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All questions of October 2024 for CUET Commerce Exam
The 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI) was developed by which institution?- a)Yale University
- b)The Nature Conservancy
- c)Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change
- d)United Nations Environment Programme
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI) was developed by which institution?
a)
Yale University
b)
The Nature Conservancy
c)
Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change
d)
United Nations Environment Programme
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The Global Nature Conservation Index was created by the Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change at Ben-Gurion University of the Negev, assessing countries' environmental conservation and sustainability efforts.
Which of the following crops is NOT included in the six rabi crops for which the MSP was recently announced?- a) Wheat
- b) Barley
- c) Rice
- d) Gram
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following crops is NOT included in the six rabi crops for which the MSP was recently announced?
a)
Wheat
b)
Barley
c)
Rice
d)
Gram
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
Rice is not included in the list of rabi crops; it is primarily a kharif crop. The recently announced MSP for rabi crops includes wheat, barley, gram, lentil (masur), rapeseed & mustard, and safflower. The distinction between kharif and rabi crops is based on the season in which they are sown and harvested, with rabi crops typically sown in winter and harvested in spring. This classification is essential for understanding agricultural cycles and government support measures.
What fundamental right under the Indian Constitution was affirmed by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of B. Singh vs Union of India?- a) Right to free speech
- b) Right to form trade unions
- c) Right to education
- d) Right to privacy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What fundamental right under the Indian Constitution was affirmed by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of B. Singh vs Union of India?
a)
Right to free speech
b)
Right to form trade unions
c)
Right to education
d)
Right to privacy
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The Supreme Court affirmed that the right to form trade unions is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution. This ruling emphasizes the importance of collective representation for workers, allowing them to organize and negotiate for better employment conditions. The court also stated that any restrictions on this right must be justified and not arbitrary, reinforcing the role of trade unions in advocating for workers' rights.
What is the primary concern expressed by India regarding its trade relationship with the UAE?- a)The surge in imports of silver products and platinum alloys
- b)The increase in imports of textiles from the UAE
- c)The decrease in exports of petroleum products to the UAE
- d)The introduction of new tariffs on Indian goods by the UAE
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary concern expressed by India regarding its trade relationship with the UAE?
a)
The surge in imports of silver products and platinum alloys
b)
The increase in imports of textiles from the UAE
c)
The decrease in exports of petroleum products to the UAE
d)
The introduction of new tariffs on Indian goods by the UAE
|
Lakshmi mehta answered |
Primary Concern in India-UAE Trade Relations
India's trade relationship with the United Arab Emirates (UAE) has been significant, but recent concerns have emerged, particularly regarding a specific category of imports.
Surge in Silver Products and Platinum Alloys
- Import Surge: India has expressed worries about the increasing imports of silver products and platinum alloys from the UAE. This surge is seen as detrimental to local Indian industries.
- Impact on Domestic Market: The influx of these products can lead to price distortions in the Indian market, adversely affecting local manufacturers and artisans who rely on competitive pricing.
- Trade Balance Concerns: A significant rise in imports without a corresponding increase in exports can lead to trade imbalances, which is a primary concern for India's economic strategy.
Other Trade Aspects
- Textile Imports: While there is an increase in textile imports, it does not raise the same level of concern as silver and platinum products, which are more critical to India's manufacturing sector.
- Petroleum Exports: Although the decrease in petroleum exports is noteworthy, the surge in silver imports poses a more immediate threat to the local economy and trade balance.
- Tariffs on Indian Goods: The introduction of new tariffs on Indian goods by the UAE could also be a concern, but the primary focus remains on the impact of increased silver and platinum alloy imports.
In conclusion, India's primary concern regarding its trade relationship with the UAE centers on the surge in imports of silver products and platinum alloys, which threatens local industries and the economic balance.
India's trade relationship with the United Arab Emirates (UAE) has been significant, but recent concerns have emerged, particularly regarding a specific category of imports.
Surge in Silver Products and Platinum Alloys
- Import Surge: India has expressed worries about the increasing imports of silver products and platinum alloys from the UAE. This surge is seen as detrimental to local Indian industries.
- Impact on Domestic Market: The influx of these products can lead to price distortions in the Indian market, adversely affecting local manufacturers and artisans who rely on competitive pricing.
- Trade Balance Concerns: A significant rise in imports without a corresponding increase in exports can lead to trade imbalances, which is a primary concern for India's economic strategy.
Other Trade Aspects
- Textile Imports: While there is an increase in textile imports, it does not raise the same level of concern as silver and platinum products, which are more critical to India's manufacturing sector.
- Petroleum Exports: Although the decrease in petroleum exports is noteworthy, the surge in silver imports poses a more immediate threat to the local economy and trade balance.
- Tariffs on Indian Goods: The introduction of new tariffs on Indian goods by the UAE could also be a concern, but the primary focus remains on the impact of increased silver and platinum alloy imports.
In conclusion, India's primary concern regarding its trade relationship with the UAE centers on the surge in imports of silver products and platinum alloys, which threatens local industries and the economic balance.
What significant feature of the Kalleshwar Temple indicates the architectural influence of early Chola style?- a)The large Shivalinga
- b)The temple's orientation towards the east
- c)The shikara (tower) of the temple
- d)The adjoining hall (mantapa)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant feature of the Kalleshwar Temple indicates the architectural influence of early Chola style?
a)
The large Shivalinga
b)
The temple's orientation towards the east
c)
The shikara (tower) of the temple
d)
The adjoining hall (mantapa)
|
Pooja singhania answered |
Architectural Influence of Early Chola Style
The Kalleshwar Temple showcases several characteristics that reflect the early Chola architectural style. Among its features, the shikara (tower) stands out as a significant indicator of this influence.
Understanding the Shikara
- The shikara is the towering structure above the sanctum sanctorum of the temple.
- Early Chola temples are renowned for their intricate and elegant shikharas, which often exhibit a distinct architectural form that symbolizes the merging of earthly and divine realms.
Characteristics of the Shikara
- Curvilinear Design: The shikara of the Kalleshwar Temple features a curvilinear profile typical of early Chola architecture, distinguishing it from later styles that may have adopted more vertical or angular forms.
- Ornate Decorations: The temple’s shikara is adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures, which are hallmark features of Chola craftsmanship. This reflects the artistic excellence achieved during the Chola dynasty.
Comparison with Other Features
- While elements like the large Shivalinga, temple orientation, and adjoining mantapa are also important, they do not uniquely define the early Chola style as distinctly as the shikara does.
- The orientation of the temple towards the east is a common practice in many Indian temples and does not specifically reflect the Chola influence.
Conclusion
In summary, the shikara of the Kalleshwar Temple is a significant architectural feature that indicates the early Chola style due to its distinctive design and elaborate ornamentation, making it a focal point of study for enthusiasts of ancient Indian architecture.
The Kalleshwar Temple showcases several characteristics that reflect the early Chola architectural style. Among its features, the shikara (tower) stands out as a significant indicator of this influence.
Understanding the Shikara
- The shikara is the towering structure above the sanctum sanctorum of the temple.
- Early Chola temples are renowned for their intricate and elegant shikharas, which often exhibit a distinct architectural form that symbolizes the merging of earthly and divine realms.
Characteristics of the Shikara
- Curvilinear Design: The shikara of the Kalleshwar Temple features a curvilinear profile typical of early Chola architecture, distinguishing it from later styles that may have adopted more vertical or angular forms.
- Ornate Decorations: The temple’s shikara is adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures, which are hallmark features of Chola craftsmanship. This reflects the artistic excellence achieved during the Chola dynasty.
Comparison with Other Features
- While elements like the large Shivalinga, temple orientation, and adjoining mantapa are also important, they do not uniquely define the early Chola style as distinctly as the shikara does.
- The orientation of the temple towards the east is a common practice in many Indian temples and does not specifically reflect the Chola influence.
Conclusion
In summary, the shikara of the Kalleshwar Temple is a significant architectural feature that indicates the early Chola style due to its distinctive design and elaborate ornamentation, making it a focal point of study for enthusiasts of ancient Indian architecture.
What is the primary focus of the Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) as it has evolved over the years?- a)Strengthening the strategic partnership between India and Singapore
- b)Conducting anti-piracy operations in the Indian Ocean
- c)Training naval forces for humanitarian missions
- d)Developing new naval technologies
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary focus of the Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) as it has evolved over the years?
a)
Strengthening the strategic partnership between India and Singapore
b)
Conducting anti-piracy operations in the Indian Ocean
c)
Training naval forces for humanitarian missions
d)
Developing new naval technologies
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The primary focus of SIMBEX has evolved to strengthen the strategic partnership between India and Singapore. Initially centered around anti-submarine warfare, the exercise now encompasses various aspects of maritime security, including anti-air and anti-surface warfare. This evolution reflects the increasing complexity of maritime challenges faced by both nations and highlights their commitment to enhancing cooperation in addressing these shared concerns.
What is the primary purpose of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award?- a) To recognize contributions to literature.
- b) To honor individuals for their significant contributions to Indian cinema.
- c) To promote international film festivals.
- d) To support emerging filmmakers in India.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
a)
To recognize contributions to literature.
b)
To honor individuals for their significant contributions to Indian cinema.
c)
To promote international film festivals.
d)
To support emerging filmmakers in India.
