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All questions of DU LLB Mock Tests for CLAT Exam
Direction: Find the missing term in the series:A, D, ?, P, Y- a)G
- b)H
- c)I
- d)J
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: Find the missing term in the series:
A, D, ?, P, Y
a)
G
b)
H
c)
I
d)
J
|
Sheikha Shah answered |
Finding the missing term in the series
Given series: A, D, ?, P, Y
To find: Missing term in the series
Solution:
The given series follows a pattern where each term is the next letter in the alphabetical order of the previous term, except for the missing term.
A → D → ? → P → Y
The first letter of the series is A, which is the first letter of the alphabet.
The second letter is D, which is three letters down from A in the alphabet.
The fourth letter is P, which is four letters down from D in the alphabet.
The fifth letter is Y, which is five letters down from P in the alphabet.
Therefore, the missing term in the series must be two letters down from D in the alphabet, which is the letter 'I'.
Hence, the missing term in the series is 'I'.
Option (C) is the correct answer.
Given series: A, D, ?, P, Y
To find: Missing term in the series
Solution:
The given series follows a pattern where each term is the next letter in the alphabetical order of the previous term, except for the missing term.
A → D → ? → P → Y
The first letter of the series is A, which is the first letter of the alphabet.
The second letter is D, which is three letters down from A in the alphabet.
The fourth letter is P, which is four letters down from D in the alphabet.
The fifth letter is Y, which is five letters down from P in the alphabet.
Therefore, the missing term in the series must be two letters down from D in the alphabet, which is the letter 'I'.
Hence, the missing term in the series is 'I'.
Option (C) is the correct answer.
Camry is to the west of Bob and southwest of Adam. David is to the northwest of Adam and north of Camry, along a straight line with Adam and Bob. In which direction from the position of Adam is Bob?- a)Southeast
- b)Southwest
- c)Northeast
- d)Northwest
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Camry is to the west of Bob and southwest of Adam. David is to the northwest of Adam and north of Camry, along a straight line with Adam and Bob. In which direction from the position of Adam is Bob?
a)
Southeast
b)
Southwest
c)
Northeast
d)
Northwest
|
Humaira Naaz answered |
Southeast
According to RBI data, the all-India HPI rose by how many per cent year-on-year in the first quarter of 2022-23?- a)4.5%
- b)6.5%
- c)3.5%
- d)5.5%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
According to RBI data, the all-India HPI rose by how many per cent year-on-year in the first quarter of 2022-23?
a)
4.5%
b)
6.5%
c)
3.5%
d)
5.5%
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
According to RBI data, the all-India house price index (HPI) rose by 3.5 per cent year-on-year in the first quarter of 2022-23.
Directions: In the following question, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.SCURRY : MOVE- a)Sleep : Drowse
- b)Agenda : Meeting
- c)Chatter : Talk
- d)Chant : Sing
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the following question, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
SCURRY : MOVE
a)
Sleep : Drowse
b)
Agenda : Meeting
c)
Chatter : Talk
d)
Chant : Sing
|
Garima Rai answered |
In order to scurry, you need to move and in order to chatter you need to talk. The other do not show this type of relation.
Scurry means to run with short steps or to hurry and chatter means to talk quickly about unimportant things.
Hope this helps!
Scurry means to run with short steps or to hurry and chatter means to talk quickly about unimportant things.
Hope this helps!
What is meant by "doli incapax"?- a)Incapable of crime
- b)A new judgment
- c)New bye-law
- d)A good decision
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is meant by "doli incapax"?
a)
Incapable of crime
b)
A new judgment
c)
New bye-law
d)
A good decision
|
|
Shivi Dilhor answered |
Doli incapax literally means ‘incapable of wrong’. It is a principle that deals with the protection of children from criminal liability. It is presumed in law that a child below 7 years of age(in the case of India) is incapable of knowing the consequences of his actions and hence is granted complete immunity from criminal liability. In this article, the author will talk about the doctrine of doli incapax in detail including the legal provisions dealing with it under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
hope it's hlp u
hope it's hlp u
Who among the following has the right to establish the bench of Supreme Court elsewhere in the country?- a)The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
- b)The President of India
- c)The Parliament
- d)Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to allow to establish the bench of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the country with prior approval of the President.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Who among the following has the right to establish the bench of Supreme Court elsewhere in the country?
a)
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b)
The President of India
c)
The Parliament
d)
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to allow to establish the bench of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the country with prior approval of the President.
|
Vidhi shukla answered |
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the right to establish the bench of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the country with prior approval of the President.
The establishment of benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country is essential to ensure access to justice for all citizens. The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of such benches, and the power to do so is vested primarily in the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
Role of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court:
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is the highest-ranking judicial authority in the country. They have numerous administrative responsibilities, including the power to allocate cases to different benches of the court. The Chief Justice also has the authority to establish benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country.
Approval from the President:
Although the Chief Justice has the power to establish benches, they must obtain prior approval from the President of India. This requirement ensures that the establishment of benches is done in accordance with the constitutional framework and with the consent of the executive branch of the government.
Importance of establishing benches:
Establishing benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country is crucial for several reasons:
1. Access to justice: By setting up benches in different regions, people from remote areas do not have to travel long distances to reach the Supreme Court in the capital. This makes the judiciary more accessible to citizens, especially those who may face financial or logistical constraints.
2. Regional representation: Establishing benches in different parts of the country ensures that the Supreme Court represents the diverse interests and legal cultures of the entire nation. It allows for the incorporation of local perspectives and helps in interpreting the law in a manner that is relevant to different regions.
3. Efficient disposal of cases: With the establishment of benches in different regions, the Supreme Court's workload can be distributed. This helps in reducing the burden on the main court in terms of the number of cases to be heard, thus facilitating a quicker and more efficient disposal of cases.
In conclusion, while the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the power to establish benches in different parts of the country, it is essential to obtain prior approval from the President. This ensures that the establishment of benches is done in accordance with the constitutional framework and with the consent of the executive branch of the government. Establishing benches is crucial for ensuring access to justice, regional representation, and the efficient disposal of cases.
The establishment of benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country is essential to ensure access to justice for all citizens. The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of such benches, and the power to do so is vested primarily in the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
Role of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court:
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is the highest-ranking judicial authority in the country. They have numerous administrative responsibilities, including the power to allocate cases to different benches of the court. The Chief Justice also has the authority to establish benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country.
Approval from the President:
Although the Chief Justice has the power to establish benches, they must obtain prior approval from the President of India. This requirement ensures that the establishment of benches is done in accordance with the constitutional framework and with the consent of the executive branch of the government.
