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All questions of July 2024 for CUET Commerce Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The concept of a shadow cabinet is primarily found in presidential democracies where the Opposition directly replaces the ruling government during times of crisis.
Statement-II: The shadow cabinet serves as a formal advisory body to the President, offering alternative policy suggestions and recommendations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    None of these
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Both Statements are incorrect
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
  • Statement-I is wrong because the shadow cabinet is not found in presidential democracies , but rather in parliamentary systems . In presidential systems, the opposition does not replace the ruling government, even in crises.
  • Statement-II is also wrong because a shadow cabinet does not serve as a formal advisory body to the President . It operates within the opposition party to challenge government policies and propose alternatives, but it has no official or constitutional role in advising the executive.
Final Answer:Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
Clear all your doubts with EduRev

Which of the following statements about the Brahmaputra River are correct?
  1. The Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas.
  2. It flows through China, Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh.
  3. The Brahmaputra is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 only 
  • c)
    1 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Basu answered
Overview of the Brahmaputra River
The Brahmaputra River is one of the major rivers in the world, and its geographical and cultural significance is immense.
Correct Statements
- 1. The Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas.
- This statement is correct. The river originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, which is part of the larger Himalayan range.
- 2. It flows through China, Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh.
- This statement is also correct. The Brahmaputra flows through these four countries, making it a transboundary river that plays a crucial role in the ecosystems and economies of the regions it traverses.
- 3. The Brahmaputra is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet.
- This statement is correct as well. In Tibet, the river is referred to as the Yarlung Tsangpo before it enters India.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, statements 1, 2, and 3 are all accurate regarding the Brahmaputra River. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'd) 1, 2 and 3'. However, if you were informed that the correct answer is option 'C', it seems there might be a misunderstanding, as all three statements are indeed correct.
Significance
Understanding the Brahmaputra's course and naming conventions is crucial for geographical studies, environmental conservation, and cultural awareness in the regions it influences.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Soil degradation is defined as a change in soil health status resulting in a diminished capacity of the ecosystem to provide goods and services for its beneficiaries. It involves biological, chemical, and physical decline in soil quality. Soil degradation encompasses a broad range of processes that reduce soil health and its ability to function properly within its ecosystem.
Statement-II: UNESCO states that according to the World Atlas of Desertification, 75% of soils are already degraded, directly affecting 3.2 billion people. The current trend may increase the impact to 90% by 2050.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Statement-II provides specific data and a projection regarding the extent of soil degradation according to UNESCO, while Statement-I gives a general definition of soil degradation. Statement-II supports Statement-I by exemplifying the seriousness of the issue, explaining how soil degradation affects billions of people and emphasizing the scope of the problem globally. Therefore, in this context, both statements are accurate and complement each other, making option (a) the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Dhanush - 155 mm Artillery Gun
2. Tejas - Light Combat Aircraft
3. Vikrant - Submarine
4. HAL - Bharat Electronics Ltd
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anisha Singh answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's analyze each one:

1. Dhanush - 155 mm Artillery Gun
- This pair is **correctly matched**. Dhanush is indeed a 155 mm towed artillery gun developed by India.

2. Tejas - Light Combat Aircraft
- This pair is **correctly matched**. Tejas is a lightweight, multi-role supersonic fighter aircraft developed by HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited) for the Indian Air Force.

3. Vikrant - Submarine
- This pair is **incorrectly matched**. Vikrant refers to India's aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant, and not a submarine.

4. HAL - Bharat Electronics Ltd
- This pair is **incorrectly matched**. HAL stands for Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, a company focused on aerospace and defense, while Bharat Electronics Ltd is a separate entity specializing in electronics and communication systems.

Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only the first two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is:

Only two pairs are correctly matched (Option B).

Consider the following statements:
1. India is the fifth largest maize producer in the world, accounting for 2.59% of global production in 2020.
2. Maize is the second most important cereal crop in India after rice.
3. Private-sector hybrids dominate over 80% of maize cultivation in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Correct. India is indeed the fifth largest maize producer, accounting for 2.59% of global production in 2020.
2. Incorrect. Maize is the third most important cereal crop in India after rice and wheat, not the second.
3. Correct. The private sector dominates over 80% of maize cultivation in India, especially through hybrid varieties.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only.