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is primarily aimed at honoring individuals for their significant contributions to the development of Indian cinema. Established in 1969, it is considered the highest honor in Indian film, named after Dadasaheb Phalke, who is regarded as the "Father of Indian Cinema." The award not only recognizes the artistic and technical excellence of filmmakers, actors, and singers but also serves to inspire future generations in the Indian film industry. Notable recipients include legendary figures such as Satyajit Ray and Amitabh Bachchan, reflecting the award's prestigious status.
What significant change does the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) propose regarding antibiotics?- a)To classify all antibiotics as new drugs under NDCT Rules
- b)To classify antibiotics as safe for over-the-counter sales
- c)To ban the manufacturing of all antibiotics
- d)To require no prescriptions for antibiotic purchases
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant change does the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) propose regarding antibiotics?
a)
To classify all antibiotics as new drugs under NDCT Rules
b)
To classify antibiotics as safe for over-the-counter sales
c)
To ban the manufacturing of all antibiotics
d)
To require no prescriptions for antibiotic purchases
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The DTAB proposes that all antibiotics be classified under the definition of new drugs as per the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019. This classification would necessitate stricter regulatory measures, including requiring documentation for their manufacturing and sale, and mandates that prescriptions be obtained to purchase antibiotics. This change aims to enhance the control over antibiotic use and combat antibiotic resistance, which is a growing global health concern.
What is the primary greenhouse gas associated with human activity that accounts for approximately 64% of the warming effect on the climate?- a) Methane
- b) Nitrous Oxide
- c) Carbon Dioxide
- d) Water Vapor
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary greenhouse gas associated with human activity that accounts for approximately 64% of the warming effect on the climate?
a)
Methane
b)
Nitrous Oxide
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Water Vapor
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is the primary greenhouse gas related to human activities, particularly from fossil fuel combustion and cement production, contributing significantly to global warming. Its long-term increase is primarily driven by these activities, making it a key focus in climate change discussions. Interestingly, CO2 levels have risen dramatically since the Industrial Revolution, underscoring the impact of industrialization on climate.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)?- a) It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- b) It is involved in investigating corporate frauds
- c) It has the authority to conduct investigations without any restrictions
- d) It was established under the Companies Act, 2013
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)?
a)
It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
b)
It is involved in investigating corporate frauds
c)
It has the authority to conduct investigations without any restrictions
d)
It was established under the Companies Act, 2013
|
Yashica bajaj answered |
Understanding the SFIO
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a key agency in India responsible for investigating corporate frauds. Among the options provided, option 'A' is stated to be incorrect. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Operating Under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- The SFIO does indeed operate under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Therefore, option 'A' is a characteristic of the SFIO, not something that is not true.
Involvement in Investigating Corporate Frauds
- The SFIO is primarily tasked with investigating serious corporate frauds. This is one of its core functions, making option 'B' a true characteristic.
Authority for Investigations
- The SFIO does have significant powers to conduct investigations, but it does not act without any restrictions. It operates within the legal framework established by the Companies Act and other regulations, making option 'C' misleading as it suggests absolute authority.
Establishment Under Companies Act, 2013
- The SFIO was indeed established under the Companies Act, 2013. This makes option 'D' a correct characteristic of the SFIO.
Conclusion
- Since option 'A' states that the SFIO does not operate under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, it is incorrect. The agency is indeed linked to this ministry, which contradicts the statement in option 'A'. Hence, it is identified as the correct answer to the question regarding which statement is NOT a characteristic of the SFIO.
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a key agency in India responsible for investigating corporate frauds. Among the options provided, option 'A' is stated to be incorrect. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Operating Under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- The SFIO does indeed operate under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Therefore, option 'A' is a characteristic of the SFIO, not something that is not true.
Involvement in Investigating Corporate Frauds
- The SFIO is primarily tasked with investigating serious corporate frauds. This is one of its core functions, making option 'B' a true characteristic.
Authority for Investigations
- The SFIO does have significant powers to conduct investigations, but it does not act without any restrictions. It operates within the legal framework established by the Companies Act and other regulations, making option 'C' misleading as it suggests absolute authority.
Establishment Under Companies Act, 2013
- The SFIO was indeed established under the Companies Act, 2013. This makes option 'D' a correct characteristic of the SFIO.
Conclusion
- Since option 'A' states that the SFIO does not operate under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, it is incorrect. The agency is indeed linked to this ministry, which contradicts the statement in option 'A'. Hence, it is identified as the correct answer to the question regarding which statement is NOT a characteristic of the SFIO.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Indian Wild Buffalo is classified as Endangered according to the IUCN.Statement-II:
The Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Karnataka.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Indian Wild Buffalo is classified as Endangered according to the IUCN.
The Indian Wild Buffalo is classified as Endangered according to the IUCN.
Statement-II:
The Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Karnataka.
The Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Karnataka.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
Statement-I correctly states that the Indian Wild Buffalo is classified as Endangered according to the IUCN, which is accurate based on the information provided in the text. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly mentions that the Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Karnataka, which is inaccurate. The sanctuary is actually situated in the Raipur district of Chhattisgarh, as mentioned in the source material. Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect, making option (c) the accurate choice.
Who was Velu Nachiyar, and what is she best remembered for?- a)She was a freedom fighter known for her involvement in the Quit India Movement.
- b)She was a prominent leader in the Salt Satyagraha movement.
- c)She was the first woman elected to the Indian Parliament from Tamil Nadu.
- d)She was a queen who successfully fought against British colonial forces to reclaim her kingdom.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Who was Velu Nachiyar, and what is she best remembered for?
a)
She was a freedom fighter known for her involvement in the Quit India Movement.
b)
She was a prominent leader in the Salt Satyagraha movement.
c)
She was the first woman elected to the Indian Parliament from Tamil Nadu.
d)
She was a queen who successfully fought against British colonial forces to reclaim her kingdom.
|
Sravya Basak answered |
Introduction to Velu Nachiyar
Velu Nachiyar was a remarkable figure in Indian history, known for her fierce resistance against British colonial rule. She was born in 1730 in the Sivaganga estate of Tamil Nadu and became the queen of Sivaganga.
Legacy as a Freedom Fighter
- Velu Nachiyar is best remembered for her role as a warrior queen who led her army against the British forces.
- After the British East India Company captured her kingdom in 1772, she did not succumb to defeat. Instead, she organized a rebellion to reclaim her throne.
Strategic Warfare and Leadership
- She employed innovative strategies, including guerrilla warfare, to combat the British troops.
- Velu Nachiyar formed alliances with other local rulers and used her knowledge of the terrain to her advantage.
Significant Achievements
- In 1780, she successfully recaptured her kingdom with the help of her loyal troops and allies, marking a significant victory against colonial forces.
- She is also credited with being one of the first women to lead an army in India, inspiring future generations of freedom fighters.
Conclusion
Velu Nachiyar's legacy is celebrated as she symbolizes the courage and resilience of women in the struggle for independence. Her contributions to the fight against British rule make her an iconic figure in Indian history, particularly in Tamil Nadu, where she is revered as a symbol of resistance and empowerment. Her story continues to inspire many to this day.
Velu Nachiyar was a remarkable figure in Indian history, known for her fierce resistance against British colonial rule. She was born in 1730 in the Sivaganga estate of Tamil Nadu and became the queen of Sivaganga.
Legacy as a Freedom Fighter
- Velu Nachiyar is best remembered for her role as a warrior queen who led her army against the British forces.
- After the British East India Company captured her kingdom in 1772, she did not succumb to defeat. Instead, she organized a rebellion to reclaim her throne.
Strategic Warfare and Leadership
- She employed innovative strategies, including guerrilla warfare, to combat the British troops.
- Velu Nachiyar formed alliances with other local rulers and used her knowledge of the terrain to her advantage.
Significant Achievements
- In 1780, she successfully recaptured her kingdom with the help of her loyal troops and allies, marking a significant victory against colonial forces.
- She is also credited with being one of the first women to lead an army in India, inspiring future generations of freedom fighters.
Conclusion
Velu Nachiyar's legacy is celebrated as she symbolizes the courage and resilience of women in the struggle for independence. Her contributions to the fight against British rule make her an iconic figure in Indian history, particularly in Tamil Nadu, where she is revered as a symbol of resistance and empowerment. Her story continues to inspire many to this day.
What unique capability of thermite contributes to the danger posed by dragon drones in warfare?- a)Ability to burn at extremely high temperatures
- b)Ability to burn underwater
- c)Ability to be deployed remotely
- d)Ability to self-repair after damage
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What unique capability of thermite contributes to the danger posed by dragon drones in warfare?
a)
Ability to burn at extremely high temperatures
b)
Ability to burn underwater
c)
Ability to be deployed remotely
d)
Ability to self-repair after damage
|
|
Pooja singhania answered |
Understanding Thermite's Unique Capability
Thermite is a mixture of metal powder and metal oxide that burns at extremely high temperatures, typically around 2,500 degrees Celsius (4,500 degrees Fahrenheit). This characteristic makes it a potent tool in various applications, including welding and military uses. However, in the context of dragon drones in warfare, the ability to burn underwater is an extraordinary feature that heightens the danger.