Importance of establishing benches:
Establishing benches of the Supreme Court in different parts of the country is crucial for several reasons:
1. Access to justice: By setting up benches in different regions, people from remote areas do not have to travel long distances to reach the Supreme Court in the capital. This makes the judiciary more accessible to citizens, especially those who may face financial or logistical constraints.
2. Regional representation: Establishing benches in different parts of the country ensures that the Supreme Court represents the diverse interests and legal cultures of the entire nation. It allows for the incorporation of local perspectives and helps in interpreting the law in a manner that is relevant to different regions.
3. Efficient disposal of cases: With the establishment of benches in different regions, the Supreme Court's workload can be distributed. This helps in reducing the burden on the main court in terms of the number of cases to be heard, thus facilitating a quicker and more efficient disposal of cases.
In conclusion, while the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the power to establish benches in different parts of the country, it is essential to obtain prior approval from the President. This ensures that the establishment of benches is done in accordance with the constitutional framework and with the consent of the executive branch of the government. Establishing benches is crucial for ensuring access to justice, regional representation, and the efficient disposal of cases.
Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?- a)Brother
- b)Uncle
- c)Cousin
- d)Data is inadequate
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?
a)
Brother
b)
Uncle
c)
Cousin
d)
Data is inadequate
|
Sanjula rane answered |
Relationship between Lata and the man in the photograph:
Given Information:
Lata points to a photograph and states, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather."
Analysis:
- Lata's grandfather has only one son.
- The man in the photograph is the son of Lata's grandfather's only son.
Conclusion:
The man in the photograph is the son of Lata's father, making him Lata's brother.
Therefore, the man in the photograph is Lata's brother.
Given Information:
Lata points to a photograph and states, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather."
Analysis:
- Lata's grandfather has only one son.
- The man in the photograph is the son of Lata's grandfather's only son.
Conclusion:
The man in the photograph is the son of Lata's father, making him Lata's brother.
Therefore, the man in the photograph is Lata's brother.
Directions: Read the information and answer the question that follows.(a) Mansi, Gautami, Roza, Farida and Akshada are teachers in a school and teach different subjects.(b) Mansi and Gautami teach Hindi and English, respectively.(c) Roza and Farida teach English and Geography, respectively.(d) Farida and Mansi teach Maths and Hindi, respectively.(e) Akshada and Gautami teach History and Marathi, respectively.Q. Who among them teaches the maximum number of subjects?- a)Mansi and Akshada
- b)Gautami and Farida
- c)Roza and Gautami
- d)Farida and Mansi
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the information and answer the question that follows.
(a) Mansi, Gautami, Roza, Farida and Akshada are teachers in a school and teach different subjects.
(b) Mansi and Gautami teach Hindi and English, respectively.
(c) Roza and Farida teach English and Geography, respectively.
(d) Farida and Mansi teach Maths and Hindi, respectively.
(e) Akshada and Gautami teach History and Marathi, respectively.
Q. Who among them teaches the maximum number of subjects?
a)
Mansi and Akshada
b)
Gautami and Farida
c)
Roza and Gautami
d)
Farida and Mansi
|
Mahima choudhary answered |
Answer:
Given Information:
Analysis:
Conclusion: Gautami and Farida teach the maximum number of subjects (2 subjects each).
Given Information:
- Mansi teaches Hindi
- Gautami teaches English
- Roza teaches English
- Farida teaches Geography and Maths
- Akshada teaches History and Marathi
Analysis:
- Mansi teaches 2 subjects (Hindi and Maths)
- Gautami teaches 2 subjects (English and Marathi)
- Roza teaches 1 subject (English)
- Farida teaches 2 subjects (Geography and Maths)
- Akshada teaches 2 subjects (History and Marathi)
Conclusion: Gautami and Farida teach the maximum number of subjects (2 subjects each).
Direction: Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.One who study the elections and trends in voting- a)Anthropologist
- b)Psephologist
- c)Plagiarist
- d)Philologist
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
One who study the elections and trends in voting
a)
Anthropologist
b)
Psephologist
c)
Plagiarist
d)
Philologist
|
Aryan Chatterjee answered |
Explanation:
The word that can substitute the given sentence "One who study the elections and trends in voting" is Psephologist.
Definition of Psephologist:
Psephology is the study of elections and voting behavior. A psephologist is a person who specializes in analyzing elections and trends in voting.
Explanation of Other Options:
- Anthropologist: Anthropology is the study of human societies and cultures, and an anthropologist studies various aspects of human behavior, social structures, and cultural practices. While they may study various aspects of society, including politics, they may not specialize specifically in elections and voting.
- Plagiarist: A plagiarist is someone who steals or copies someone else's work and presents it as their own. This term is unrelated to the study of elections and voting.
- Philologist: Philology is the study of language and its historical development. A philologist studies languages, their origins, and their relationship to each other. This term is also unrelated to the study of elections and voting.
In conclusion, the word that can substitute the given sentence "One who study the elections and trends in voting" is Psephologist.
The word that can substitute the given sentence "One who study the elections and trends in voting" is Psephologist.
Definition of Psephologist:
Psephology is the study of elections and voting behavior. A psephologist is a person who specializes in analyzing elections and trends in voting.
Explanation of Other Options:
- Anthropologist: Anthropology is the study of human societies and cultures, and an anthropologist studies various aspects of human behavior, social structures, and cultural practices. While they may study various aspects of society, including politics, they may not specialize specifically in elections and voting.
- Plagiarist: A plagiarist is someone who steals or copies someone else's work and presents it as their own. This term is unrelated to the study of elections and voting.
- Philologist: Philology is the study of language and its historical development. A philologist studies languages, their origins, and their relationship to each other. This term is also unrelated to the study of elections and voting.
In conclusion, the word that can substitute the given sentence "One who study the elections and trends in voting" is Psephologist.
The Constitution is silent in the directive principles about- a)living wage for workers
- b)legal aid to the poor
- c)compulsory education to poor
- d)adult education
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The Constitution is silent in the directive principles about
a)
living wage for workers
b)
legal aid to the poor
c)
compulsory education to poor
d)
adult education
|
|
Rachana joshi answered |
The Constitution of India lays down the principles and guidelines for the functioning of the government and the society. The directive principles of state policy are non-justiciable guidelines for the government to achieve socio-economic goals and welfare of the people.
One of the important directive principles is the provision of adult education. The Constitution recognizes that illiteracy is a major hindrance to the development of the country and that it needs to be eradicated. Hence, the Constitution has included Article 41 which directs the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of fourteen years. Additionally, Article 45 mandates the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of six years.
