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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
i. The Union List comprises 100 subjects that are exclusively under the jurisdiction of the central government.
ii. The State List initially contained 66 subjects but currently has 61 subjects assigned to the state governments.
iii. Both the central and state governments can legislate on subjects in the Concurrent List, but if there is a conflict, the state law takes precedence.
iv. Residual subjects, which are not specified in any list, are assigned to the central government.
  • a)
    i, ii, and iv
  • b)
    ii and iii
  • c)
    i and iii
  • d)
    i and iv
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prashanth Das answered
Overview of the Statements
Let's analyze each statement regarding the distribution of powers between the central and state governments in India.
Statement i: Union List
- The Union List indeed comprises 100 subjects.
- These subjects are exclusively under the jurisdiction of the central government, which means only the central government can legislate on these matters.
Statement ii: State List
- The State List originally contained 66 subjects, but it currently has 61 subjects.
- This reduction occurred due to the transfer of some subjects to the Concurrent List or the Union List over time.
Statement iii: Concurrent List
- Both central and state governments can legislate on subjects in the Concurrent List.
- However, if there is a conflict between central and state laws on these subjects, the central law takes precedence, not the state law, as stated in the Constitution.
Statement iv: Residual Subjects
- Residual subjects are those not specified in any of the lists (Union, State, or Concurrent).
- These subjects are assigned to the central government, as per Article 248 of the Constitution.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement i is correct.
- Statement ii is correct.
- Statement iii is incorrect (the central law takes precedence).
- Statement iv is correct.
Therefore, the correct option is a) i, ii, and iv.

Assertion (A): Federalism allows for the coexistence of multiple levels of government, each with its own powers and responsibilities.
Reason (R): Federal systems are designed to prevent conflict by having a single judiciary that resolves disputes between the central and state governments.
  • a)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • b)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
  • c)
    If Assertion is true but Reason is false
  • d)
    If both Assertion and Reason are false
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Crafty Classes answered
 
- Assertion: The assertion is true because federalism indeed allows for multiple levels of government (such as central and state governments) to exist, each with distinct powers and responsibilities as outlined in a constitution.
- Reason: The reason is also true, as independent judiciaries play a crucial role in resolving conflicts between central and state governments.
- Explanation: However, while the Reason is true, it does not explain the Assertion adequately; the existence of multiple levels of government in federalism is not solely to prevent conflict through a judiciary. Thus, the correct answer is Option B.
 

Assertion (A): Jawaharlal Nehru's leadership was pivotal in establishing the framework of Indian federalism during the 1950s.
Reason (R): The dominance of the Congress party at both the central and state levels created a stable political environment conducive to federalism.
  • a)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • b)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
  • c)
    If Assertion is true but Reason is false
  • d)
    If both Assertion and Reason are false
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Assertion and Reason
The assertion states that Jawaharlal Nehru's leadership played a critical role in shaping the framework of Indian federalism during the 1950s. The reason provided highlights that the Congress party's dominance at both the central and state levels contributed to a stable political environment favorable for federalism.
True Nature of the Assertion
- Nehru's Leadership: As the first Prime Minister of India, Nehru was instrumental in defining the political landscape of post-independence India.
- Establishment of Federalism: Nehru emphasized a federal structure that balanced power between the central and state governments. His policies and constitutional frameworks laid the groundwork for a cooperative federalism.
True Nature of the Reason
- Congress Party Dominance: In the 1950s, the Congress party had a significant presence across the country, which fostered a sense of unity and stability.
- Political Environment: This dominance allowed for smoother implementation of federal policies since there were fewer political factions competing for power.
Conclusion: Connection Between Assertion and Reason
- Correct Explanation: The reason is directly related to the assertion. The dominance of the Congress party under Nehru facilitated the establishment of a stable federal framework.
- Causal Relationship: The stability provided by the Congress party indeed allowed Nehru to implement his vision of federalism effectively.
Thus, both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason serves as the correct explanation for the assertion. This makes option 'A' the correct answer.