Key Points about Thermite's Danger in Warfare
Conclusion
The unique capability of thermite to burn underwater significantly enhances the threat posed by dragon drones in warfare. This characteristic not only provides tactical advantages but also increases the potential for destruction, making it a formidable weapon in modern combat scenarios.
Thermite is a mixture of metal powder and metal oxide that burns at extremely high temperatures, typically around 2,500 degrees Celsius (4,500 degrees Fahrenheit). This characteristic makes it a potent tool in various applications, including welding and military uses. However, in the context of dragon drones in warfare, the ability to burn underwater is an extraordinary feature that heightens the danger.
Key Points about Thermite's Danger in Warfare
- Ability to Burn Underwater: Unlike many incendiary materials, thermite can ignite and sustain combustion even when submerged. This makes it particularly dangerous in maritime warfare, where it can be deployed against naval vessels, submarines, or even in scenarios involving underwater drones.
- Increased Tactical Flexibility: The ability to operate underwater allows for stealthy and surprise attacks. Enemies may not anticipate an attack from below, leading to significant tactical advantages.
- Destruction of Equipment: When used against naval targets, thermite can cause severe damage to critical equipment and infrastructure, leading to loss of operational capability.
- Versatile Deployment: Thermite can be utilized in various forms, including as a payload for drones, making it easier to deploy remotely and effectively.
Conclusion
The unique capability of thermite to burn underwater significantly enhances the threat posed by dragon drones in warfare. This characteristic not only provides tactical advantages but also increases the potential for destruction, making it a formidable weapon in modern combat scenarios.
What role does UNIFIL (United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon) primarily serve?- a) To conduct military operations against Israel
- b) To monitor the Blue Line and prevent hostilities
- c) To provide humanitarian aid exclusively
- d) To support the Lebanese government in military operations
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What role does UNIFIL (United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon) primarily serve?
a)
To conduct military operations against Israel
b)
To monitor the Blue Line and prevent hostilities
c)
To provide humanitarian aid exclusively
d)
To support the Lebanese government in military operations
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
UNIFIL is primarily tasked with monitoring the Blue Line, which separates Israel and Lebanon, to prevent hostilities and maintain peace in the region. Established in 1978, its objectives include confirming Israeli withdrawal from Lebanon and assisting the Lebanese government in regaining control over southern Lebanon. UNIFIL's peacekeepers are impartial and operate with the consent of the host country, focusing on conflict prevention and civilian protection. An interesting fact about UNIFIL is that it has over 10,000 peacekeepers from around 50 countries, highlighting the international commitment to maintaining stability in this volatile area.
Which river is known as Jia Bharali in its higher reaches in Assam?- a) Tippi River
- b) Kameng River
- c) Brahmaputra River
- d) Dirang Chu
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which river is known as Jia Bharali in its higher reaches in Assam?
a)
Tippi River
b)
Kameng River
c)
Brahmaputra River
d)
Dirang Chu
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The Kameng River, a significant tributary of the Brahmaputra River, is referred to as Jia Bharali in its higher reaches in Assam. This river originates in the eastern Himalayan Mountains and flows through various regions, serving as a natural boundary and supporting diverse ecosystems. Understanding local names for rivers can enhance awareness of cultural and geographical significance in different regions.
True or False: The marital rape exception in India was abolished in 1991.- a)False
- b)True
- c)Not applicable
- d)Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
True or False: The marital rape exception in India was abolished in 1991.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
Not applicable
d)
Cannot be determined
|
Anushka khanna answered |
Marital Rape Exception in India
The statement regarding the abolition of the marital rape exception in India in 1991 is false. The legal stance on marital rape remains complex and contentious within the Indian legal framework.
Understanding Marital Rape
- Definition: Marital rape occurs when one spouse forces the other to engage in sexual intercourse without consent.
- Legal Position: Under Indian law, specifically Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), there exists an exception that states sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, who is not under 15 years of age, is not considered rape. This provision effectively allows for marital rape to be legal in India.
Current Legal Status
- No Abolition: The marital rape exception has not been abolished. Despite discussions and advocacy for its removal, the law continues to treat marital rape as a non-criminal act.
- Judicial Challenges: Various petitions have been filed in Indian courts seeking the criminalization of marital rape, citing violations of fundamental rights. However, as of now, these petitions have not led to a change in the law.
Public Discourse
- Societal Views: There is a growing awareness and push from activists and women's rights organizations to recognize marital rape as a serious offense and to amend the law accordingly.
- Legislative Proposals: While there have been proposals to amend the IPC to include marital rape as a crime, no concrete legislative changes have occurred.
In summary, the marital rape exception in India was not abolished in 1991, and the statement is indeed false, reflecting the ongoing debate surrounding this significant legal and social issue.
The statement regarding the abolition of the marital rape exception in India in 1991 is false. The legal stance on marital rape remains complex and contentious within the Indian legal framework.
Understanding Marital Rape
- Definition: Marital rape occurs when one spouse forces the other to engage in sexual intercourse without consent.
- Legal Position: Under Indian law, specifically Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), there exists an exception that states sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, who is not under 15 years of age, is not considered rape. This provision effectively allows for marital rape to be legal in India.
Current Legal Status
- No Abolition: The marital rape exception has not been abolished. Despite discussions and advocacy for its removal, the law continues to treat marital rape as a non-criminal act.
- Judicial Challenges: Various petitions have been filed in Indian courts seeking the criminalization of marital rape, citing violations of fundamental rights. However, as of now, these petitions have not led to a change in the law.
Public Discourse
- Societal Views: There is a growing awareness and push from activists and women's rights organizations to recognize marital rape as a serious offense and to amend the law accordingly.
- Legislative Proposals: While there have been proposals to amend the IPC to include marital rape as a crime, no concrete legislative changes have occurred.
In summary, the marital rape exception in India was not abolished in 1991, and the statement is indeed false, reflecting the ongoing debate surrounding this significant legal and social issue.
How does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plan to improve climate-related data accessibility for regulated entities?- a) By increasing the frequency of data updates
- b) By establishing the Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS)
- c) By outsourcing climate data collection
- d) By reducing the number of data sources
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
How does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plan to improve climate-related data accessibility for regulated entities?
a)
By increasing the frequency of data updates
b)
By establishing the Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS)
c)
By outsourcing climate data collection
d)
By reducing the number of data sources
|
Rounak Menon answered |
Improving Climate-Related Data Accessibility
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recognizes the urgent need to address climate-related risks in the financial sector. One of the key initiatives to enhance data accessibility for regulated entities is the establishment of the Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS).
Why RB-CRIS is the Correct Choice
- Centralized Data Repository: RB-CRIS aims to create a centralized platform for climate-related data, making it easier for financial institutions to access necessary information.
- Enhanced Decision-Making: By providing comprehensive climate risk data, the system will enable banks and financial institutions to make informed decisions regarding their investments and risk assessments.
- Standardization: The establishment of RB-CRIS will help standardize climate-related data, ensuring consistency and reliability across various entities.
- Regulatory Compliance: With a structured data system, regulated entities will find it easier to comply with existing and upcoming regulations related to climate risk disclosures.
- Support for Risk Assessment: The RB-CRIS will facilitate better risk assessment frameworks that incorporate climate-related risks, which is crucial in today’s evolving economic landscape.
Conclusion
In summary, the RBI's initiative to set up RB-CRIS is a strategic move to bolster climate data accessibility for regulated entities. By centralizing and standardizing climate-related information, the RBI aims to enhance risk management and regulatory compliance, ultimately contributing to a more resilient financial system in the face of climate change.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recognizes the urgent need to address climate-related risks in the financial sector. One of the key initiatives to enhance data accessibility for regulated entities is the establishment of the Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS).
Why RB-CRIS is the Correct Choice
- Centralized Data Repository: RB-CRIS aims to create a centralized platform for climate-related data, making it easier for financial institutions to access necessary information.
- Enhanced Decision-Making: By providing comprehensive climate risk data, the system will enable banks and financial institutions to make informed decisions regarding their investments and risk assessments.
- Standardization: The establishment of RB-CRIS will help standardize climate-related data, ensuring consistency and reliability across various entities.
- Regulatory Compliance: With a structured data system, regulated entities will find it easier to comply with existing and upcoming regulations related to climate risk disclosures.
- Support for Risk Assessment: The RB-CRIS will facilitate better risk assessment frameworks that incorporate climate-related risks, which is crucial in today’s evolving economic landscape.
Conclusion
In summary, the RBI's initiative to set up RB-CRIS is a strategic move to bolster climate data accessibility for regulated entities. By centralizing and standardizing climate-related information, the RBI aims to enhance risk management and regulatory compliance, ultimately contributing to a more resilient financial system in the face of climate change.
What is the primary purpose of the SAARC Currency Swap Framework?- a) To facilitate long-term loans for infrastructure projects
- b) To offer short-term liquidity support during financial crises
- c) To standardize currency exchange rates among SAARC nations
- d) To promote bilateral trade agreements between member countries
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the SAARC Currency Swap Framework?
a)
To facilitate long-term loans for infrastructure projects
b)
To offer short-term liquidity support during financial crises
c)
To standardize currency exchange rates among SAARC nations
d)
To promote bilateral trade agreements between member countries
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The SAARC Currency Swap Framework is designed to provide short-term liquidity support to member countries facing financial crises or instability. It helps stabilize economies by allowing countries to borrow foreign currency to address immediate balance of payment issues. This framework promotes regional cooperation and financial stability, particularly during times of economic distress.