Which phase of RIMPAC 2024 involved complex maritime activities?
  • a)
    Harbor phase
  • b)
    Sea phase
  • c)
    Diplomatic phase
  • d)
    Innovation phase
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Glance Learning Institute answered
The sea phase of RIMPAC 2024 involved complex maritime activities such as aircraft carrier operations, submarine maneuvers, and amphibious force landing operations.

Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023:
1. The DPDPA mandates that all personal data must be processed within India to enhance data security.
2. The Act requires verifiable parental consent for processing children's data.
3. The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is responsible for overseeing compliance and handling disputes related to data protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The DPDPA requires that sensitive data must be stored and processed within India, not all personal data. This requirement is aimed at enhancing data security and facilitating law enforcement, but it does not apply to all personal data.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Section 9 of the DPDPA requires verifiable parental consent for processing children's data. This provision is designed to protect children from harmful data processing and ad targeting.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is indeed responsible for overseeing compliance, handling disputes, and imposing penalties for violations, ensuring that the Act is effectively implemented.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

What is a key feature of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023 that empowers individuals regarding their personal data?
  • a)
    Right to Data Privacy
  • b)
    Mandatory Data Sharing
  • c)
    Anonymous Data Processing
  • d)
    Data Export Without Consent
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023 grants individuals the right to access, correct, and erase their personal data, thereby giving them more control over their information. This feature ensures that individuals have the power to manage and safeguard their personal data according to their preferences and requirements, enhancing their data privacy rights.

What was the origin year of the Rim of the Pacific Exercise (RIMPAC)?
  • a)
    1980
  • b)
    1965
  • c)
    1971
  • d)
    1990
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Knowledge Hub answered
RIMPAC, the world's largest maritime warfare exercise, was initiated in 1971 by the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet.