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
  • a)
    National emergency.
  • b)
    State emergency.
  • c)
    Financial emergency.
  • d)
    Armed conflict.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jayant answered
In Article 356,
"Proclamation of emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery in a state" is suggested. In such situation president rule is imposed on a state and the Legislative Assembly of that state is dissolved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
i. The Indian Constitution establishes a powerful central government to address national issues like poverty and illiteracy.
ii. The central government has no authority to alter the boundaries or names of states.
iii. During emergencies, the central government can legislate on subjects that fall under state jurisdiction.
iv. The Governor has the authority to dissolve the state assembly without the central government's consent.
  • a)
    i and iii
  • b)
    ii and iv
  • c)
    i, iii, and iv
  • d)
    i, ii, and iii
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Correct Statements
The statements regarding the Indian Constitution can be analyzed as follows:
Statement i: Central Government's Power
- The Indian Constitution indeed establishes a strong central government to tackle national challenges, including poverty and illiteracy.
- This statement is correct as it highlights the role of the central government in addressing significant issues that transcend state boundaries.
Statement ii: Authority on State Boundaries
- Contrary to the statement, the central government does have the authority to alter state boundaries or names, subject to the provisions laid down in Article 3 of the Constitution.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement iii: Legislation during Emergencies
- During a national emergency, the central government can legislate on matters that typically fall under state jurisdiction, as per Article 250 of the Constitution.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
Statement iv: Governor's Authority
- The Governor does not have the authority to dissolve the state assembly without the consent of the central government. The dissolution of the state assembly is a power exercised in consultation with the central government.
- Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, the correct statements are i and iii.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option A (i and iii).
This breakdown clarifies the constitutional provisions and the powers vested in the central and state governments in India, underscoring the balance of power and the operational dynamics within the federal structure.

Which of the following statements best captures the complexity of interstate disputes in India?
  • a)
    Border disputes are primarily concerned with the allocation of river waters between neighboring states.
  • b)
    River water sharing disputes often remain unresolved despite the establishment of tribunals and even reach the Supreme Court.
  • c)
    The dispute between Punjab and Haryana primarily involves river water sharing rather than border and capital city issues.
  • d)
    The Cauvery water dispute involves the states of Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra, and it has been ongoing for many years.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upasana Chopra answered
Understanding Interstate Disputes in India
Interstate disputes in India are complex and multifaceted, often rooted in historical, geographical, and political contexts. One of the most significant aspects of these disputes revolves around water sharing.
Water Sharing Disputes
- River water sharing is a critical issue in India, leading to numerous conflicts between states.
- Despite the establishment of various tribunals to address these disputes, many remain unresolved for years.
- The legal battles often escalate, involving the Supreme Court, which indicates the high stakes and the challenging nature of these disputes.
Example of Punjab and Haryana
- While Punjab and Haryana have disputes, they are not solely focused on water sharing; they also include border and capital city issues.
- However, the overarching theme in many interstate disputes is the struggle over water resources.
Cauvery Water Dispute
- The Cauvery water dispute is a prominent example involving Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, not Maharashtra.
- This dispute has seen prolonged legal battles and political tensions, highlighting the intricacies of water rights in India.
Conclusion
In summary, option 'B' accurately captures the essence of interstate disputes in India: the ongoing struggles over river water sharing that often lead to protracted legal and political conflicts. The complexity of these disputes underscores the need for effective conflict resolution mechanisms to manage the competing needs of various states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
i. Demands for autonomy among States include calls for more significant powers to be assigned to them.
ii. Financial autonomy demands are focused solely on increasing state control over cultural issues.
iii. Administrative autonomy is characterized by resentment against central control over the administrative framework.
iv. Protests against the imposition of Hindi in the 1960s were primarily led by Hindi-speaking States advocating for their language.
  • a)
    i and iii
  • b)
    ii and iv
  • c)
    i, iii, and iv
  • d)
    i, ii, iii, and iv
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Autonomy Demands Among States
The question assesses the correctness of four statements regarding demands for autonomy among states. Let's analyze each statement:
i. Demands for autonomy among States include calls for more significant powers to be assigned to them.
- This statement is correct. Autonomy demands typically arise from the desire for increased powers in governance, allowing states to have more control over their own affairs, including legislative and administrative functions.
ii. Financial autonomy demands are focused solely on increasing state control over cultural issues.
- This statement is incorrect. Financial autonomy concerns broader economic powers, including budgetary control and revenue generation, rather than being limited only to cultural issues.
iii. Administrative autonomy is characterized by resentment against central control over the administrative framework.
- This statement is also correct. Administrative autonomy seeks to reduce central government control, leading to tensions and resentments among states that feel sidelined in decision-making processes.
iv. Protests against the imposition of Hindi in the 1960s were primarily led by Hindi-speaking States advocating for their language.
- This statement is incorrect. The protests were predominantly led by non-Hindi speaking states, as they opposed the imposition of Hindi as the sole official language, fearing it marginalized their regional languages and identities.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, the correct statements are i and iii. Thus, the correct answer is option 'a', which includes statements i and iii but excludes ii and iv.
This highlights the complexity of state autonomy demands in India and the nuances involved in regional language and administrative rights.