However, the Constitution is silent on the provision of adult education. The need for adult education is equally important as it helps in increasing the literacy rate and enables individuals to participate actively in the development of the country. Adult education is crucial for the empowerment of women, the eradication of poverty, and the promotion of a democratic society.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Constitution of India has recognized the importance of education in the development of the country. While it has provided for free and compulsory education for children, it is silent on the provision of adult education. It is imperative for the government to recognize the need for adult education and take appropriate measures to provide it for the socio-economic development of the country.
One of the important directive principles is the provision of adult education. The Constitution recognizes that illiteracy is a major hindrance to the development of the country and that it needs to be eradicated. Hence, the Constitution has included Article 41 which directs the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of fourteen years. Additionally, Article 45 mandates the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of six years.
However, the Constitution is silent on the provision of adult education. The need for adult education is equally important as it helps in increasing the literacy rate and enables individuals to participate actively in the development of the country. Adult education is crucial for the empowerment of women, the eradication of poverty, and the promotion of a democratic society.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Constitution of India has recognized the importance of education in the development of the country. While it has provided for free and compulsory education for children, it is silent on the provision of adult education. It is imperative for the government to recognize the need for adult education and take appropriate measures to provide it for the socio-economic development of the country.
Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok?- a)Mother-in-law
- b)Aunt
- c)Wife
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok?
a)
Mother-in-law
b)
Aunt
c)
Wife
d)
None of these
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
After looking the diagram we can say that Kalyani is the mother of Ashok.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Directions: In the following question, a letter series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that would follow the same pattern in the given series.CJQ, DMS, EPU, FSW, ?- a)GUY
- b)GUX
- c)GVY
- d)GVX
- e)None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the following question, a letter series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that would follow the same pattern in the given series.
CJQ, DMS, EPU, FSW, ?
a)
GUY
b)
GUX
c)
GVY
d)
GVX
e)
None of these
|
|
Garima Rai answered |
For these type of questions I would suggest you to write all the alphabets and number them from 1 to 26 (in the alphabetical order). When you do so you get C at number 3, J at 10 and Q at 17 when you are done, find out the difference between first two ie.,C and J and then the other two ie., J and Q, you get (7,7) as the difference. Similarly, for DMS (9,6), for EPU (11,5), for FSW (13,4). Thus, in order ro find out the difference (15,3) the pattern should be GVY.
Hope this helps!
Hope this helps!
If DELHI can be coded as CCIDD, how would you code BOMBAY?- a)AJMTVT
- b)AMJXVS
- c)MJXVSU
- d)WXYZAX
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
If DELHI can be coded as CCIDD, how would you code BOMBAY?
a)
AJMTVT
b)
AMJXVS
c)
MJXVSU
d)
WXYZAX
|
Aspire Academy answered |
Same as,
Hence, the correct option is (B).
The President of India nominates two persons to the Parliament. These persons should belong to ______.- a)an Anglo-Indian community
- b)a minority religion
- c)the Parsi community
- d)the Buddhist or Jain community
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The President of India nominates two persons to the Parliament. These persons should belong to ______.
a)
an Anglo-Indian community
b)
a minority religion
c)
the Parsi community
d)
the Buddhist or Jain community
|
Shashi Gupta answered |
Explanation:
- The Constitution of India provides for the nomination of 2 members to the Lok Sabha (Lower House) by the President of India.
- These members are nominated from the Anglo-Indian community which is a minority community in India.
- The President can also nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) who are eminent persons from the fields of literature, science, art, and social service.
- However, these nominations are not based on any specific community or religion.
- The Anglo-Indian community comprises people of British descent who settled in India during the British colonial rule and their Indian spouses.
- They have been given representation in the Parliament to ensure their participation in the democratic process and to protect their interests.
- The nominated members have the same rights and privileges as an elected member of the Parliament.
Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows by selecting the most appropriate option. It is easy to make a delicious-looking hamburger at home. But would this hamburger still look delicious after it sat on your kitchen table under very bright lights for six or seven hours? If someone took a picture or made a video of this hamburger after the seventh hour, would anyone want to eat it? These are the questions that fast food companies worry about when they produce commercials. Video and photoshoot often last many hours. Because of this, the menu items in fast-food commercials are probably not actually edible. As an example, the first step towards building the perfect commercial hamburger is the bun. The food stylist-a person employed by the company to make sure the products look perfect-sorts through hundreds of buns until he or she finds one with no wrinkles. Next, the stylist carefully rearranges the sesame seeds on the bun using glue and tweezers for maximum visual appeal. The bun is then sprayed with a waterproofing solution so that it will not get soggy from contact with other ingredients, the lights, or the humidity in the room. Next, the food stylist shapes a meat patty into a perfect circle and paints the outside with a mixture of oil, molasses, and brown food coloring. Grill marks are either painted on or seared into the meat using hot metal skewers. Finally, the food stylist searches through dozens of tomatoes and heads of lettuce to find the best-looking produce. One leaf of the crispiest lettuce and one center slice of the reddest tomato are selected and then sprayed with glycerin to keep them looking fresh. So the next time you see a delectable hamburger in a fast-food commercial, remember: you're actually looking at glue, paint, raw meat, and glycerin!Q. Based on information in the passage, it is most important for the lettuce and tomato used in a fast-food hamburger commercial to:- a)Look fresh
- b)Have a great taste
- c)Be the perfect shape and size
- d)Appear natural
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows by selecting the most appropriate option.
It is easy to make a delicious-looking hamburger at home. But would this hamburger still look delicious after it sat on your kitchen table under very bright lights for six or seven hours? If someone took a picture or made a video of this hamburger after the seventh hour, would anyone want to eat it? These are the questions that fast food companies worry about when they produce commercials. Video and photoshoot often last many hours. Because of this, the menu items in fast-food commercials are probably not actually edible. As an example, the first step towards building the perfect commercial hamburger is the bun. The food stylist-a person employed by the company to make sure the products look perfect-sorts through hundreds of buns until he or she finds one with no wrinkles. Next, the stylist carefully rearranges the sesame seeds on the bun using glue and tweezers for maximum visual appeal. The bun is then sprayed with a waterproofing solution so that it will not get soggy from contact with other ingredients, the lights, or the humidity in the room. Next, the food stylist shapes a meat patty into a perfect circle and paints the outside with a mixture of oil, molasses, and brown food coloring. Grill marks are either painted on or seared into the meat using hot metal skewers. Finally, the food stylist searches through dozens of tomatoes and heads of lettuce to find the best-looking produce. One leaf of the crispiest lettuce and one center slice of the reddest tomato are selected and then sprayed with glycerin to keep them looking fresh. So the next time you see a delectable hamburger in a fast-food commercial, remember: you're actually looking at glue, paint, raw meat, and glycerin!