Consider the following statements about ASMITA project:
  1. It was initiated by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  2. It includes a component of financial literacy to help women manage their finances better.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Context: The Ministry of Education and the University Grants Commission (UGC) launched the ASMITA project to develop 22,000 books in Indian languages over the next five years.
  • This initiative, in collaboration with the Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti, aims to promote Indian languages in education.
  • The project includes three key components: ASMITA, Bahubhasha Shabdkosh, and Real-time Translation Architecture.
  • These initiatives are expected to enhance learning in Indian languages, empower students, and preserve linguistic traditions, aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP).
  • Thirteen nodal universities will lead the project, with a standard operating procedure (SOP) guiding the book-writing process.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Lighthouses are primarily used for entertainment and recreational purposes only.
Statement-II: Lighthouses serve as navigational aids, guiding ships and marking dangerous coastlines.
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
 Statement-I is incorrect because lighthouses are not designed for entertainment or recreational purposes; they function solely as navigational aids. Statement-II correctly describes the role of lighthouses in guiding ships and marking dangerous coastlines. Hence, the correct answer is Option d.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Traumatic Asphyxia - External compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
2. Panic - A secondary factor contributing to stampedes.
3. High crowd density - When density approaches 2-3 persons per square meter.
4. Controlled crowd flow management - Poor regulation of pedestrian movement.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
1. Traumatic Asphyxia - External compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
- Correct. Traumatic asphyxia is indeed caused by external compression of the thorax or upper abdomen, leading to difficulty in breathing.
2. Panic - A secondary factor contributing to stampedes.
- Incorrect. Panic is a primary trigger or amplifier of stampedes, not a secondary factor.
3. High crowd density - When density approaches 2-3 persons per square meter.
- Incorrect. High crowd density is considered a factor contributing to stampedes when the density approaches 3-4 persons per square meter, not 2-3.
4. Controlled crowd flow management - Poor regulation of pedestrian movement.
- Incorrect. The correct term should be "Poor crowd flow management," indicating failure to regulate pedestrian movement, which contributes to stampedes.
Thus, only one pair (Pair 1) is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding floods in Assam:
1. Assam has more than 120 rivers, several of which originate from high rainfall areas, leading to sediment accumulation in the Brahmaputra river.
2. Climate change, including the melting of glaciers and snow caps in the Tibetan Plateau, has increased water flow in the Brahmaputra, contributing to more frequent flooding in Assam.
3. The construction of embankments in Assam has significantly reduced the frequency and severity of floods in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Assam has more than 120 rivers, many of which originate from high rainfall areas. This contributes to sediment accumulation in the Brahmaputra river, exacerbating the flood situation. The large number of rivers and the significant rainfall in the region are primary causes of flooding.
- Statement 2 is correct. Climate change has indeed led to the melting of glaciers and snow caps in the Tibetan Plateau, increasing the water flow in the Brahmaputra river. This has contributed to the more frequent and severe flooding in Assam.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The construction of embankments has not significantly reduced the frequency and severity of floods in Assam. In fact, embankments can sometimes exacerbate flooding by restricting the natural flow of water and causing breaches during extreme weather conditions.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Flash Floods: Caused by heavy rainfall, rapid snowmelt, or storm surge.
2. River Floods: Associated with tropical cyclones and tsunamis.
3. Coastal Floods: Result from consistent rain or snowmelt forcing a river to exceed capacity.
4. National Flood Management Programme (NFMP): Provides a flexible framework for states to implement flood control measures.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Flash Floods: Correctly matched. Flash floods are indeed caused by rapid and excessive rainfall, rapid snowmelt, or storm surge, which quickly raises water heights.
2. River Floods: Incorrectly matched. River floods are not associated with tropical cyclones and tsunamis. They occur when consistent rain or snowmelt forces a river to exceed its capacity.
3. Coastal Floods: Incorrectly matched. Coastal floods result from storm surges associated with tropical cyclones and tsunamis, not from consistent rain or snowmelt forcing a river to exceed capacity.
4. National Flood Management Programme (NFMP): Correctly matched. The NFMP provides a flexible framework for states to implement flood control measures.
So, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched. Pairs 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements regarding India's lithium mining challenges:
1. The lithium reserves in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district are primarily hard rock deposits.
2. The block in Reasi district is currently at the G2 level of exploration according to the United Nations Framework Classification for Resources (UNFC).
3. The absence of a beneficiation study for the J&K lithium block has raised concerns among potential bidders about the economic viability of the project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The lithium reserves in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district are primarily clay deposits, not hard rock deposits. Clay deposits for lithium have not yet been commercially proven on a global scale, making the path to commercialisation uncertain.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The block in Reasi district is currently at the G3 level of exploration according to the United Nations Framework Classification for Resources (UNFC). The G3 level provides preliminary and less confident estimates of the mineral reserves.
3. Statement 3 is correct: The absence of a beneficiation study to evaluate the feasibility of extracting and processing lithium has indeed raised concerns among potential bidders about the economic viability of the project.
Given these points, the correct answer is Option C: 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Bhutan: Rs 2,068.56 crore
2. Nepal: Rs 700 crore
3. Maldives: Rs 770.90 crore
4. Sri Lanka: Rs 245 crore
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Bhutan: Rs 2,068.56 crore - Correct. Bhutan received Rs 2,068.56 crore in aid.
2. Nepal: Rs 700 crore - Correct. Nepal was allocated Rs 700 crore.
3. Maldives: Rs 770.90 crore - Incorrect. Maldives maintained a consistent allocation of Rs 400 crore, despite a higher revised amount of Rs 770.90 crore for the previous year.
4. Sri Lanka: Rs 245 crore - Correct. Sri Lanka received Rs 245 crore.
Hence, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. GM Mustard - Developed by hybridizing Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'
2. Barnase and Barstar Genes - Isolated from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
3. Kargil Vijay Diwas - Celebrated to honor soldiers of the 1971 war
4. National War Memorial - Inaugurated in 2019 to commemorate soldiers in various conflicts
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. GM Mustard - Correctly matched. GM Mustard was indeed developed by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'.
2. Barnase and Barstar Genes - Correctly matched. These genes are isolated from the soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.
3. Kargil Vijay Diwas - Incorrectly matched. Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated to honor the soldiers who fought in the Kargil War of 1999, not the 1971 war.
4. National War Memorial - Correctly matched. The National War Memorial was inaugurated in 2019 to commemorate soldiers who sacrificed their lives in various conflicts and missions.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the main objective of the World Health Organization's (WHO) REPLACE action framework mentioned in the text?
  • a)
    To promote the consumption of trans fats globally
  • b)
    To encourage countries to maintain current levels of trans fat consumption
  • c)
    To facilitate the elimination of industrially produced trans fats
  • d)
    To increase the production of foods containing trans fats
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The WHO's REPLACE action framework aims to facilitate the elimination of industrially produced trans fats globally. This initiative focuses on encouraging countries to enact and enforce best-practice policies, engage in validation programs, and encourage companies to reformulate products to eliminate trans fats. By implementing this framework, the goal is to significantly reduce the health risks associated with trans fat consumption and improve public health outcomes.

