and specialty search sites simultaneously.
In conclusion, metasearch engines are a convenient way to streamline the search process and quickly access information from multiple sources. By using these tools, users can efficiently gather a wide range of search results without having to visit each search engine individually.

1011 is BCD representation of:
  • a)
    11
  • b)
    9
  • c)
    10
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
BCD stands for binary coded decimal since only decimal numbers are represented; digits 0-9 are encoded in BCD format.
1010 to 1111 are not used for BCD representation of any digit since they do not represent any digit from 0 to 9 of the decimal number system.

Which of the following are the most commonly used HTTP methods?
  • a)
    PRE and POST
  • b)
    GET and SET
  • c)
    ASK and REPLY
  • d)
    GET and POST
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vedika Singh answered
Two most commonly used HTTP methods-
GET - Requests data from a specified resource
POST - Submits data to be processed to a specified resource

If the velocity of a body is doubled its momentum ________________.
  • a)
    remains same
  • b)
    doubles
  • c)
    becomes half
  • d)
    becomes 4 times
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
Momentum is directly proportional to velocity. If the momentum of an object is doubled, but its mass does not increase (so velocity remains well below the speed of light), then its velocity is doubled. Hence kinetic energy of the body will be 4 times to its earlierthe,”, earlier the value.

Which of the following components of Microsoft Windows provides the ability to view and change system settings?
  • a)
    Command prompt
  • b)
    Registry
  • c)
    Control Panel
  • d)
    File system
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mita Mehta answered
The control panel is a software module used to perform administrative and management operating system tasks and provides access to specific software features.
The control panel is used to configure and manage almost all aspects of Windows.

Which of the following is true about a thread in the operating system?
  • a)
    It is a light weight process where the context switching is low
  • b)
    It is a heavy weight process where the context switching is high
  • c)
    It is used to speed up paging
  • d)
    all of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
Threads are lightweight as they can interact without the need of inter-process communication. Switching between kernel threads of the same process requires a small context switch. Only the values of registers. Program counter and stack pointer are changed whereas memory management information doesn’t need to be changed since the threads share an address space. That is switching between threads is cheaper than switching between processes.

Which of the following is the capital cost in a nuclear power plant?
  • a)
    Cost of Labour
  • b)
    Cost of Operation
  • c)
    Cost of nuclear fuel
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vedika Singh answered
Nuclear fuel in a nuclear reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So the cost of fuel injected initially is taken as capital cost and maybe a few crore rupees.

Which of the following can be used to create a new data type name in the C programming language?
  • a)
    new
  • b)
    Structure
  • c)
    Union
  • d)
    typedef
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Typedef in C
In C programming, creating new data type names can enhance code readability and maintainability. Among the options provided, the correct answer is "typedef." Let's explore why.
What is Typedef?
- Definition: `typedef` is a keyword in C that allows you to create an alias for existing data types, making them easier to use and understand.
- Purpose: It is primarily used for defining more meaningful names for complex data types, especially structures and pointers.
Examples of Typedef Usage
- Struct Example:
c
typedef struct {
int x;
int y;
} Point;
In this case, `Point` becomes a new data type name for the structure, allowing you to declare variables of type `Point` easily.
- Pointer Example:
c
typedef int* IntPtr;
Here, `IntPtr` is a new type representing a pointer to an integer, simplifying code that deals with pointers.
Other Options Explained
- a) New: There is no keyword `new` in C; it is specific to C++ for dynamic memory allocation.
- b) Structure: While you can define a structure, it does not create a new data type name by itself unless used with `typedef`.
- c) Union: Similar to structures, unions can hold different data types but require `typedef` to create a new name.
Conclusion
Using `typedef` provides clarity and makes the codebase easier to manage. It is an essential tool for developers, especially when dealing with complex data structures.

Repeater works on which layer of OSI Model?
  • a)
    Application layer
  • b)
    Physical layer
  • c)
    Network layer
  • d)
    Data Link layer
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vedika Singh answered
A repeater operates at the physical layer. Its job is to regenerate the signal over the same network before the signal becomes too weak or corrupted so as to extend the length to which the signal can be transmitted over the same network. An important point to be noted about repeaters is that they do not amplify the signal. When the signal becomes weak, they copy the signal bit by bit and regenerate it at the original strength.