Q. Based on information in the passage, it is most important for the lettuce and tomato used in a fast-food hamburger commercial to:
a)
Look fresh
b)
Have a great taste
c)
Be the perfect shape and size
d)
Appear natural
|
Priyanka Yadav answered |
Mention some of the question that fast food companies worry about
Four words are given in the question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.- a)Accountancy
- b)Aesthetics
- c)Commemorate
- d)Austere
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Four words are given in the question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
a)
Accountancy
b)
Aesthetics
c)
Commemorate
d)
Austere
|
Farida Ali answered |
The correct spellings are
Accountancy
Aesthetics
Commemorate
The correctly spelt word is ‘Austere’,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Direction: In the sentence given below, replace the phrase underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct, choose the option "No correction".At an early age, she had made her mark as a criminal lawyer.- a)made her mark
- b)makes her mark
- c)has been making her mark
- d)No correction
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In the sentence given below, replace the phrase underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct, choose the option "No correction".
At an early age, she had made her mark as a criminal lawyer.
a)
made her mark
b)
makes her mark
c)
has been making her mark
d)
No correction
|
|
Advait Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
The given sentence is:
"At an early age, she had made her mark as a criminal lawyer."
The phrase "made her mark" in the sentence is correct grammatically and does not require any correction. It is in the past tense and accurately conveys the meaning that she had achieved success and recognition as a criminal lawyer at a young age.
No correction
The given sentence is:
"At an early age, she had made her mark as a criminal lawyer."
The phrase "made her mark" in the sentence is correct grammatically and does not require any correction. It is in the past tense and accurately conveys the meaning that she had achieved success and recognition as a criminal lawyer at a young age.
No correction
Directions: The question given below consists of a sentence. The constituent words/phrases are arranged in an arbitrary way. Each separated phrase/set of words is indicated by a unique letter. Select the option that reorganises the phrases/set of words back into the original sentence.(A) the growth(B) is a measure of(C) economic integration(D) in world exports- a)ABCD
- b)CDBA
- c)ADBC
- d)DABC
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: The question given below consists of a sentence. The constituent words/phrases are arranged in an arbitrary way. Each separated phrase/set of words is indicated by a unique letter. Select the option that reorganises the phrases/set of words back into the original sentence.
(A) the growth
(B) is a measure of
(C) economic integration
(D) in world exports
a)
ABCD
b)
CDBA
c)
ADBC
d)
DABC
|
Khushi malhotra answered |
The original sentence:
The growth in world exports is a measure of economic integration.
Reorganised phrases:
(A) the growth
(B) is a measure of
(C) economic integration
(D) in world exports
Explanation:
To reorganise the phrases back into the original sentence, we need to identify the correct sequence.
Step 1: Identify the subject and verb of the sentence.
- The subject of the sentence is "growth."
- The verb of the sentence is "is."
Step 2: Identify the object of the sentence.
- The object of the sentence is "a measure of economic integration."
Step 3: Determine the correct sequence.
- The subject ("the growth") should come before the verb ("is").
- The object ("a measure of economic integration") should come after the verb.
Step 4: Arrange the phrases in the correct sequence.
- Based on the above analysis, the correct sequence is: (A) the growth, (B) is a measure of, (C) economic integration, (D) in world exports.
Step 5: Reorganise the phrases back into the original sentence.
- The growth (A) is a measure of (B) economic integration (C) in world exports (D).
Therefore, the correct answer is option (C) - ADBC.
The growth in world exports is a measure of economic integration.
Reorganised phrases:
(A) the growth
(B) is a measure of
(C) economic integration
(D) in world exports
Explanation:
To reorganise the phrases back into the original sentence, we need to identify the correct sequence.
Step 1: Identify the subject and verb of the sentence.
- The subject of the sentence is "growth."
- The verb of the sentence is "is."
Step 2: Identify the object of the sentence.
- The object of the sentence is "a measure of economic integration."
Step 3: Determine the correct sequence.
- The subject ("the growth") should come before the verb ("is").
- The object ("a measure of economic integration") should come after the verb.
Step 4: Arrange the phrases in the correct sequence.
- Based on the above analysis, the correct sequence is: (A) the growth, (B) is a measure of, (C) economic integration, (D) in world exports.
Step 5: Reorganise the phrases back into the original sentence.
- The growth (A) is a measure of (B) economic integration (C) in world exports (D).
Therefore, the correct answer is option (C) - ADBC.
Directions: The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Principle(s) and the other as Facts. You are to examine the principle and apply it/them to the given facts carefully and select the best option.Principle: A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.Facts: A agrees to pay B a sum of Rs.1 lakh if B marries C within a period of six months. B marries C during the seventh month as the marriage hall was available only during that month. B claims Rs. 1 lakh from A.Decide.- a)B can successfully claim Rs.1 lakh from A.
- b)B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A.
- c)B can claim Rs.1 lakh as well as special damages from A for having married C.
- d)C can successfully claim Rs.1 lakh from A for having married B.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Principle(s) and the other as Facts. You are to examine the principle and apply it/them to the given facts carefully and select the best option.
Principle: A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.
Facts: A agrees to pay B a sum of Rs.1 lakh if B marries C within a period of six months. B marries C during the seventh month as the marriage hall was available only during that month. B claims Rs. 1 lakh from A.
Decide.
a)
B can successfully claim Rs.1 lakh from A.
b)
B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A.
c)
B can claim Rs.1 lakh as well as special damages from A for having married C.
d)
C can successfully claim Rs.1 lakh from A for having married B.
|
Aadi singhania answered |
Principle: A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.
Facts: A agrees to pay B a sum of Rs.1 lakh if B marries C within a period of six months. B marries C during the seventh month as the marriage hall was available only during that month. B claims Rs. 1 lakh from A.
Analysis:
To analyze the given situation, we need to apply the principle of a contingent contract to the given facts.
Contingent Contract:
A contingent contract is a contract that depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a specific event. In this case, the contingent event is B marrying C within a period of six months.
Application of Principle to Facts:
1. The contract between A and B is contingent upon B marrying C within a period of six months.
2. However, B marries C during the seventh month because the marriage hall was only available during that month.
3. As per the principle of a contingent contract, the contract is only valid if the event, in this case, B marrying C within six months, happens.
4. Since B did not fulfill the condition of marrying C within the stipulated time, the contingent event did not occur.
5. Therefore, B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A as per the contingent contract.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the principle and the given facts, the correct answer is option 'B' - B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A. This is because the condition of the contingent contract was not fulfilled, as B married C during the seventh month instead of within six months.