True or False: The World Energy Outlook 2024 predicts that coal demand will peak by the end of this decade.- a)ERROR
- b)ERROR
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
True or False: The World Energy Outlook 2024 predicts that coal demand will peak by the end of this decade.
a)
ERROR
b)
ERROR
|
|
Niyati sengupta answered |
Understanding the World Energy Outlook 2024
The World Energy Outlook (WEO) is a significant annual publication by the International Energy Agency (IEA) that analyzes global energy trends and forecasts future demand. The 2024 edition is crucial for understanding the trajectory of coal demand.
Coal Demand Projections
- The WEO 2024 indicates that global coal demand is expected to peak by the end of this decade.
- This prediction is driven by several factors, including:
- Shift to Renewables: Countries are increasingly investing in renewable energy sources, reducing reliance on coal.
- Climate Commitments: Global agreements, such as the Paris Agreement, compel nations to cut greenhouse gas emissions, further pressuring coal use.
- Economic Factors: The cost of renewable energy technologies continues to decline, making them more attractive compared to coal.
Regional Variations
- While some regions may still experience short-term increases in coal demand due to economic growth or energy security concerns, the overall trend suggests a decline.
- Developed nations are leading the transition away from coal, while emerging economies are gradually shifting towards cleaner energy options.
Conclusion
In summary, the statement regarding coal demand peaking by the end of this decade is supported by the findings of the WEO 2024. This reflects a broader shift in global energy consumption patterns towards sustainable and cleaner energy sources as nations strive to meet environmental goals.
The World Energy Outlook (WEO) is a significant annual publication by the International Energy Agency (IEA) that analyzes global energy trends and forecasts future demand. The 2024 edition is crucial for understanding the trajectory of coal demand.
Coal Demand Projections
- The WEO 2024 indicates that global coal demand is expected to peak by the end of this decade.
- This prediction is driven by several factors, including:
- Shift to Renewables: Countries are increasingly investing in renewable energy sources, reducing reliance on coal.
- Climate Commitments: Global agreements, such as the Paris Agreement, compel nations to cut greenhouse gas emissions, further pressuring coal use.
- Economic Factors: The cost of renewable energy technologies continues to decline, making them more attractive compared to coal.
Regional Variations
- While some regions may still experience short-term increases in coal demand due to economic growth or energy security concerns, the overall trend suggests a decline.
- Developed nations are leading the transition away from coal, while emerging economies are gradually shifting towards cleaner energy options.
Conclusion
In summary, the statement regarding coal demand peaking by the end of this decade is supported by the findings of the WEO 2024. This reflects a broader shift in global energy consumption patterns towards sustainable and cleaner energy sources as nations strive to meet environmental goals.
What is the primary purpose of the National Agriculture Code (NAC) being developed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?- a) To regulate agricultural machinery only
- b) To create a comprehensive framework for all agricultural practices
- c) To establish international trade standards for agricultural products
- d) To promote genetically modified crops in India
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the National Agriculture Code (NAC) being developed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
a)
To regulate agricultural machinery only
b)
To create a comprehensive framework for all agricultural practices
c)
To establish international trade standards for agricultural products
d)
To promote genetically modified crops in India
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The National Agriculture Code (NAC) is being formulated to provide a comprehensive framework for all agricultural practices in India, addressing various factors such as agro-climatic zones, crop types, and the entire agri-food value chain. By creating standardized practices, the NAC aims to enhance the quality culture in Indian agriculture and serve as a guide for policymakers and farmers alike. This initiative reflects a growing recognition of the need for structured standards that encompass all aspects of agriculture, from crop selection to post-harvest operations.
Which of the following statements about neutrinos is true?- a) Neutrinos carry an electric charge.
- b) Neutrinos are the most abundant particles in the universe.
- c) Neutrinos interact strongly with atomic nuclei.
- d) Neutrinos are larger than other subatomic particles.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about neutrinos is true?
a)
Neutrinos carry an electric charge.
b)
Neutrinos are the most abundant particles in the universe.
c)
Neutrinos interact strongly with atomic nuclei.
d)
Neutrinos are larger than other subatomic particles.
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
Neutrinos are indeed the most abundant particles in the universe, often referred to as "ghost particles" due to their extremely low interaction with matter. They are electrically neutral and do not carry a charge, which is crucial for their classification within the lepton family of particles. Their elusive nature makes them challenging to detect, yet approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass through our bodies every second without causing any harm. This highlights the fascinating yet complex role neutrinos play in the universe.
What are the main components found in the Bushveld Igneous Complex (BIC)?- a)Gold and silver
- b)Coal and limestone
- c)Fossil fuels and natural gas
- d)Platinum-group metals and other minerals
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What are the main components found in the Bushveld Igneous Complex (BIC)?
a)
Gold and silver
b)
Coal and limestone
c)
Fossil fuels and natural gas
d)
Platinum-group metals and other minerals
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The Bushveld Igneous Complex (BIC) is renowned for its rich deposits of platinum-group metals (PGMs), including platinum, palladium, osmium, iridium, rhodium, and ruthenium. Additionally, it contains significant amounts of other minerals such as iron, tin, chromium, titanium, and vanadium. This diversity of resources makes the BIC one of the most valuable geological formations in the world, contributing significantly to the global supply of PGMs.
What is Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) primarily known for?- a) It is a viral infection affecting canines.
- b) It is a progressive neurological disorder in cervids.
- c) It is a bacterial disease in livestock.
- d) It is a genetic disorder in domestic pets.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) primarily known for?
a)
It is a viral infection affecting canines.
b)
It is a progressive neurological disorder in cervids.
c)
It is a bacterial disease in livestock.
d)
It is a genetic disorder in domestic pets.
|
Gowri Sreecharan answered |
B. it is a progressive neurological disorders in cervids
What is a primary challenge faced by precision medicine in India?- a) The lack of advanced technology in healthcare
- b) The absence of comprehensive biobank regulations
- c) Insufficient funding for healthcare research
- d) The overregulation of medical practices
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a primary challenge faced by precision medicine in India?
a)
The lack of advanced technology in healthcare
b)
The absence of comprehensive biobank regulations
c)
Insufficient funding for healthcare research
d)
The overregulation of medical practices
|
|
Pooja singhania answered |
Primary Challenge of Precision Medicine in India
Precision medicine aims to tailor medical treatment to the individual characteristics of each patient. In India, a significant challenge to implementing this approach is the absence of comprehensive biobank regulations.
Understanding Biobanks
- Biobanks are facilities that store biological samples for research purposes.
- They are essential for precision medicine as they provide the data needed to understand genetic variations and their impact on health.
Importance of Regulation
- Comprehensive regulations ensure that biobanks operate ethically and effectively.
- They help in maintaining the quality of samples, ensuring informed consent, and protecting patient privacy.
Current Scenario in India
- The lack of robust regulations leads to inconsistencies and ethical concerns in biobanking practices.
- Researchers may face difficulties in accessing quality samples, limiting the scope of precision medicine research.
Implications for Precision Medicine
- Without proper biobank regulations, the development of targeted therapies and personalized treatments will face setbacks.
- This hinders advancements in understanding diseases that are prevalent in the Indian population.
Conclusion
- Addressing the absence of comprehensive biobank regulations is crucial for the success of precision medicine in India.
- Establishing clear guidelines will facilitate better research practices and ultimately improve healthcare outcomes.
Precision medicine aims to tailor medical treatment to the individual characteristics of each patient. In India, a significant challenge to implementing this approach is the absence of comprehensive biobank regulations.
Understanding Biobanks
- Biobanks are facilities that store biological samples for research purposes.
- They are essential for precision medicine as they provide the data needed to understand genetic variations and their impact on health.
Importance of Regulation
- Comprehensive regulations ensure that biobanks operate ethically and effectively.
- They help in maintaining the quality of samples, ensuring informed consent, and protecting patient privacy.
Current Scenario in India
- The lack of robust regulations leads to inconsistencies and ethical concerns in biobanking practices.
- Researchers may face difficulties in accessing quality samples, limiting the scope of precision medicine research.
Implications for Precision Medicine
- Without proper biobank regulations, the development of targeted therapies and personalized treatments will face setbacks.
- This hinders advancements in understanding diseases that are prevalent in the Indian population.
Conclusion
- Addressing the absence of comprehensive biobank regulations is crucial for the success of precision medicine in India.
- Establishing clear guidelines will facilitate better research practices and ultimately improve healthcare outcomes.