Which of the following is incorrect SQL?
  • a)
    Select max(marks) from student
  • b)
    Select sum(marks) from student
  • c)
    Select max(marks1, marks2) from student
  • d)
    Select sum(marks1, marks2) from student
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
Aggregate functions are functions that take a collection (a set or multiset) of values as input and return a single value.
The input to sum and avg must be a collection of numbers, but the other operators can operate on collections of non-numeric data types, such as strings.
Sum function cannot work on two columns.

Which is not the development phase of the classical waterfall model?
  • a)
    Requirements analysis and specification
  • b)
    Design
  • c)
    Coding and unit testing
  • d)
    Maintenance
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrita Shah answered
Explanation:

Waterfall Model:
The waterfall model is a sequential software development process in which progress flows steadily downwards, like a waterfall, through the phases of requirements analysis, design, coding, testing, and maintenance. Each phase must be completed before the next phase can begin.

Development Phases of the Waterfall Model:
1. Requirements Analysis and Specification: In this phase, the requirements for the software system are gathered and analyzed. The requirements are documented in detail, including functional and non-functional requirements, user expectations, and system constraints.

2. Design: In this phase, the system design is created based on the requirements. The design includes the overall architecture of the system, the database design, user interface design, and other design elements. The design phase serves as a blueprint for the development team.

3. Coding and Unit Testing: In this phase, the software is developed based on the design specifications. The code is written, compiled, and tested in small units called modules. Unit testing is performed to ensure that each module functions correctly and meets the requirements.

Not a Development Phase:
4. Maintenance: Maintenance is not a development phase of the classical waterfall model. It is a separate phase that comes after the development is complete. Maintenance involves making changes and enhancements to the software to fix bugs, improve performance, and add new features based on user feedback and evolving requirements.

Importance of Maintenance:
- Maintenance is crucial as software systems need to evolve and adapt to changing user needs and technological advancements.
- It ensures that the software remains usable, reliable, and secure over time.
- Maintenance also includes activities such as documentation updates, troubleshooting, and providing customer support.

Conclusion:
In the classical waterfall model, the development phases include requirements analysis and specification, design, and coding and unit testing. Maintenance is a separate phase that occurs after the development is complete.

What is the resistance (in Ω) of an electrical component if a current of 0.5 A passes through it on the application of 20 V of potential difference across it?
  • a)
    10
  • b)
    80
  • c)
    20
  • d)
    40
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Resistance
Resistance is a measure of how much a component opposes the flow of electric current. It is defined using Ohm's Law, which states:
Ohm's Law:
Voltage (V) = Current (I) × Resistance (R)
Where:
- V is the voltage in volts (V)
- I is the current in amperes (A)
- R is the resistance in ohms (Ω)
Given Values
- Potential Difference (V) = 20 V
- Current (I) = 0.5 A
Calculating Resistance
To find the resistance (R), we rearrange Ohm's Law:
R = V / I
Now we can substitute the values:
R = 20 V / 0.5 A
Performing the Calculation
- R = 20 / 0.5
- R = 40 Ω
Conclusion
The resistance of the electrical component is 40 ohms (Ω).
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D'. This demonstrates the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance in electrical circuits. Understanding this relationship is essential for analyzing and designing electrical systems.

Which of the following converts user-friendly names to IP addresses?
  • a)
    PING
  • b)
    Domain Name System
  • c)
    DHCP
  • d)
    TELNET
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Khanna answered
The domain name system (DNS) is the way that internet domain names are located and translated into internet protocol (IP) addresses. The domain name system maps the name people use to locate a website to the IP address that a computer uses to locate a website.

Interconnecting two or more computers in a single room is called ________.
  • a)
    LAN
  • b)
    WAN
  • c)
    MAN
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Basu answered
LAN (Local Area Network)

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that interconnects multiple computers and devices within a limited area, typically a single room, building, or campus. It allows the computers and devices to share resources, such as files, printers, and internet access, and enables communication between them.

Key Features of a LAN:
- Limited Area: LANs are designed to cover a small geographical area, such as a home, office, or school campus. They typically have a range of a few hundred meters to a few kilometers.
- High Bandwidth: LANs provide high data transfer rates, allowing for fast communication between devices.
- Private Ownership: LANs are usually privately owned and operated by an organization or an individual.
- Cost-Effective: Setting up a LAN is relatively inexpensive compared to other types of networks.
- Easy to Set Up: LANs can be easily set up using Ethernet cables, wireless connections, or a combination of both.
- Security: LANs offer better security and control over data compared to wide area networks (WANs) as they are confined to a limited area.