Facts: A agrees to pay B a sum of Rs.1 lakh if B marries C within a period of six months. B marries C during the seventh month as the marriage hall was available only during that month. B claims Rs. 1 lakh from A.
Analysis:
To analyze the given situation, we need to apply the principle of a contingent contract to the given facts.
Contingent Contract:
A contingent contract is a contract that depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a specific event. In this case, the contingent event is B marrying C within a period of six months.
Application of Principle to Facts:
1. The contract between A and B is contingent upon B marrying C within a period of six months.
2. However, B marries C during the seventh month because the marriage hall was only available during that month.
3. As per the principle of a contingent contract, the contract is only valid if the event, in this case, B marrying C within six months, happens.
4. Since B did not fulfill the condition of marrying C within the stipulated time, the contingent event did not occur.
5. Therefore, B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A as per the contingent contract.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the principle and the given facts, the correct answer is option 'B' - B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A. This is because the condition of the contingent contract was not fulfilled, as B married C during the seventh month instead of within six months.
Which case led to the imposition of emergency and was a landmark case regarding election disputes, the primary issue was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act?- a)MC Mehta vs Union Of India
- b)Sunil Narain vs Indira Gandhi
- c)Raj Narain vs Indira Gandhi
- d)Sushil Gandhi vs Indira Gandhi
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which case led to the imposition of emergency and was a landmark case regarding election disputes, the primary issue was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act?
a)
MC Mehta vs Union Of India
b)
Sunil Narain vs Indira Gandhi
c)
Raj Narain vs Indira Gandhi
d)
Sushil Gandhi vs Indira Gandhi
|
|
Roshni reddy answered |
The correct answer is option 'C', Raj Narain vs Indira Gandhi. This case was a landmark case regarding election disputes and led to the imposition of emergency in India. The primary issue in this case was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act.
Background:
In the 1971 general elections, Indira Gandhi was re-elected as the Prime Minister of India. However, her victory was challenged by Raj Narain, an opposition candidate from the Rae Bareli constituency. Narain alleged that Gandhi had committed several electoral malpractices, including the use of government machinery for campaigning.
Key Issue:
The primary issue in this case was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act. This clause inserted Article 329-A into the Constitution, which stated that the election of the Prime Minister, President, and Speaker of Lok Sabha could not be challenged in courts.
Legal Proceedings:
The case was initially heard by the Allahabad High Court, which found Indira Gandhi guilty of electoral malpractices and declared her election void. This decision created a political crisis in the country, leading to widespread protests and demands for her resignation.
Supreme Court Judgment:
Both Indira Gandhi and Raj Narain appealed against the High Court's decision in the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court delivered its judgment on 7th November 1975. The court upheld the High Court's decision, stating that Indira Gandhi had indulged in corrupt practices during the election campaign.
Emergency Imposition:
Following the Supreme Court's judgment, Indira Gandhi faced immense political pressure and criticism. In order to retain power, she decided to impose a state of emergency in the country on 25th June 1975. During the emergency, civil liberties were suspended, and political opponents were arrested.
Aftermath:
The imposition of emergency led to widespread criticism and protests in the country. It was seen as a violation of democratic principles and an abuse of power. The emergency was finally lifted in 1977, and fresh elections were held, which resulted in the defeat of Indira Gandhi's party.
In conclusion, the case of Raj Narain vs Indira Gandhi was a landmark case regarding election disputes and led to the imposition of emergency in India. The primary issue in this case was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act, which inserted Article 329-A into the Constitution.
Background:
In the 1971 general elections, Indira Gandhi was re-elected as the Prime Minister of India. However, her victory was challenged by Raj Narain, an opposition candidate from the Rae Bareli constituency. Narain alleged that Gandhi had committed several electoral malpractices, including the use of government machinery for campaigning.
Key Issue:
The primary issue in this case was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act. This clause inserted Article 329-A into the Constitution, which stated that the election of the Prime Minister, President, and Speaker of Lok Sabha could not be challenged in courts.
Legal Proceedings:
The case was initially heard by the Allahabad High Court, which found Indira Gandhi guilty of electoral malpractices and declared her election void. This decision created a political crisis in the country, leading to widespread protests and demands for her resignation.
Supreme Court Judgment:
Both Indira Gandhi and Raj Narain appealed against the High Court's decision in the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court delivered its judgment on 7th November 1975. The court upheld the High Court's decision, stating that Indira Gandhi had indulged in corrupt practices during the election campaign.
Emergency Imposition:
Following the Supreme Court's judgment, Indira Gandhi faced immense political pressure and criticism. In order to retain power, she decided to impose a state of emergency in the country on 25th June 1975. During the emergency, civil liberties were suspended, and political opponents were arrested.
Aftermath:
The imposition of emergency led to widespread criticism and protests in the country. It was seen as a violation of democratic principles and an abuse of power. The emergency was finally lifted in 1977, and fresh elections were held, which resulted in the defeat of Indira Gandhi's party.
In conclusion, the case of Raj Narain vs Indira Gandhi was a landmark case regarding election disputes and led to the imposition of emergency in India. The primary issue in this case was the validity of clause 4 of the 39th Amendment Act, which inserted Article 329-A into the Constitution.
Directions: Given below is a pair of events I and II. Read both events and decide the relationship between them. While giving your answer, assume that the given information is true.Event I: Women in STEM fields perceived a gender bias in performance evaluation.Event II: The number of women in STEM fields is far below the number of men in these fields.(b)I is the immediate and principal cause and II is the effect.(c)I is an effect and II is its immediate and principal cause.(d)II is an effect, but I is not its immediate and principal cause.- a)I is an effect, but II is not its immediate and principal cause.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Given below is a pair of events I and II. Read both events and decide the relationship between them. While giving your answer, assume that the given information is true.
Event I: Women in STEM fields perceived a gender bias in performance evaluation.
Event II: The number of women in STEM fields is far below the number of men in these fields.
(b)I is the immediate and principal cause and II is the effect.
(c)I is an effect and II is its immediate and principal cause.
(d)II is an effect, but I is not its immediate and principal cause.
a)
I is an effect, but II is not its immediate and principal cause.
|
|
Naina gupta answered |
Explanation:
The relationship between Event I and Event II can be understood as follows:
Event I: Women in STEM fields perceived a gender bias in performance evaluation.
This event states that women who work in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) fields perceive a gender bias in the evaluation of their performance. This implies that women feel that their performance is evaluated differently or unfairly compared to their male counterparts.
Event II: The number of women in STEM fields is far below the number of men in these fields.
This event highlights the unequal representation of women in STEM fields compared to men. It suggests that there is a significant disparity between the number of women and men working in these fields, with women being underrepresented.