What is the primary reason for the demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status for the tea tribes in Assam?- a) To improve literacy rates among the tea tribes
- b) To provide legal recognition and access to government benefits
- c) To increase tea production in Assam
- d) To promote tourism in tea plantation areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary reason for the demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status for the tea tribes in Assam?
a)
To improve literacy rates among the tea tribes
b)
To provide legal recognition and access to government benefits
c)
To increase tea production in Assam
d)
To promote tourism in tea plantation areas
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status for the tea tribes in Assam is primarily aimed at providing them with legal recognition and access to government benefits that are currently limited under their classification as Other Backward Classes (OBCs). This recognition would help address their marginalization despite their significant contributions to the economy, ensuring they receive the protections and opportunities necessary for their development. An interesting fact is that many of these tea tribes have cultural ties to regions like Jharkhand, highlighting the historical context of their migration to Assam during colonial times for labor in tea plantations.
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the principle of the Doctrine of Lis Pendens?- a) It nullifies any transfer of property made during ongoing litigation.
- b) It allows new transactions to occur freely during pending litigation.
- c) It preserves the status quo of property during a lawsuit, binding any subsequent purchasers.
- d) It applies only to transactions involving movable property.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the principle of the Doctrine of Lis Pendens?
a)
It nullifies any transfer of property made during ongoing litigation.
b)
It allows new transactions to occur freely during pending litigation.
c)
It preserves the status quo of property during a lawsuit, binding any subsequent purchasers.
d)
It applies only to transactions involving movable property.
|
|
Lakshmi mehta answered |
Understanding the Doctrine of Lis Pendens
The Doctrine of Lis Pendens is a legal principle that serves to protect the rights of parties involved in ongoing litigation concerning real property. Here’s an explanation of why option 'C' is correct:
Preservation of Status Quo
- The doctrine ensures that the status of the property remains unchanged during the course of litigation.
- It acts as a notice to third parties that the property is subject to a legal dispute, thus binding any subsequent purchasers or encumbrancers.
Implications for Purchasers
- If a new buyer acquires the property while the litigation is pending, they are subject to the outcome of that lawsuit.
- This means that any rights or claims arising from the litigation will still apply to the property, regardless of the new ownership.
Limitations on Transactions
- While the doctrine does not outright nullify all transactions, it effectively restricts the ability of parties to make changes to property ownership without acknowledging the ongoing litigation.
- This prevents parties from circumventing legal disputes by transferring property during the litigation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect
- Option 'A' incorrectly implies that all transfers are nullified; the doctrine only affects the rights of new purchasers.
- Option 'B' suggests transactions can occur freely, which contradicts the purpose of the doctrine.
- Option 'D' incorrectly limits the application of the doctrine to movable property; it primarily pertains to real property.
In summary, the Doctrine of Lis Pendens plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of legal proceedings involving property, ensuring fairness and transparency throughout the litigation process.
The Doctrine of Lis Pendens is a legal principle that serves to protect the rights of parties involved in ongoing litigation concerning real property. Here’s an explanation of why option 'C' is correct:
Preservation of Status Quo
- The doctrine ensures that the status of the property remains unchanged during the course of litigation.
- It acts as a notice to third parties that the property is subject to a legal dispute, thus binding any subsequent purchasers or encumbrancers.
Implications for Purchasers
- If a new buyer acquires the property while the litigation is pending, they are subject to the outcome of that lawsuit.
- This means that any rights or claims arising from the litigation will still apply to the property, regardless of the new ownership.
Limitations on Transactions
- While the doctrine does not outright nullify all transactions, it effectively restricts the ability of parties to make changes to property ownership without acknowledging the ongoing litigation.
- This prevents parties from circumventing legal disputes by transferring property during the litigation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect
- Option 'A' incorrectly implies that all transfers are nullified; the doctrine only affects the rights of new purchasers.
- Option 'B' suggests transactions can occur freely, which contradicts the purpose of the doctrine.
- Option 'D' incorrectly limits the application of the doctrine to movable property; it primarily pertains to real property.
In summary, the Doctrine of Lis Pendens plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of legal proceedings involving property, ensuring fairness and transparency throughout the litigation process.
Which of the following statements accurately describes UNICEF's funding sources?- a) It is funded exclusively by the United Nations member states.
- b) It relies entirely on voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations.
- c) Its funding is primarily derived from corporate sponsorships.
- d) UNICEF is funded through governmental grants alone.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes UNICEF's funding sources?
a)
It is funded exclusively by the United Nations member states.
b)
It relies entirely on voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations.
c)
Its funding is primarily derived from corporate sponsorships.
d)
UNICEF is funded through governmental grants alone.
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
UNICEF is funded entirely through voluntary contributions from millions of individuals worldwide, as well as support from government bodies, civil organizations, and the private sector. This diverse funding model allows UNICEF to operate in more than 190 countries, making a significant impact on children's rights and welfare globally. Notably, UNICEF's reliance on voluntary contributions emphasizes the importance of public engagement and support for child welfare initiatives.
What is the primary tactic used by scammers in Digital Arrest scams to intimidate victims?- a) Sending fraudulent emails
- b) Creating fear through audio or video calls
- c) Offering fake financial assistance
- d) Conducting in-person visits
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary tactic used by scammers in Digital Arrest scams to intimidate victims?
a)
Sending fraudulent emails
b)
Creating fear through audio or video calls
c)
Offering fake financial assistance
d)
Conducting in-person visits
|
Poorna Lk answered |
In digital arrest scam, perpetrators pose as law enforcement officials, such as CBI agents, income tax officers, or customs agents, and initiate contact with victims via
phone calls
. Subsequently, they request that the victims switch to video communication
Which legal framework governs Digital Arrest scams in India?- a) The Indian Penal Code
- b) The Information Technology Act, 2000
- c) The Cybersecurity Act, 2021
- d) The Code of Criminal Procedure
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which legal framework governs Digital Arrest scams in India?
a)
The Indian Penal Code
b)
The Information Technology Act, 2000
c)
The Cybersecurity Act, 2021
d)
The Code of Criminal Procedure
|
|
Poorna Lk answered |
b) The Information Technology Act , 2000
From hacking into computers to making fraudulent transactions online, there are many ways in which we can become a victim of illegal cyber activities. To regulate such activities that violate the rights of an Internet user, the Indian government has the
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY ACT 2000
, in place.
What is the primary characteristic of the meteorological phenomenon known as DANA?- a) It results in extreme snowfall throughout the year.
- b) It occurs when cold air from the Polar Regions interacts with warm air over the Mediterranean.
- c) It is a result of high-pressure systems dominating the western Mediterranean.
- d) It is a seasonal event that only affects the eastern coast of Spain.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary characteristic of the meteorological phenomenon known as DANA?
a)
It results in extreme snowfall throughout the year.
b)
It occurs when cold air from the Polar Regions interacts with warm air over the Mediterranean.
c)
It is a result of high-pressure systems dominating the western Mediterranean.
d)
It is a seasonal event that only affects the eastern coast of Spain.
|
Ashutosh Chawla answered |
Understanding DANA
DANA, or "Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos," is a significant meteorological phenomenon particularly affecting the Mediterranean region.
Interaction of Air Masses
- DANA occurs when cold air from the Polar Regions interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea.
- This interaction creates instability in the atmosphere, leading to the formation of isolated low-pressure systems that can result in severe weather events.
Weather Implications
- The combination of these contrasting air masses can lead to heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, and even extreme weather like flash floods.
- The phenomenon is especially prevalent during certain seasons, particularly in autumn and spring, when temperature differences are more pronounced.
Geographical Impact
- While DANA can affect various regions, its strongest impact is often felt in countries bordering the Mediterranean, such as Spain, where it can lead to localized extreme weather patterns.
- It is NOT limited to the eastern coast of Spain, but can influence broader areas across the Mediterranean basin.
Conclusion
Understanding DANA is crucial for meteorologists and the general public alike, as it helps in predicting severe weather and preparing for potential hazards. Its unique formation mechanism emphasizes the importance of air mass interactions in meteorological phenomena.
DANA, or "Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos," is a significant meteorological phenomenon particularly affecting the Mediterranean region.
Interaction of Air Masses
- DANA occurs when cold air from the Polar Regions interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea.
- This interaction creates instability in the atmosphere, leading to the formation of isolated low-pressure systems that can result in severe weather events.
Weather Implications
- The combination of these contrasting air masses can lead to heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, and even extreme weather like flash floods.
- The phenomenon is especially prevalent during certain seasons, particularly in autumn and spring, when temperature differences are more pronounced.
Geographical Impact
- While DANA can affect various regions, its strongest impact is often felt in countries bordering the Mediterranean, such as Spain, where it can lead to localized extreme weather patterns.
- It is NOT limited to the eastern coast of Spain, but can influence broader areas across the Mediterranean basin.
Conclusion
Understanding DANA is crucial for meteorologists and the general public alike, as it helps in predicting severe weather and preparing for potential hazards. Its unique formation mechanism emphasizes the importance of air mass interactions in meteorological phenomena.
What is a defining feature of the Harpoon missile that enhances its effectiveness against radar detection?- a) It uses laser guidance for targeting.
- b) It flies at high altitudes during flight.
- c) It is designed to skim the sea at low altitudes.
- d) It relies solely on satellite positioning for navigation.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a defining feature of the Harpoon missile that enhances its effectiveness against radar detection?
a)
It uses laser guidance for targeting.
b)
It flies at high altitudes during flight.
c)
It is designed to skim the sea at low altitudes.
d)
It relies solely on satellite positioning for navigation.