Advantages of LAN:
- Resource Sharing: LANs allow users to share resources, such as printers, scanners, and storage devices, reducing costs and improving efficiency.
- File Sharing: Users connected to a LAN can easily share files and documents, enabling collaboration and improving productivity.
- Centralized Management: LANs enable centralized management of network resources, making it easier to monitor and control access to data and devices.
- Faster Communication: LANs provide high-speed communication, allowing for quick data transfer and real-time collaboration.
- Enhanced Security: LANs offer better security measures, including firewalls, access controls, and encryption, to protect sensitive information.

In conclusion, interconnecting two or more computers in a single room is referred to as a Local Area Network (LAN). LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, and educational institutions to facilitate resource sharing, communication, and collaboration among connected devices.

Where does Bridge operate in the OSI model?
  • a)
    Physical layer
  • b)
    Data link layer
  • c)
    Both (a) and (b)
  • d)
    Application layer
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mita Mehta answered
Switches, Bridges, wireless access points are found in the data link layer. Bridges can distinguish between local & remote data. They are protocol independent.

When a hydrocarbon is burnt it gives yellow flames with black smoke. Which of the following is true regarding hydrocarbon:
  • a)
    Hydrocarbon is saturated
  • b)
    Hydrocarbon is unsaturated
  • c)
    Hydrocarbon is an alcohol
  • d)
    Hydrocarbon is an aldehyde
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Sharma answered
Concept:
Saturated Hydrocarbon:
Compounds of carbon, which are linked by only single bonds between the carbon atoms, are called saturated compounds.
Unsaturated Hydrocarbon:
Compounds of carbon having double or triple bonds between their carbon atoms are called unsaturated compounds.
Application:
Saturated hydrocarbons give a clean flame while unsaturated carbon compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke.

In digital signatures the private key is used for __________ and the public key for___.
  • a)
    Encryption, decryption
  • b)
    Decryption, encryption
  • c)
    Plaintext, ciphertext
  • d)
    Ciphertext, plaintext
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Private Key and Public Key in Digital Signatures
Private key is used for encryption:
- In digital signatures, the private key is used for encryption. The sender uses their private key to encrypt the message before sending it.
- The private key ensures that only the intended recipient, who possesses the corresponding public key, can decrypt and read the message.
Public key is used for decryption:
- On the other hand, the public key is used for decryption. The recipient uses their public key to decrypt the message that was encrypted with the sender's private key.
- This ensures that the message remains secure during transmission and can only be read by the intended recipient.
In summary, the private key is used for encryption to secure the message, while the public key is used for decryption to ensure only the intended recipient can read the message.

Which of the following are non-impact printers?
  • a)
    Drum printer
  • b)
    Chain printer
  • c)
    Laser Printer
  • d)
    1 and 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mita Mehta answered
  • Non-impact printers print the characters without using ribbons, These printers print a complete page at a time so they are also called page printers. E.g. Ink-Jet printer, Laser printer
  • The impact printers print the characters by striking them on the ribbon which is then pressed on the paper, E.g. Drum printer, chain printer, Dot matrix printer

Which of the following is used to compile, debug and execute java program?
  • a)
    JDK
  • b)
    JIT
  • c)
    JVM
  • d)
    JRE
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Diya Reddy answered
Understanding Java Development Tools
When working with Java, various tools and components play specific roles in the software development process. Among them, the Java Development Kit (JDK) is essential for compiling, debugging, and executing Java programs.
What is JDK?
- The Java Development Kit (JDK) is a comprehensive package that provides all the necessary tools to develop Java applications.
- It includes:
- Java Compiler (javac): Converts Java source code into bytecode.
- Java Debugger (jdb): Helps identify and fix bugs in your Java programs.
- Java Runtime Environment (JRE): Allows the execution of Java programs.
Roles of Other Components
- Java Virtual Machine (JVM):
- Executes the bytecode generated by the JDK.
- Provides an environment for running Java applications but does not compile or debug them.
- Java Runtime Environment (JRE):
- Contains the JVM and libraries required to run Java applications.
- Does not include development tools like the compiler or debugger, making it insufficient for development purposes.
- Just-In-Time Compiler (JIT):
- A part of the JVM that improves performance by compiling bytecode to native code during execution.
- JIT is not involved in the initial compilation or debugging process.
Conclusion
In summary, the JDK is the only option that encompasses all necessary tools for compiling, debugging, and executing Java programs. Without the JDK, developers would lack the essential functionalities required for effective Java programming.

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