Relationship:
Based on the given information, the relationship between Event I and Event II can be identified as follows:
- Event II is the immediate and principal cause, while Event I is the effect.
- The underrepresentation of women in STEM fields (Event II) is the primary reason for the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation (Event I).
- Due to the significant gender disparity in STEM fields, women may face various challenges and biases, including unequal treatment in performance evaluation.
- The smaller number of women in these fields may lead to stereotypes, unconscious biases, and other systemic factors that contribute to the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation.
- In other words, the unequal representation of women in STEM fields creates an environment where gender bias can manifest in various aspects of their professional lives, including performance evaluation.
Conclusion:
Therefore, based on the given information, the correct answer is option 'B': I is the immediate and principal cause, and II is the effect. The underrepresentation of women in STEM fields leads to the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation.
The relationship between Event I and Event II can be understood as follows:
Event I: Women in STEM fields perceived a gender bias in performance evaluation.
This event states that women who work in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) fields perceive a gender bias in the evaluation of their performance. This implies that women feel that their performance is evaluated differently or unfairly compared to their male counterparts.
Event II: The number of women in STEM fields is far below the number of men in these fields.
This event highlights the unequal representation of women in STEM fields compared to men. It suggests that there is a significant disparity between the number of women and men working in these fields, with women being underrepresented.
Relationship:
Based on the given information, the relationship between Event I and Event II can be identified as follows:
- Event II is the immediate and principal cause, while Event I is the effect.
- The underrepresentation of women in STEM fields (Event II) is the primary reason for the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation (Event I).
- Due to the significant gender disparity in STEM fields, women may face various challenges and biases, including unequal treatment in performance evaluation.
- The smaller number of women in these fields may lead to stereotypes, unconscious biases, and other systemic factors that contribute to the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation.
- In other words, the unequal representation of women in STEM fields creates an environment where gender bias can manifest in various aspects of their professional lives, including performance evaluation.
Conclusion:
Therefore, based on the given information, the correct answer is option 'B': I is the immediate and principal cause, and II is the effect. The underrepresentation of women in STEM fields leads to the perceived gender bias in performance evaluation.
Directions: In the question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases marked as ‘A’ and ‘B’ that are italicized or highlighted. Select the most appropriate word or phrase to form grammatically and syntactically correct sentences. Then, from the options that follow, choose the correct one.(i) The diver (A) put off (B) put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.(ii) The old beggar was (A) run out (B) run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.(iii) His uncle has (A) set up (B) set upon a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.(iv) At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to (A) take down (B) take for the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.- a)BABB
- b)AAAB
- c)ABAA
- d)AAAA
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases marked as ‘A’ and ‘B’ that are italicized or highlighted. Select the most appropriate word or phrase to form grammatically and syntactically correct sentences. Then, from the options that follow, choose the correct one.
(i) The diver (A) put off (B) put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.
(ii) The old beggar was (A) run out (B) run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.
(iii) His uncle has (A) set up (B) set upon a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.
(iv) At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to (A) take down (B) take for the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
a)
BABB
b)
AAAB
c)
ABAA
d)
AAAA
|
|
Ritu dubey answered |
Explanation:
Let's analyze each sentence one by one:
(i) The diver (A) put off (B) put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.
- The word "put off" means to postpone or delay something.
- The phrase "put on" means to wear or dress oneself in something.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "put on" as it refers to the action of wearing clothes before diving into the canal.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: The diver put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.
(ii) The old beggar was (A) run out (B) run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.
- The phrase "run out" means to use up or deplete the supply of something.
- The phrase "run over" means to hit and knock down someone or something with a vehicle.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "run over" as it describes the action of the motor-car hitting and knocking down the old beggar.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: The old beggar was run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.
(iii) His uncle has (A) set up (B) set upon a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.
- The phrase "set up" means to establish or start something.
- The phrase "set upon" means to attack or assault someone.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "set up" as it refers to the action of establishing a new shop in hardware.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: His uncle has set up a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.
(iv) At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to (A) take down (B) take for the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
- The phrase "take down" means to write or record something.
- The phrase "take for" does not make sense in the given context.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "take down" as it refers to the action of writing down the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to take down the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
Based on the analysis above, the correct option is:
c) ABA A
Let's analyze each sentence one by one:
(i) The diver (A) put off (B) put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.
- The word "put off" means to postpone or delay something.
- The phrase "put on" means to wear or dress oneself in something.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "put on" as it refers to the action of wearing clothes before diving into the canal.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: The diver put on his clothes and jumped into the canal to save the drowning child.
(ii) The old beggar was (A) run out (B) run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.
- The phrase "run out" means to use up or deplete the supply of something.
- The phrase "run over" means to hit and knock down someone or something with a vehicle.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "run over" as it describes the action of the motor-car hitting and knocking down the old beggar.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: The old beggar was run over by a motor-car while he was crossing the zebra crossing because the motor-car driver had jumped the red light.
(iii) His uncle has (A) set up (B) set upon a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.
- The phrase "set up" means to establish or start something.
- The phrase "set upon" means to attack or assault someone.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "set up" as it refers to the action of establishing a new shop in hardware.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: His uncle has set up a new shop in hardware because his old shop was gutted in fire.
(iv) At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to (A) take down (B) take for the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
- The phrase "take down" means to write or record something.
- The phrase "take for" does not make sense in the given context.
- In the given sentence, the appropriate phrase would be "take down" as it refers to the action of writing down the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
- Therefore, the correct sentence would be: At the Sangat Darshan, the minister asked his secretary to take down the names and addresses of the complainants along with their complaint applications.
Based on the analysis above, the correct option is:
c) ABA A
Direction: In the following sentence a word in bold is given which is to be corrected.There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only.- a)initials
- b)signatures
- c)pictures
- d)middle name
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In the following sentence a word in bold is given which is to be corrected.
There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only.
a)
initials
b)
signatures
c)
pictures
d)
middle name
|
Tanishq Menon answered |
Explanation:
Correction of the word in bold is required in the given sentence. The correct word is 'initials' as they are the first letters of a person's name, used as a signature. The other options provided in the question, such as signatures, pictures, and middle names, do not fit the context of the sentence.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - initials.
In summary:
- The sentence talks about famous men who are referred to by their short names.
- The word in bold needs to be corrected.
- The correct word is 'initials'.
- Other options provided in the question, such as signatures, pictures, and middle names, do not fit the context.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - initials.
Correction of the word in bold is required in the given sentence. The correct word is 'initials' as they are the first letters of a person's name, used as a signature. The other options provided in the question, such as signatures, pictures, and middle names, do not fit the context of the sentence.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - initials.
In summary:
- The sentence talks about famous men who are referred to by their short names.