What does the term "soil degradation" refer to?
  • a)
    A positive change in soil health status
  • b)
    An increase in the capacity of the ecosystem to provide goods and services
  • c)
    A change in soil health status resulting in a diminished capacity of the ecosystem
  • d)
    A process that enhances soil quality over time
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Soil degradation refers to a change in soil health status resulting in a diminished capacity of the ecosystem to provide goods and services. It involves a decline in soil quality due to various factors like physical, biological, and chemical processes. This degradation impacts the ecosystem's ability to function properly and provide essential services.

What major theme does the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit highlight in terms of diplomatic achievements?
  • a)
    Promotion of cultural exchanges between India and Russia
  • b)
    Strengthening economic ties through new trade agreements
  • c)
    Recognition of strategic partnership with a prestigious award
  • d)
    Emphasis on environmental sustainability initiatives
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
The 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit prominently highlighted the recognition of the strategic partnership between the two nations with a significant honor. President Vladimir Putin conferred Russia's highest civilian honour, the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle," on Prime Minister Narendra Modi. This award signifies the appreciation for Prime Minister Modi's efforts in promoting the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India.

What is the primary purpose of a shadow cabinet in parliamentary democracies?
  • a)
    To replace the ruling government's cabinet entirely
  • b)
    To mirror and critique the actions of the ruling government
  • c)
    To assist the ruling government in policy implementation
  • d)
    To oversee the functioning of the upper house in parliament
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The primary role of a shadow cabinet in parliamentary democracies is to mirror and critique the actions of the ruling government across various departments and ministries. By shadowing specific ministries, members of the shadow cabinet gain in-depth knowledge and expertise, allowing them to effectively challenge government policies during parliamentary debates. This mechanism ensures robust scrutiny of executive actions, fosters informed debates on public policies, and presents the opposition as a credible alternative to governance.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: GM Mustard was developed in India by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2' (Eastern European variety).
Statement-II: GM Mustard is classified as a Herbicide Tolerant (HT) mustard variety engineered to withstand specific herbicides, aiding in weed control and crop yield enhancement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I is incorrect because GM Mustard was not developed by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'. It was developed through hybridization involving other varieties. However, Statement-II is correct as GM Mustard is indeed a Herbicide Tolerant (HT) variety designed to resist specific herbicides, aiding in weed control and enhancing crop yields.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's efforts to secure domestic lithium resources have faced challenges, with the cancellation of an auction for a lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district.
Statement-II: Lithium extraction from hard rock pegmatite deposits is a straightforward process that does not involve complex and costly processing stages.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
Statement-I accurately reflects the challenges faced by India in securing domestic lithium resources, as highlighted in the provided information. On the other hand, Statement-II is incorrect. Lithium extraction from hard rock pegmatite deposits is a complex process that involves multiple intricate and costly processing stages, contrary to the claim that it is a straightforward process. This discrepancy makes Option (c) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's public spending on food security and nutrition has seen significant increases in recent years.
Statement-II: India's Global Hunger Index (GHI) ranking has improved consistently over the past decade.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