Which one of the following articles authorise the Parliament to protect persons in the service of the union or a state in respect of any action taken by them during martial law to maintain or restore order?
  • a)
    Article 167 and 168
  • b)
    Article 24 and 25
  • c)
    Article 33 and 34
  • d)
    Article 155
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Patel answered
The correct answer is C) Article 33 and 34. This article restricted fundamental rights during the operation of martial law by giving officers of the state certain powers. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts, Continues their existence; Imposed to restore law and order, War, external aggression or armed rebellion. It also authorises the Parliament to protect persons in the service of the union or a state in respect of any action taken by them during martial law to maintain or restore order.

The State Reorganisation Commission recommended the creation of
  • a)
    Regional states.
  • b)
    Religious states.
  • c)
    Ethnic states.
  • d)
    Linguistic states.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Malik answered
Background of the State Reorganisation Commission
The State Reorganisation Commission was established in India in 1953 to address the pressing need for administrative efficiency and to reflect the linguistic demographics of the country.
Objective of the Commission
The primary aim of the Commission was to reorganise the boundaries of Indian states in accordance with the languages spoken by the local populations.
Importance of Linguistic States
- Cultural Identity: The Commission recognized that language is a vital component of cultural identity. By forming states based on linguistic lines, it aimed to preserve and promote regional languages and cultures.
- Administrative Efficiency: Linguistic states are believed to facilitate better governance. A common language within a state can improve communication and administration, leading to more effective governance.
- Public Participation: When governance aligns with the linguistic identity of the populace, it encourages greater public participation in political processes and enhances democratic engagement.
Outcomes of the Commission
The recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission led to the formation of several new states in India, notably:
- Andhra Pradesh: Formed in 1956, it was the first state created on a linguistic basis.
- Gujarat and Maharashtra: These were also formed in 1960, reflecting the linguistic needs of their respective populations.
Conclusion
The Commission's recommendation for linguistic states was pivotal in shaping India's federal structure. It aimed to promote unity in diversity while ensuring that the linguistic aspirations of various communities were respected and represented in governance.

Match the following historical elements of Nigeria with their descriptions.

  • a)
    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  • b)
    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • c)
    A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  • d)
    A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The 1960 Constitution established a joint federal and regional administration of the Nigerian police (A-3). The 1979 Constitution introduced military administration and prohibited any state from having a civil police force (B-4). Nigeria regained democracy in 1999, following a period of military rule (C-1). Contemporary challenges include persisting divisions among religious, ethnic, and economic groups (D-2).