- The word in bold needs to be corrected.
- The correct word is 'initials'.
- Other options provided in the question, such as signatures, pictures, and middle names, do not fit the context.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - initials.
Direction: In the question below is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.Statements:1. Depleting natural resources is a major concern in our country.2. Unless we go for renewable energy sources in a big way, increase in population being a heavy burden on the energy resources, will reduce the quality of life.Conclusions:I. Depleting resources impacts quality of life.II. Use of renewable energy sources is a solution to counter increase in population.Correct answer is option ''. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In the question below is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements:
1. Depleting natural resources is a major concern in our country.
2. Unless we go for renewable energy sources in a big way, increase in population being a heavy burden on the energy resources, will reduce the quality of life.
Conclusions:
I. Depleting resources impacts quality of life.
II. Use of renewable energy sources is a solution to counter increase in population.
|
|
Vidhi shukla answered |
Depleting natural resources is a major concern in our country, and unless we go for renewable energy sources in a big way, the increase in population will further burden the energy resources and reduce the quality of life. We need to analyze the given conclusions based on this information.
I. Depleting resources impacts quality of life.
This conclusion logically follows from the information given in the statement. If natural resources continue to be depleted without any alternative sources being adopted, it will lead to a scarcity of resources. This scarcity can result in various problems such as increased prices, reduced availability, and environmental degradation. All these factors can directly impact the quality of life of the population. Therefore, conclusion I is a logical inference from the statement.
II. Use of renewable energy sources is a solution to counter the increase in population.
This conclusion does not directly follow from the information given in the statement. While it is mentioned that the increase in population is a burden on energy resources, it does not explicitly state that renewable energy sources are the solution to counter this burden. The statement only suggests that unless we adopt renewable energy sources, the quality of life will be reduced due to the burden on energy resources. It does not provide a specific solution to counter the increase in population. Therefore, conclusion II cannot be logically inferred from the given information.
In conclusion, only conclusion I logically follows from the information given in the statement. Depleting resources will impact the quality of life, but the statement does not provide enough evidence to support the claim that renewable energy sources are the solution to counter the increase in population.
I. Depleting resources impacts quality of life.
This conclusion logically follows from the information given in the statement. If natural resources continue to be depleted without any alternative sources being adopted, it will lead to a scarcity of resources. This scarcity can result in various problems such as increased prices, reduced availability, and environmental degradation. All these factors can directly impact the quality of life of the population. Therefore, conclusion I is a logical inference from the statement.
II. Use of renewable energy sources is a solution to counter the increase in population.
This conclusion does not directly follow from the information given in the statement. While it is mentioned that the increase in population is a burden on energy resources, it does not explicitly state that renewable energy sources are the solution to counter this burden. The statement only suggests that unless we adopt renewable energy sources, the quality of life will be reduced due to the burden on energy resources. It does not provide a specific solution to counter the increase in population. Therefore, conclusion II cannot be logically inferred from the given information.
In conclusion, only conclusion I logically follows from the information given in the statement. Depleting resources will impact the quality of life, but the statement does not provide enough evidence to support the claim that renewable energy sources are the solution to counter the increase in population.
Give the meaning of DIFFIDENCE.- a)Discourage
- b)Humility
- c)Harmful
- d)Defection
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Give the meaning of DIFFIDENCE.
a)
Discourage
b)
Humility
c)
Harmful
d)
Defection
|
Gauri singh answered |
Meaning of Diffidence:
Diffidence is a noun that refers to a lack of self-confidence or shyness. It is characterized by a feeling of being unsure of oneself and often leads to hesitation or reluctance in expressing one's opinions or abilities.
Explanation:
Diffidence is often associated with feelings of insecurity and a lack of belief in one's own capabilities. It is the opposite of confidence and can manifest in various aspects of one's life, such as social interactions, public speaking, or decision-making. People who are diffident may frequently doubt themselves and their abilities, leading to a hesitancy to take risks or assert themselves.
Example:
For example, a diffident person may feel uncomfortable speaking up in a group setting because they fear judgment or ridicule. They may avoid participating in activities or projects that require them to take a leadership role or make decisions. Instead, they may prefer to stay in the background or defer to others.
Diffidence vs. Other Options:
- a) Discourage: Discourage means to dissuade or demotivate someone from taking a particular action. It is not directly related to the lack of self-confidence or shyness that diffidence implies.
- b) Humility: Humility is a quality that involves recognizing and acknowledging one's own limitations and shortcomings. While there may be some overlap between humility and diffidence, they are not synonymous. Diffidence is more about a lack of self-assurance, while humility is about a modest and respectful view of oneself.
- c) Harmful: Harmful means causing or capable of causing harm or damage. It is not directly related to diffidence, which is more about a lack of confidence rather than causing harm.
- d) Defection: Defection refers to the act of abandoning or deserting one's allegiance or loyalty, especially in a political or ideological context. It is unrelated to diffidence and does not convey the same meaning.
Diffidence is a noun that refers to a lack of self-confidence or shyness. It is characterized by a feeling of being unsure of oneself and often leads to hesitation or reluctance in expressing one's opinions or abilities.
Explanation:
Diffidence is often associated with feelings of insecurity and a lack of belief in one's own capabilities. It is the opposite of confidence and can manifest in various aspects of one's life, such as social interactions, public speaking, or decision-making. People who are diffident may frequently doubt themselves and their abilities, leading to a hesitancy to take risks or assert themselves.
Example:
For example, a diffident person may feel uncomfortable speaking up in a group setting because they fear judgment or ridicule. They may avoid participating in activities or projects that require them to take a leadership role or make decisions. Instead, they may prefer to stay in the background or defer to others.
Diffidence vs. Other Options:
- a) Discourage: Discourage means to dissuade or demotivate someone from taking a particular action. It is not directly related to the lack of self-confidence or shyness that diffidence implies.
- b) Humility: Humility is a quality that involves recognizing and acknowledging one's own limitations and shortcomings. While there may be some overlap between humility and diffidence, they are not synonymous. Diffidence is more about a lack of self-assurance, while humility is about a modest and respectful view of oneself.
- c) Harmful: Harmful means causing or capable of causing harm or damage. It is not directly related to diffidence, which is more about a lack of confidence rather than causing harm.
- d) Defection: Defection refers to the act of abandoning or deserting one's allegiance or loyalty, especially in a political or ideological context. It is unrelated to diffidence and does not convey the same meaning.
Who wrote the book "India Wins Freedom"?- a)M. Hidayatulla
- b)M. C. Chhagla
- c)Abul Kalam Azad
- d)Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
Correct answer is option ''. Can you explain this answer?