S.S Career Academy answered
Statement-I mentions that India's public spending on food security and nutrition has seen significant increases in recent years, which is a correct statement based on the information provided in the text. However, Statement-II claims that India's Global Hunger Index (GHI) ranking has improved consistently over the past decade, which is incorrect as per the information provided. In reality, India's GHI ranking has been a cause for concern, indicating significant issues in food security.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Tangasseri Lighthouse, Kerala - Tallest lighthouse in Kerala
2. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse, Tamil Nadu - Built by the British in 1901
3. Kaup Beach Lighthouse, Karnataka - Constructed by the Pallava dynasty
4. Fort Aguada Lighthouse, Goa - Portuguese structure
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
1. Tangasseri Lighthouse, Kerala - Tallest lighthouse in Kerala: Correct. Tangasseri Lighthouse in Kollam is indeed the tallest lighthouse in Kerala.
2. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse, Tamil Nadu - Built by the British in 1901: Incorrect. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse was built next to an ancient lighthouse commissioned by Mahendra Pallava of the Pallava dynasty, not by the British in 1901.
3. Kaup Beach Lighthouse, Karnataka - Constructed by the Pallava dynasty: Incorrect. Kaup Beach Lighthouse was constructed by the British in 1901, not by the Pallava dynasty.
4. Fort Aguada Lighthouse, Goa - Portuguese structure: Correct. Fort Aguada Lighthouse is a well-preserved Portuguese structure.
Hence, only the pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

What potential risk is associated with CAR-T therapy, a related advanced treatment?
  • a)
    High risk of infection
  • b)
    Development of secondary cancers
  • c)
    Memory loss
  • d)
    Increased blood pressure
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Knowledge Hub answered
CAR-T therapy, an innovative approach to treating cancer, has a potential risk of triggering secondary cancers due to genetic alterations during the treatment process, although this risk is relatively low compared to the benefits.

Which part of the brain did surgeons target with the DBS device in Oran Knowlson's case?
  • a)
    Hippocampus
  • b)
    Thalamus
  • c)
    Cerebellum
  • d)
    Frontal lobe
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Glance Learning Institute answered
In Oran Knowlson's case, the DBS device was implanted directly into the thalamus, a crucial brain region involved in sensory and movement signal transmission, to control epileptic seizures.

Who was the first person to receive a brain implant for controlling epileptic seizures?
  • a)
    John Smith
  • b)
    Oran Knowlson
  • c)
    Mary Johnson
  • d)
    Thomas Anderson
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev CLAT answered
Oran Knowlson, a teenager from the United Kingdom, became the first person globally to receive a brain implant for controlling epileptic seizures.

Which of the following exercises involves India, Bangladesh, and Thailand?
  • a)
    RIMPAC
  • b)
    Malabar
  • c)
    IN-BN-THAI CORPAT
  • d)
    Sampriti
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev CLAT answered
The trilateral naval exercise "IN-BN-THAI CORPAT" involves India, Bangladesh, and Thailand, focusing on maritime cooperation in the region.