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federation?
  • a)
    Written Constitution
  • b)
    Supremacy of the Constitution
  • c)
    Distribution of Powers
  • d)
    Dual Citizenship
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Sinha answered
Introduction:

Indian federation is a unique system that combines federal and unitary features. It was adopted by the framers of the Indian Constitution to accommodate the diverse nature of the country. While there are several features of Indian federation, one of them does not belong to this category.

Explanation:

1. Written Constitution:
The Indian federation is characterized by a written constitution, which is a key feature of federal systems. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January 1950 and is the supreme law of the land. It lays down the structure, powers, and functions of the government and defines the rights and duties of citizens.

2. Supremacy of the Constitution:
Another feature of Indian federation is the supremacy of the Constitution. The Constitution is the highest legal authority in the country, and all laws and actions must conform to its provisions. The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, acts as the guardian of the Constitution and has the power of judicial review to ensure the supremacy of the Constitution is maintained.

3. Distribution of Powers:
The distribution of powers between the central government and the state governments is a fundamental characteristic of Indian federation. The Constitution specifies the powers of the central government, known as the Union List, the powers of the state governments, known as the State List, and the powers shared by both, known as the Concurrent List. This division of powers ensures a balance between the center and the states.

4. Dual Citizenship:
The concept of dual citizenship is not a feature of Indian federation. In India, there is only one type of citizenship, which is granted by the central government. The Citizenship Act of 1955 defines the qualifications for Indian citizenship and the ways in which it can be acquired or lost. Unlike some federal countries, India does not have a separate citizenship for the federal level and the state level.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the feature that does not belong to Indian federation is dual citizenship. While Indian federation incorporates a written constitution, upholds the supremacy of the constitution, and entails a distribution of powers between the center and the states, it does not have the concept of dual citizenship.

The union territory that was given a special status in the year 1991 was
  • a)
    Delhi.
  • b)
    Chandigarh.
  • c)
    West Bengal.
  • d)
    Lakshadweep.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Kumari answered
Special Status of Delhi in 1991
In 1991, the Union Territory of Delhi was granted a special status, which significantly influenced its governance and administrative framework.

Background of Delhi's Status
- **Historical Significance**: Delhi has been a significant political and historical center in India. Its status has evolved over the years, reflecting its importance.
- **Union Territory**: Initially, Delhi was designated as a Union Territory, which meant it was directly governed by the Central Government.

Special Status Granted
- **Legislative Assembly**: The special status allowed for the establishment of a Legislative Assembly in Delhi, providing a platform for local governance and representation.
- **Autonomy**: This status granted Delhi a degree of autonomy in governance, allowing the elected representatives to make decisions on various local matters.

Impact of the Special Status
- **Local Governance**: The establishment of the Legislative Assembly has empowered local leaders to address issues specific to Delhi, such as infrastructure, education, and public services.
- **Political Dynamics**: The special status has also influenced the political landscape, leading to the emergence of various political parties focused on Delhi-centric issues.

Conclusion
The special status granted to Delhi in 1991 marked a pivotal moment in its governance, enabling a more localized approach to administration while maintaining its significance as the capital of India. This status has been crucial in shaping the development trajectory of Delhi as a Union Territory.

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The special provisions for certain states in India are primarily related to north-eastern states with significant indigenous tribal populations.
Statement II: Jammu and Kashmir's special status under Article 370 allows the Union government to impose financial emergencies in the state without the state's concurrence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • c)
    Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
  • d)
    Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Crafty Classes answered
Statement I is true because the special provisions for certain states in India, particularly those related to north-eastern states like Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram, are due to their significant indigenous tribal populations. Statement II is false because Jammu and Kashmir's special status under Article 370 does not allow the Union government to impose financial emergencies in the state without the state's concurrence; in fact, the Union government cannot impose a financial emergency in J&K.