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The Harpoon missile is specifically designed to fly at low altitudes, skimming the sea, which significantly enhances its survivability against radar detection. This flight profile allows it to evade early warning systems, making it a formidable anti-ship weapon. An interesting fact is that this low-altitude flight capability is a common design feature in many modern cruise missiles to increase their chances of successfully reaching their targets.
What was the change in India's score on the Academic Freedom Index from 2013 to 2023?- a) It increased from 0.4 to 0.5
- b) It remained the same at 0.6
- c) It decreased from 0.6 to 0.2
- d) It increased from 0.2 to 0.4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What was the change in India's score on the Academic Freedom Index from 2013 to 2023?
a)
It increased from 0.4 to 0.5
b)
It remained the same at 0.6
c)
It decreased from 0.6 to 0.2
d)
It increased from 0.2 to 0.4
|
|
Meenakshi das answered |
Change in India's Academic Freedom Index (2013-2023)
The Academic Freedom Index (AFI) is a measure that assesses the degree of academic freedom in various countries, reflecting how conducive the environment is for scholarly activities. Analyzing the changes in India's score from 2013 to 2023 reveals a significant decline.
Score Decline
- In 2013, India's score was recorded at 0.6.
- By 2023, this score had plummeted to 0.2.
This decline illustrates a deteriorating environment for academic freedom in India over the decade.
Factors Contributing to the Decline
- Government Policies: Increasing governmental control over educational institutions has stifled independent thought and critical inquiry.
- Censorship and Repression: There have been numerous instances of censorship, where academic discussions that are critical of state policies or ideologies are discouraged or suppressed.
- Intimidation of Scholars: Many academics face threats or violence for voicing dissent or engaging in controversial research, leading to a chilling effect on scholarly work.
Implications
The drop in India's Academic Freedom Index from 0.6 to 0.2 is alarming, indicating a significant reduction in the freedoms that allow scholars to teach, research, and express their ideas freely. This decline can have long-term repercussions on the quality of education and innovation in the country.
Understanding these changes is crucial for policymakers and educators to foster a more open and supportive academic environment.
The Academic Freedom Index (AFI) is a measure that assesses the degree of academic freedom in various countries, reflecting how conducive the environment is for scholarly activities. Analyzing the changes in India's score from 2013 to 2023 reveals a significant decline.
Score Decline
- In 2013, India's score was recorded at 0.6.
- By 2023, this score had plummeted to 0.2.
This decline illustrates a deteriorating environment for academic freedom in India over the decade.
Factors Contributing to the Decline
- Government Policies: Increasing governmental control over educational institutions has stifled independent thought and critical inquiry.
- Censorship and Repression: There have been numerous instances of censorship, where academic discussions that are critical of state policies or ideologies are discouraged or suppressed.
- Intimidation of Scholars: Many academics face threats or violence for voicing dissent or engaging in controversial research, leading to a chilling effect on scholarly work.
Implications
The drop in India's Academic Freedom Index from 0.6 to 0.2 is alarming, indicating a significant reduction in the freedoms that allow scholars to teach, research, and express their ideas freely. This decline can have long-term repercussions on the quality of education and innovation in the country.
Understanding these changes is crucial for policymakers and educators to foster a more open and supportive academic environment.
What significant issue was highlighted by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) regarding India's plastic recycling sector?- a) The high cost of recycling processes
- b) The creation of fraudulent recycling certificates
- c) The lack of plastic waste generation
- d) The complete efficiency of the recycling system
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant issue was highlighted by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) regarding India's plastic recycling sector?
a)
The high cost of recycling processes
b)
The creation of fraudulent recycling certificates
c)
The lack of plastic waste generation
d)
The complete efficiency of the recycling system
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The CSE report highlighted the creation of over 700,000 fraudulent recycling certificates in India's plastic recycling sector, which signifies extensive deception among plastic recyclers. This misuse undermines the credibility of the Extended Producer Responsibility system, leading to artificially low prices for certificates and complicating accurate tracking of plastic waste management. Fraudulent practices like these can deter genuine recycling efforts and compromise the integrity of environmental compliance. An additional fact is that addressing these fraudulent activities is essential for building trust and ensuring effective waste management practices.
According to the elephant census report, what was the percentage decline in India's elephant population over the last five years?- a) 10%
- b) 20%
- c) 30%
- d) 41%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
According to the elephant census report, what was the percentage decline in India's elephant population over the last five years?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
30%
d)
41%
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The elephant census report indicates a significant decline of 20% in India's elephant population over the past five years. This alarming drop emphasizes the pressing need for effective conservation strategies to protect these majestic animals from threats such as habitat fragmentation, poaching, and developmental pressures. An additional fact to consider is that elephants play a crucial role in their ecosystems, and their decline can have cascading effects on biodiversity and ecosystem health.
What is the primary goal of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) as established by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?- a) To promote international trade practices
- b) To safeguard consumer rights against unfair trade practices
- c) To regulate prices of consumer goods
- d) To oversee advertising standards for international brands
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) as established by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
a)
To promote international trade practices
b)
To safeguard consumer rights against unfair trade practices
c)
To regulate prices of consumer goods
d)
To oversee advertising standards for international brands
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The primary goal of the CCPA is to safeguard consumer rights by addressing unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements that can adversely affect public and consumer interests. By enforcing these protections, the CCPA ensures that consumers are not misled and can exercise their rights without facing unfair practices. An interesting fact is that the CCPA can initiate class action suits, which means it can represent groups of consumers affected by the same issue, highlighting its commitment to collective consumer protection.
Consider the following statements regarding Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection: - RSV primarily causes severe respiratory infections only in infants, and adults are generally not affected.
- RSV can be transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals as well as through contaminated surfaces.
- The contagious period for RSV is typically between 3 to 8 days, but some individuals can spread the virus for a longer duration.
Which of the above statements are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection:
- RSV primarily causes severe respiratory infections only in infants, and adults are generally not affected.
- RSV can be transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals as well as through contaminated surfaces.
- The contagious period for RSV is typically between 3 to 8 days, but some individuals can spread the virus for a longer duration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Wizius Careers answered |
- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. RSV does not only cause severe infections in infants; it can also lead to severe respiratory diseases in adults, particularly those over 65 years of age and individuals with weakened immune systems or chronic conditions. Infants and older adults are both at high risk, making this statement inaccurate.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. RSV can indeed be transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals and by touching contaminated surfaces or objects, which aligns with the known modes of transmission of the virus.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. People infected with RSV are generally contagious for 3 to 8 days. However, infants and immunocompromised individuals may spread the virus for up to 4 weeks, making this statement accurate.
Given the analysis, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option c: 2 and 3 Only.
Why is the Coral Triangle often referred to as the "Amazon of the seas"?- a) It has the highest biodiversity of terrestrial plants.
- b) It is home to 76 percent of the world's coral species.
- c) It is the largest marine reserve in the world.
- d) It contains the most extensive network of coral reefs.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Why is the Coral Triangle often referred to as the "Amazon of the seas"?
a)
It has the highest biodiversity of terrestrial plants.
b)
It is home to 76 percent of the world's coral species.
c)
It is the largest marine reserve in the world.
d)
It contains the most extensive network of coral reefs.
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The Coral Triangle is called the "Amazon of the seas" because it is home to 76 percent of the world's coral species, making it one of the most biologically diverse marine areas on the planet. This region supports a vast array of marine life and is crucial for the livelihoods of over 120 million people who depend on its resources. The significance of the Coral Triangle extends beyond biodiversity; it plays a vital role in food security and local economies. An additional fact is that this area is not only vital for marine biodiversity but also faces threats from climate change, unsustainable fishing practices, and pollution, highlighting the need for conservation efforts.
What recent recommendation did the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) make regarding antibiotics?- a) To deregulate antibiotics completely
- b) To classify all antibiotics as 'New Drugs'
- c) To increase the sale of over-the-counter antibiotics
- d) To ban the use of antibiotics in India
Correct answer is option 'BTOCLASSIFYALLANTIBIOTICSAS'NEWDRUGS''. Can you explain this answer?
What recent recommendation did the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) make regarding antibiotics?
a)
To deregulate antibiotics completely
b)
To classify all antibiotics as 'New Drugs'
c)
To increase the sale of over-the-counter antibiotics
d)
To ban the use of antibiotics in India
BTOCLASSIFYALLANTIBIOTICSAS'NEWDRUGS'
'. Can you explain this answer?
|
Rhea chauhan answered |
Recent Recommendation by DTAB
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has made a significant recommendation regarding the classification of antibiotics in India.
Classification of Antibiotics as 'New Drugs'
- The DTAB has recommended that all antibiotics be classified as 'New Drugs'.
- This classification aims to enhance regulatory oversight and control over the prescription and sale of antibiotics.
- By treating antibiotics as 'New Drugs', it is expected that the misuse and overuse of these medications will be reduced, which is critical in combating antibiotic resistance.
Reasons for the Recommendation
- Antibiotic Resistance: Antibiotic resistance is a growing global health concern. By classifying all antibiotics as 'New Drugs', the DTAB aims to ensure that these medications are prescribed more judiciously.
- Regulatory Control: This classification will allow for stricter regulations on the sale of antibiotics, potentially limiting their availability over-the-counter and requiring prescriptions for all antibiotic medications.