What was the reason behind the cancellation of the auction for the lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district for the second time?
  • a)
    Lack of interested bidders
  • b)
    Unfavorable government regulations
  • c)
    Concerns over environmental impact
  • d)
    Insufficient lithium reserves
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The repeated cancellation of the auction for the lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district was primarily due to the lack of interested bidders. Despite regulatory provisions allowing for a second round of auction with fewer than three qualifying bidders, the absence of interested parties indicated significant investor hesitation in the project.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Both statements are correct. Statement-I highlights the fact that the atmosphere is primarily heated by incoming solar radiation. Statement-II complements this by explaining that greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide are efficient absorbers of long wave radiation, which is crucial for understanding how the atmosphere retains heat. Greenhouse gases absorb some of the Earth's outgoing longwave radiation, trapping heat in the atmosphere and contributing to the greenhouse effect. This synergy between solar radiation and greenhouse gases elucidates the dynamics of atmospheric heating.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines a “Money Bill” as one containing provisions dealing with taxes, regulation of the government’s borrowing of money, and expenditure or receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  2. A major difference between money and Financial Bills is that while the latter has the provision of including the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations, the former does not make their inclusion mandatory.
  3. While an ordinary Bill can originate in either house, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
  4. Amendments relating to the reduction or abolition of any tax are exempt from the requirement of the President’s recommendation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • Article 110 defines a “Money Bill” as one containing provisions dealing with taxes, regulation of the government’s borrowing of money, and expenditure or receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, among others, whereas Article 109 delineates the procedure for the passage of such a Bill and confers an overriding authority on the Lok Sabha in the passage of Money Bills.
  • A major difference between money and Financial Bills is that while the latter has the provision of including the Rajya Sabha’s (Upper House) recommendations, the former does not make their inclusion mandatory. The Lok Sabha has the right to reject the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations when it comes to Money Bills.
  • What differentiates a Money Bill from any ordinary Bill or Financial Bill is that while an ordinary Bill can originate in either house, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as laid down in Article 117 (1). Additionally, no one can introduce or move Money Bills in the Lok Sabha, except on the President’s recommendation. Amendments relating to the reduction or abolition of any tax are exempt from the requirement of the President’s recommendation.
  • The two prerequisites for any financial Bill to become a Money Bill are that first, it must only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. Secondly, these bills can only be introduced on the President’s recommendation.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Global Soil Partnership (GSP) - World Soil Day
2. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) - Bonn Challenge
3. Soil Health Card Scheme - Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL)
4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) - Sustainable Development Goal 15
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Global Soil Partnership (GSP) - World Soil Day: Correctly matched. The Global Soil Partnership (GSP) is indeed associated with World Soil Day, which aims to raise awareness of the importance of soil health.
2. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) - Bonn Challenge: Incorrectly matched. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) is a concept under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), while the Bonn Challenge is a separate initiative focused on forest landscape restoration.
3. Soil Health Card Scheme - Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL): Incorrectly matched. The Soil Health Card Scheme is an initiative by the Indian government to promote soil health, whereas Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL) is a global initiative aimed at enhancing soil carbon stocks.
4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) - Sustainable Development Goal 15: Incorrectly matched. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is an Indian government scheme to promote organic farming, not directly linked to Sustainable Development Goal 15, which focuses on life on land, including biodiversity conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.
Thus, only the first pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) set a target to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by the end of 2023.
2. Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first countries to receive the TFA Validation Certificate from WHO.
3. By 2023, WHO's REPLACE action framework had impacted 3.7 billion people, a substantial increase from 6% coverage five years earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) set a target to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by the end of 2023.
This statement is correct. In 2018, WHO indeed set a goal to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by 2023, recognizing their significant health risks and contribution to heart disease.
2. Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first countries to receive the TFA Validation Certificate from WHO.
This statement is correct. WHO initiated a Validation Programme to recognize countries that achieved TFA elimination goals, and Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first to receive this certificate.
3. By 2023, WHO's REPLACE action framework had impacted 3.7 billion people, a substantial increase from 6% coverage five years earlier.
This statement is correct. The REPLACE action framework by WHO facilitated the adoption of best-practice policies in 53 countries by 2023, significantly impacting 3.7 billion people, up from 6% coverage five years prior.
All three statements are correct, hence the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2 and 3.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor – Transport and Connectivity
2. Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle – Economic Cooperation
3. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR – Joint Exercise with Australia
4. Ex INDRA – Joint Exercise with Russia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor – Transport and Connectivity- Correct. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a transport and connectivity initiative aimed at enhancing maritime links between India and Russia.
2. Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle – Economic Cooperation- Incorrect. The Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle is Russia's highest civilian honor given to Prime Minister Narendra Modi for promoting the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India. It falls under Diplomatic Achievements, not Economic Cooperation.
3. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR – Joint Exercise with Australia- Incorrect. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR is a joint military exercise between India and the United Kingdom, not Australia.
4. Ex INDRA – Joint Exercise with Russia- Correct. Ex INDRA is a joint military exercise conducted by India and Russia, aimed at enhancing bilateral defense cooperation.
Thus, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

What has been a significant shift in India's maize industry in recent years?
  • a)
    Transition from using maize primarily for human consumption to being used for industrial purposes.
  • b)
    Decrease in maize production leading to a rise in imports.
  • c)
    Shift from hybrid maize cultivation to traditional varieties.
  • d)
    Increased reliance on government subsidies for maize farmers.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
In recent years, India's maize industry has witnessed a remarkable transformation with a significant shift from primarily using maize as feed to becoming a crucial component in the fuel and industrial sectors. This shift signifies a broader green revolution in maize, similar to the advancements seen in wheat and rice production. This evolution has been largely driven by private-sector innovations, marking a significant change in the maize industry's landscape.
Remember, the shift towards using maize for industrial purposes highlights the industry's adaptability and responsiveness to changing demands and opportunities in the market.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Passing contentious amendments as a Money Bill allows the government to circumvent the Rajya Sabha, undermining the bicameral nature of Parliament.
Statement-II: The classification of a bill as a money bill limits the Rajya Sabha to only recommending changes, without the power to amend or reject the bill.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement-I correctly highlights that passing contentious amendments as a Money Bill enables the government to bypass the Rajya Sabha, impacting the bicameral nature of Parliament. This is a key concern associated with the use of Money Bills.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. The classification of a bill as a Money Bill does limit the Rajya Sabha's powers, but it goes beyond just recommending changes. In reality, under Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. Therefore, the statement that the Rajya Sabha can recommend changes is inaccurate.