Residuary powers are vested with
  • a)
    Executive.
  • b)
    Parliament.
  • c)
    Judiciary.
  • d)
    Local Government.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Verma answered
Understanding Residuary Powers
Residuary powers refer to the authority to legislate on matters not enumerated in the Constitution. In many democratic systems, these powers are essential for maintaining governance and addressing new issues that arise over time.
Vesting of Residuary Powers
- In the context of the Indian Constitution, residuary powers are specifically vested in the Parliament.
- This means that Parliament has the authority to make laws on subjects that are not specifically listed in the State List or the Concurrent List.
Importance of Residuary Powers
- Residuary powers allow Parliament to adapt to changing circumstances and societal needs.
- They ensure that the legislative body maintains flexibility and can enact laws that may not have been foreseen by the framers of the Constitution.
Constitutional Provisions
- Article 248 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on matters not enumerated in the State List.
- This mechanism is crucial for the legislative process, enabling Parliament to address emerging issues effectively.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'B': Parliament, as it holds the residuary powers to legislate on subjects not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
- This structure ensures that governance remains relevant and responsive to the populace's needs.

According to the Constitution, India is a
  • a)
    Federal state.
  • b)
    Unitary state.
  • c)
    Union of states.
  • d)
    Quasi-federal state.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Das answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Union of states.

Explanation:

India is a federal country with a system of government that is characterized by the division of powers between a central authority and several regional units. The Constitution of India establishes a union of states, where power is shared between the central government and the state governments. Let's delve into the details of why India is considered a union of states.

1. Federal Features:
- Division of Powers: The Constitution of India clearly demarcates powers between the central government and the state governments. It outlines a list of subjects on which both levels of government can legislate.
- Bicameral Legislature: India has a bicameral parliament consisting of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories, ensuring their voice in the legislative process.
- Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary that acts as the guardian of federal principles. It resolves disputes between the central government and the state governments, ensuring the federal structure is maintained.

2. Unitary Features:
- Single Constitution: India has a single constitution that applies uniformly to all states and union territories. The constitution provides a framework for governance and defines the powers and functions of the central and state governments.
- Integrated Judiciary: The judiciary is integrated, with the Supreme Court being the highest authority for interpreting the constitution and settling disputes between the center and the states.

3. Unitary Bias:
- Strong Center: The central government in India holds significant powers, including those related to defense, foreign affairs, currency, and inter-state trade.
- Emergency Provisions: During emergencies, the central government can assume greater authority, potentially overriding some federal principles.

4. Quasi-Federal Nature:
- While India is primarily a union of states, it also exhibits some characteristics of a quasi-federal state. The central government can make laws on subjects outside its jurisdiction in times of emergencies or when the need arises.

In conclusion, India is considered a union of states as it possesses both federal and unitary features. The Constitution of India establishes a federal structure with powers shared between the central and state governments. However, the central government holds significant authority, and during emergencies, it can assume greater powers, making India a quasi-federal state.

Appointment of the Governor is dealt under the article
  • a)
    Article 167
  • b)
    Article 124
  • c)
    Article 162
  • d)
    Article 155
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Appointment of the Governor in India
The appointment of the Governor is guided by specific provisions in the Constitution of India. The correct article that deals with this appointment is Article 155.
Article 155 Explained
- Appointment Process: Article 155 states that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President of India.
- Tenure and Conditions: The appointment does not have a fixed term, and the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, which means the President can remove or appoint a new Governor at any time.
Related Articles
- Article 124: This article pertains to the appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court, not Governors.
- Article 162: This article discusses the extent of the executive power of a State and how it can be exercised by the Governor, but does not specifically address their appointment.
- Article 167: This article discusses the duties of the Chief Minister regarding the Governor, not the appointment process.
Importance of the Governor
- Role in State Government: The Governor acts as the representative of the President at the State level, ensuring that the Constitution is upheld in the States.
- Legislative Functions: The Governor also plays a crucial role in the legislative process, including summoning and proroguing the State Legislature.
In conclusion, Article 155 is the constitutional provision that outlines the appointment of the Governor in India, differentiating it from other articles that deal with different aspects of governance.

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