- Public Health Protection: The intent is to protect public health by ensuring that antibiotics are used appropriately, thus safeguarding their effectiveness for future generations.
Conclusion
The DTAB’s recommendation is a critical step towards addressing the issue of antibiotic resistance in India. By classifying all antibiotics as 'New Drugs', the aim is to promote responsible use and enhance the management of these essential medications. This decision reflects a proactive approach to public health and aims to mitigate the risks associated with antibiotic misuse.
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has made a significant recommendation regarding the classification of antibiotics in India.
Classification of Antibiotics as 'New Drugs'
- The DTAB has recommended that all antibiotics be classified as 'New Drugs'.
- This classification aims to enhance regulatory oversight and control over the prescription and sale of antibiotics.
- By treating antibiotics as 'New Drugs', it is expected that the misuse and overuse of these medications will be reduced, which is critical in combating antibiotic resistance.
Reasons for the Recommendation
- Antibiotic Resistance: Antibiotic resistance is a growing global health concern. By classifying all antibiotics as 'New Drugs', the DTAB aims to ensure that these medications are prescribed more judiciously.
- Regulatory Control: This classification will allow for stricter regulations on the sale of antibiotics, potentially limiting their availability over-the-counter and requiring prescriptions for all antibiotic medications.
- Public Health Protection: The intent is to protect public health by ensuring that antibiotics are used appropriately, thus safeguarding their effectiveness for future generations.
Conclusion
The DTAB’s recommendation is a critical step towards addressing the issue of antibiotic resistance in India. By classifying all antibiotics as 'New Drugs', the aim is to promote responsible use and enhance the management of these essential medications. This decision reflects a proactive approach to public health and aims to mitigate the risks associated with antibiotic misuse.
Which section does the newly discovered orchid species Coelogyne tripurensis belong to?- a) Epidendrum
- b) Fuliginosae
- c) Cattleya
- d) Dendrobium
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which section does the newly discovered orchid species Coelogyne tripurensis belong to?
a)
Epidendrum
b)
Fuliginosae
c)
Cattleya
d)
Dendrobium
|
Advait Yadav answered |
Introduction to Coelogyne tripurensis
Coelogyne tripurensis is a recently discovered species of orchid that belongs to the genus Coelogyne. Understanding its classification is essential for botanists and enthusiasts alike.
Classification of Coelogyne tripurensis
- Coelogyne tripurensis is classified under the subfamily Epidendroideae.
- It is a member of the family Orchidaceae, which is one of the largest families of flowering plants.
Why Option B: Fuliginosae?
- The Fuliginosae section includes orchids that typically exhibit certain morphological characteristics, such as unique flower structures and growth habits.
- Coelogyne species are often recognized for their pseudobulbs and distinct flowers, which align with the traits found in the Fuliginosae section.
- The classification into Fuliginosae helps in understanding the ecological roles and evolutionary relationships of Coelogyne tripurensis with other orchids.
Conclusion
Understanding the classification of Coelogyne tripurensis as part of the Fuliginosae section enhances our knowledge of orchid biodiversity and conservation efforts. The identification within this section is significant for researchers focusing on taxonomy and the ecological impact of these fascinating plants.
Coelogyne tripurensis is a recently discovered species of orchid that belongs to the genus Coelogyne. Understanding its classification is essential for botanists and enthusiasts alike.
Classification of Coelogyne tripurensis
- Coelogyne tripurensis is classified under the subfamily Epidendroideae.
- It is a member of the family Orchidaceae, which is one of the largest families of flowering plants.
Why Option B: Fuliginosae?
- The Fuliginosae section includes orchids that typically exhibit certain morphological characteristics, such as unique flower structures and growth habits.
- Coelogyne species are often recognized for their pseudobulbs and distinct flowers, which align with the traits found in the Fuliginosae section.
- The classification into Fuliginosae helps in understanding the ecological roles and evolutionary relationships of Coelogyne tripurensis with other orchids.
Conclusion
Understanding the classification of Coelogyne tripurensis as part of the Fuliginosae section enhances our knowledge of orchid biodiversity and conservation efforts. The identification within this section is significant for researchers focusing on taxonomy and the ecological impact of these fascinating plants.
What percentage of India's total tea production is contributed by Assam?- a) 40%
- b) 53%
- c) 65%
- d) 75%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What percentage of India's total tea production is contributed by Assam?
a)
40%
b)
53%
c)
65%
d)
75%
|
Anirudh Verma answered |
Overview of Tea Production in India
India is one of the largest producers of tea in the world, with several states contributing to its overall production. Among these, Assam stands out as a significant player in the tea industry.
Assam's Contribution
- Assam is responsible for approximately 53% of India's total tea production.
- The state's unique climatic conditions and fertile soil make it ideal for tea cultivation, particularly for Assam tea, which is known for its robust flavor.
Significance of Assam Tea
- Assam's tea estates are renowned globally, producing both black and green tea varieties.
- The state has over 800 tea estates, employing millions of workers and contributing significantly to the local economy.
Comparison with Other Tea Producing States
- Other major tea-producing states in India include West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, but none match Assam's production levels.
- West Bengal follows Assam, contributing around 30% to the national tea output.
Conclusion
Given its substantial contribution to the national tea landscape, Assam's prominence is vital for understanding India's position in the global tea market. The figure of 53% underscores Assam's dominance, making it a key region for tea enthusiasts and producers alike.
India is one of the largest producers of tea in the world, with several states contributing to its overall production. Among these, Assam stands out as a significant player in the tea industry.
Assam's Contribution
- Assam is responsible for approximately 53% of India's total tea production.
- The state's unique climatic conditions and fertile soil make it ideal for tea cultivation, particularly for Assam tea, which is known for its robust flavor.
Significance of Assam Tea
- Assam's tea estates are renowned globally, producing both black and green tea varieties.
- The state has over 800 tea estates, employing millions of workers and contributing significantly to the local economy.
Comparison with Other Tea Producing States
- Other major tea-producing states in India include West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, but none match Assam's production levels.
- West Bengal follows Assam, contributing around 30% to the national tea output.
Conclusion
Given its substantial contribution to the national tea landscape, Assam's prominence is vital for understanding India's position in the global tea market. The figure of 53% underscores Assam's dominance, making it a key region for tea enthusiasts and producers alike.
What is the major challenge faced by enhanced rock weathering (ERW) in its practical application for climate solutions?- a) Lack of scientific research on its effectiveness.
- b) The high cost of implementing the technique.
- c) The need for vast land areas and collaboration.
- d) Difficulty in sourcing the necessary minerals.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the major challenge faced by enhanced rock weathering (ERW) in its practical application for climate solutions?
a)
Lack of scientific research on its effectiveness.
b)
The high cost of implementing the technique.
c)
The need for vast land areas and collaboration.
d)
Difficulty in sourcing the necessary minerals.
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
One of the major challenges facing enhanced rock weathering (ERW) is the requirement for extensive land areas and collaborative efforts among multiple farms or coastal regions to achieve meaningful carbon removal. This need stems from the scale at which ERW must be applied to make a significant impact on atmospheric CO2 levels. Additionally, the logistics of mining, grinding, and transporting the rock can consume considerable energy, which raises concerns about the overall carbon footprint of the process. Understanding these challenges is crucial for developing effective climate policies and solutions.
What is the primary goal of India's Mission Mausam?- a) To improve agricultural yields
- b) To enhance weather forecasting and manage extreme weather events
- c) To study the effects of climate change on flora and fauna
- d) To develop new renewable energy sources
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of India's Mission Mausam?
a)
To improve agricultural yields
b)
To enhance weather forecasting and manage extreme weather events
c)
To study the effects of climate change on flora and fauna
d)
To develop new renewable energy sources
|
Shreya jain answered |
Overview of India's Mission Mausam
India's Mission Mausam is a significant initiative aimed at improving the country’s capabilities in weather forecasting and managing extreme weather events. Launched by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), this mission seeks to enhance predictive accuracy and provide timely information related to weather patterns.
Primary Goal: Enhancing Weather Forecasting
The core objective of Mission Mausam is to develop a comprehensive system for:
Importance of Mission Mausam
This mission is particularly crucial for India due to its diverse geographical conditions and varying climate challenges. By improving weather forecasts, the mission contributes to:
In conclusion, India's Mission Mausam is pivotal in advancing meteorological science, improving disaster response, and fostering a proactive approach to weather-related challenges.
India's Mission Mausam is a significant initiative aimed at improving the country’s capabilities in weather forecasting and managing extreme weather events. Launched by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), this mission seeks to enhance predictive accuracy and provide timely information related to weather patterns.
Primary Goal: Enhancing Weather Forecasting
The core objective of Mission Mausam is to develop a comprehensive system for:
- Advanced Meteorological Services: The mission focuses on improving the precision of weather forecasts, especially during monsoon seasons, known for their unpredictability in India.
- Disaster Management: By enhancing forecasting capabilities, the mission aims to aid in the timely management of extreme weather events such as floods, cyclones, and droughts, thus minimizing loss of life and property.
- Climate Studies: The initiative also encompasses the study of climatic changes to understand their impacts on weather patterns and to devise strategies to mitigate adverse effects.