What is the primary objective of the China Plus One strategy in global manufacturing?
  • a)
    To solely rely on China for manufacturing operations
  • b)
    To diversify manufacturing and supply chains beyond China
  • c)
    To establish manufacturing hubs only in developed countries
  • d)
    To reduce manufacturing costs in China
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The China Plus One strategy aims to diversify manufacturing and supply chains by establishing operations in countries other than China. This approach helps mitigate risks associated with over-reliance on a single country and addresses concerns related to geopolitical tensions and supply chain disruptions.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's Deep Drill Mission aims to drill the Earth's crust to a depth of 6 km for scientific research purposes.
Statement-II: Scientific deep drilling primarily focuses on extracting fossil fuels from deep within the Earth's crust.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I correctly describes India's Deep Drill Mission, which is focused on drilling the Earth's crust to a depth of 6 km for scientific purposes, as mentioned in the provided information. However, Statement-II is incorrect as scientific deep drilling, as discussed in the text, is not primarily aimed at extracting fossil fuels but rather at studying the Earth's composition, structure, geological formations, and processes.

The Bonn Challenge is related to: 
  • a)
    Reducing greenhouse gas emissions by promoting the use of renewable energy sources. 
  • b)
    Restoring degraded and deforested landscapes to enhance biodiversity and ecosystem services. 
  • c)
    Promoting sustainable agriculture practices to increase food security. 
  • d)
    Reducing marine pollution and protecting oceanic ecosystems.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The Bonn Challenge is a global effort launched in 2011 by the Government of Germany and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Its primary goal is to restore 150 million hectares of deforested and degraded land by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. The challenge focuses on restoring landscapes to improve biodiversity, increase ecosystem services such as water and soil quality, and mitigate climate change by sequestering carbon. This initiative is crucial for enhancing ecological integrity and supporting sustainable development goals.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Lithium Block in Reasi district - Clay deposits
2. Successful auction in Chhattisgarh - Hard rock lithium deposits
3. Exploration in Ladakh - Positive results leading to further exploration
4. Exploration in Manipur - Stalled due to local resistance
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
1. Lithium Block in Reasi district - Clay deposits: Correctly matched. The lithium reserves in J&K's Reasi district are primarily clay deposits.
2. Successful auction in Chhattisgarh - Hard rock lithium deposits: Correctly matched. The successful auction in Korba district, Chhattisgarh, involved hard rock lithium deposits.
3. Exploration in Ladakh - Positive results leading to further exploration: Incorrectly matched. Exploration in Ladakh's Merak block yielded disappointing results, leading to suggestions to drop exploration efforts.
4. Exploration in Manipur - Stalled due to local resistance: Correctly matched. Lithium exploration efforts in Kamjong district, Manipur, have been stalled due to local resistance.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, making it a total of three correctly matched pairs. 
Explanation:
- The lithium reserves in Reasi are indeed clay deposits, which have not been commercially proven yet.
- In Chhattisgarh, the auction involved hard rock lithium deposits.
- Exploration in Ladakh was not successful, contrary to what is stated in the pair.
- Local resistance has indeed stalled exploration efforts in Manipur.

Consider the following statements:
1. The India AI Mission aims to create a computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs.
2. The initial phase of the India AI Mission involves procuring 1,000 GPUs to kickstart the project.
3. The India AI Datasets Platform provides access to personal datasets for startups and researchers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Statement 1 is correct because the India AI Mission indeed aims to create a computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The initial phase of the India AI Mission involves procuring 300 to 500 GPUs, not 1,000 GPUs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The India AI Datasets Platform provides access to non-personal datasets for startups and researchers, not personal datasets.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

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