Importance of Mission Mausam
This mission is particularly crucial for India due to its diverse geographical conditions and varying climate challenges. By improving weather forecasts, the mission contributes to:
- Agricultural Planning: Farmers can plan their activities based on accurate weather predictions, thus improving agricultural yields.
- Infrastructure Resilience: Better forecasting can help in making infrastructure more resilient to weather-related impacts.
- Public Safety: Enhanced warning systems can protect communities from sudden weather changes.
In conclusion, India's Mission Mausam is pivotal in advancing meteorological science, improving disaster response, and fostering a proactive approach to weather-related challenges.
What significant feature of Mount Erebus makes it unique among volcanoes?- a) It is the largest volcano in Antarctica.
- b) It has a persistent lava lake that has been active since at least 1972.
- c) It is primarily known for explosive eruptions.
- d) It is located near a major city.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant feature of Mount Erebus makes it unique among volcanoes?
a)
It is the largest volcano in Antarctica.
b)
It has a persistent lava lake that has been active since at least 1972.
c)
It is primarily known for explosive eruptions.
d)
It is located near a major city.
|
|
Anushka sharma answered |
Unique Feature of Mount Erebus
Mount Erebus, located in Antarctica, stands out among volcanoes for a specific and remarkable feature: its persistent lava lake.
Persistent Lava Lake
- Continuous Activity: The lava lake at Mount Erebus has been active since at least 1972, making it one of the few volcanoes in the world with a long-term, stable lava lake.
- Volcanic Activity: This unique characteristic showcases a semi-continuous eruption style, allowing for constant observation of volcanic activity.
- Scientific Importance: The persistent lava lake provides a valuable opportunity for scientists to study magmatic processes and the behavior of lava in real-time.
Comparison with Other Options
- Largest Volcano: While Mount Erebus is indeed the largest active volcano in Antarctica, this fact does not distinguish it uniquely among the world's volcanoes.
- Explosive Eruptions: Unlike many volcanoes known for explosive eruptions, Mount Erebus is primarily characterized by its effusive eruptions, making its lava lake a defining feature.
- Location: The isolation of Mount Erebus in a remote region of Antarctica means it is not located near a major city, which further emphasizes the uniqueness of its persistent lava lake rather than its accessibility or proximity.
Conclusion
In summary, the persistent lava lake at Mount Erebus is what makes it a significant and unique feature among volcanoes globally, contributing to its scientific interest and volcanic study.
Mount Erebus, located in Antarctica, stands out among volcanoes for a specific and remarkable feature: its persistent lava lake.
Persistent Lava Lake
- Continuous Activity: The lava lake at Mount Erebus has been active since at least 1972, making it one of the few volcanoes in the world with a long-term, stable lava lake.
- Volcanic Activity: This unique characteristic showcases a semi-continuous eruption style, allowing for constant observation of volcanic activity.
- Scientific Importance: The persistent lava lake provides a valuable opportunity for scientists to study magmatic processes and the behavior of lava in real-time.
Comparison with Other Options
- Largest Volcano: While Mount Erebus is indeed the largest active volcano in Antarctica, this fact does not distinguish it uniquely among the world's volcanoes.
- Explosive Eruptions: Unlike many volcanoes known for explosive eruptions, Mount Erebus is primarily characterized by its effusive eruptions, making its lava lake a defining feature.
- Location: The isolation of Mount Erebus in a remote region of Antarctica means it is not located near a major city, which further emphasizes the uniqueness of its persistent lava lake rather than its accessibility or proximity.
Conclusion
In summary, the persistent lava lake at Mount Erebus is what makes it a significant and unique feature among volcanoes globally, contributing to its scientific interest and volcanic study.
What is the primary purpose of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system in India?- a) To encourage farmers to grow more cash crops
- b) To protect agricultural producers from significant drops in prices
- c) To subsidize the import of agricultural products
- d) To eliminate government intervention in agricultural markets
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system in India?
a)
To encourage farmers to grow more cash crops
b)
To protect agricultural producers from significant drops in prices
c)
To subsidize the import of agricultural products
d)
To eliminate government intervention in agricultural markets
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The primary purpose of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system in India is to protect agricultural producers against significant drops in prices, particularly during years of high production. By ensuring that farmers receive a guaranteed minimum price for their crops, the MSP helps prevent distress sales and supports the procurement of food grains for distribution. This system serves as a crucial market intervention tool to stabilize farmers' incomes.
What recent strategic shift has India made in its trade negotiations?- a) It is aggressively pursuing new free trade agreements with all countries.
- b) It has paused negotiations for free trade agreements with smaller countries.
- c) It is focusing solely on trade with the United States.
- d) It has increased its trade agreements with China.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What recent strategic shift has India made in its trade negotiations?
a)
It is aggressively pursuing new free trade agreements with all countries.
b)
It has paused negotiations for free trade agreements with smaller countries.
c)
It is focusing solely on trade with the United States.
d)
It has increased its trade agreements with China.
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
India has adopted a more cautious approach by halting free trade agreement discussions with smaller nations. This decision is driven by concerns that previous agreements have disproportionately favored partner countries, leading to a widening trade gap and investment outflows from India. This strategic shift reflects India's priority to reassess and improve the benefits derived from trade agreements.
Which of the following platforms was noted for providing a minimum wage that meets or exceeds local standards in the Fairwork India Ratings 2024 report?- a) Zomato
- b) Swiggy
- c) Bigbasket
- d) Uber
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following platforms was noted for providing a minimum wage that meets or exceeds local standards in the Fairwork India Ratings 2024 report?
a)
Zomato
b)
Swiggy
c)
Bigbasket
d)
Uber
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Bigbasket was the only platform that earned a point under the Fair Pay assessment for ensuring that its workers receive a minimum wage that meets or exceeds the local minimum wage, after accounting for work-related expenses. This demonstrates the critical role that fair compensation plays in the gig economy and highlights the need for other platforms to adopt similar practices to improve the working conditions for gig workers.
Consider the following pairs related to geographical and historical features:1. English Channel: Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea2. Kawal Tiger Reserve: Located in the state of Andhra Pradesh3. Dravidian Style of Architecture: Features include Gopuram and Vimana4. Maldives: Located in the Pacific OceanHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to geographical and historical features:
1. English Channel: Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea
2. Kawal Tiger Reserve: Located in the state of Andhra Pradesh
3. Dravidian Style of Architecture: Features include Gopuram and Vimana
4. Maldives: Located in the Pacific Ocean
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
1. English Channel: Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea
- Incorrect. The English Channel connects the Atlantic Ocean to the North Sea, through the Strait of Dover, and not to the Mediterranean Sea.
- Incorrect. The English Channel connects the Atlantic Ocean to the North Sea, through the Strait of Dover, and not to the Mediterranean Sea.
2. Kawal Tiger Reserve: Located in the state of Andhra Pradesh
- Incorrect. Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana, not Andhra Pradesh.
- Incorrect. Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana, not Andhra Pradesh.
3. Dravidian Style of Architecture: Features include Gopuram and Vimana
- Correct. The Dravidian style of architecture is characterized by features such as the Gopuram (entrance gateway) and Vimana (main tower).
- Correct. The Dravidian style of architecture is characterized by features such as the Gopuram (entrance gateway) and Vimana (main tower).
4. Maldives: Located in the Pacific Ocean
- Incorrect. The Maldives is located in the Indian Ocean, not the Pacific Ocean.
- Incorrect. The Maldives is located in the Indian Ocean, not the Pacific Ocean.
Hence, only one pair is correctly matched.
What is the current population estimate of the Indian Wild Ass in Gujarat according to the latest census?- a) 5,432
- b) 7,672
- c) 9,210
- d) 10,050
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the current population estimate of the Indian Wild Ass in Gujarat according to the latest census?
a)
5,432
b)
7,672
c)
9,210
d)
10,050
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The latest census estimates the population of the Indian Wild Ass in Gujarat to be 7,672 individuals. This number reflects conservation efforts and habitat management initiatives aimed at protecting this unique species, which is adapted to thrive in harsh desert conditions. An interesting fact about the Indian Wild Ass, also known as "khur," is its remarkable adaptability to extreme environments, allowing it to survive with limited water resources.
What is the primary function of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in the Indian Parliament?- a) To draft new laws and regulations
- b) To examine annual audit reports and review government spending
- c) To oversee the appointment of financial regulators
- d) To conduct judicial inquiries into government actions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary function of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in the Indian Parliament?
a)
To draft new laws and regulations
b)
To examine annual audit reports and review government spending
c)
To oversee the appointment of financial regulators
d)
To conduct judicial inquiries into government actions
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The primary function of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is to examine the annual audit reports presented to Parliament by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) and to review government spending to ensure it aligns with parliamentary grants and approvals. This role is crucial for maintaining financial accountability and transparency in government operations. Interestingly, while the PAC's recommendations hold significant moral weight, they are not legally binding, which highlights its role as an advisory body rather than a controlling authority.
Chapter doubts & questions for October 2024 - General Test Preparation for CUET UG 2025 is part of CUET Commerce exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CUET Commerce exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CUET Commerce 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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General Test Preparation for CUET UG
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