Who wrote the book "India Wins Freedom"?
a)
M. Hidayatulla
b)
M. C. Chhagla
c)
Abul Kalam Azad
d)
Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
|
|
Aryan Saini answered |
India Wins Freedom
Author: Abul Kalam Azad
Introduction:
"India Wins Freedom" is a book written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, who was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and the first Minister of Education in independent India. The book is an autobiographical account of Azad's experiences and observations during the Indian independence movement.
Content:
The book provides a deep insight into the struggles and sacrifices made by Indian freedom fighters and their journey towards attaining independence from British colonial rule. Azad shares his personal experiences and interactions with various leaders and revolutionaries of the time.
Key Points:
1. Childhood and Early Life: Azad describes his childhood and early life, including his education and introduction to the world of politics and activism.
2. Role in Congress: The book highlights Azad's role in the Indian National Congress and his close association with leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Patel.
3. Non-Cooperation Movement: Azad vividly narrates the events surrounding the Non-Cooperation Movement, its impact on the masses, and the subsequent disillusionment after its suspension.
4. Khilafat Movement: The author also sheds light on the Khilafat Movement and the alliance between the Indian National Congress and the Khilafat leaders for the cause of Indian independence.
5. Partition and Independence: Azad provides his perspective on the partition of India and the challenges faced during the independence struggle. He expresses his concerns and hopes for a united and secular India.
6. Role of Religion: The book delves into the role of religion in the freedom movement and Azad's belief in the importance of Hindu-Muslim unity for a strong and inclusive nation.
Significance:
"India Wins Freedom" is considered an important historical document as it offers a first-hand account of the Indian independence movement from the perspective of a prominent leader. The book provides valuable insights into the challenges faced by the freedom fighters and their vision for a free India.
Conclusion:
Written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, "India Wins Freedom" is a significant literary work that offers a personal and insightful account of the Indian independence movement. It serves as a valuable resource for understanding the struggles, sacrifices, and aspirations of the Indian freedom fighters.
Author: Abul Kalam Azad
Introduction:
"India Wins Freedom" is a book written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, who was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and the first Minister of Education in independent India. The book is an autobiographical account of Azad's experiences and observations during the Indian independence movement.
Content:
The book provides a deep insight into the struggles and sacrifices made by Indian freedom fighters and their journey towards attaining independence from British colonial rule. Azad shares his personal experiences and interactions with various leaders and revolutionaries of the time.
Key Points:
1. Childhood and Early Life: Azad describes his childhood and early life, including his education and introduction to the world of politics and activism.
2. Role in Congress: The book highlights Azad's role in the Indian National Congress and his close association with leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Patel.
3. Non-Cooperation Movement: Azad vividly narrates the events surrounding the Non-Cooperation Movement, its impact on the masses, and the subsequent disillusionment after its suspension.
4. Khilafat Movement: The author also sheds light on the Khilafat Movement and the alliance between the Indian National Congress and the Khilafat leaders for the cause of Indian independence.
5. Partition and Independence: Azad provides his perspective on the partition of India and the challenges faced during the independence struggle. He expresses his concerns and hopes for a united and secular India.
6. Role of Religion: The book delves into the role of religion in the freedom movement and Azad's belief in the importance of Hindu-Muslim unity for a strong and inclusive nation.
Significance:
"India Wins Freedom" is considered an important historical document as it offers a first-hand account of the Indian independence movement from the perspective of a prominent leader. The book provides valuable insights into the challenges faced by the freedom fighters and their vision for a free India.
Conclusion:
Written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, "India Wins Freedom" is a significant literary work that offers a personal and insightful account of the Indian independence movement. It serves as a valuable resource for understanding the struggles, sacrifices, and aspirations of the Indian freedom fighters.
If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, then what will be the code for SEARCH?- a)246173
- b)246272
- c)244774
- d)214673
- e)214675
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, then what will be the code for SEARCH?
a)
246173
b)
246272
c)
244774
d)
214673
e)
214675
|
|
Richa nayar answered |
To find the code for the word SEARCH, we need to analyze the given codes for the words ROSE, CHAIR, and PREACH.
1. Analyzing the code for ROSE:
- The word ROSE is coded as 6821.
- We can observe that the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, R is in the 18th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9 since we are taking only positive values).
- Similarly, the code for O is 9 - 15 = -6 (which is equivalent to 6), S is 9 - 19 = -10 (which is equivalent to 10), and E is 9 - 5 = 4.
2. Analyzing the code for CHAIR:
- The word CHAIR is coded as 73456.
- Again, the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, C is in the 3rd position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 3 = 6.
- Similarly, the code for H is 9 - 8 = 1, A is 9 - 1 = 8, I is 9 - 9 = 0, and R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9).
3. Analyzing the code for PREACH:
- The word PREACH is coded as 961473.
- Once again, the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, P is in the 16th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 16 = -7 (which is equivalent to 7).
- Similarly, the code for R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9), E is 9 - 5 = 4, A is 9 - 1 = 8, C is 9 - 3 = 6, and H is 9 - 8 = 1.
4. Finding the code for SEARCH:
- Using the same logic as above, we find that S is in the 19th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 19 = -10 (which is equivalent to 10).
- Similarly, the code for E is 9 - 5 = 4, A is 9 - 1 = 8, R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9), C is 9 - 3 = 6, and H is 9 - 8 = 1.
- Therefore, the code for SEARCH is 1048961, which corresponds to option D.
In conclusion, the code for the word SEARCH is 214673 (option D).
1. Analyzing the code for ROSE:
- The word ROSE is coded as 6821.
- We can observe that the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, R is in the 18th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9 since we are taking only positive values).
- Similarly, the code for O is 9 - 15 = -6 (which is equivalent to 6), S is 9 - 19 = -10 (which is equivalent to 10), and E is 9 - 5 = 4.
2. Analyzing the code for CHAIR:
- The word CHAIR is coded as 73456.
- Again, the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, C is in the 3rd position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 3 = 6.
- Similarly, the code for H is 9 - 8 = 1, A is 9 - 1 = 8, I is 9 - 9 = 0, and R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9).
3. Analyzing the code for PREACH:
- The word PREACH is coded as 961473.
- Once again, the code for each letter is obtained by subtracting the position of the letter in the English alphabet from 9.
- For example, P is in the 16th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 16 = -7 (which is equivalent to 7).
- Similarly, the code for R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9), E is 9 - 5 = 4, A is 9 - 1 = 8, C is 9 - 3 = 6, and H is 9 - 8 = 1.
4. Finding the code for SEARCH:
- Using the same logic as above, we find that S is in the 19th position in the alphabet, so its code is 9 - 19 = -10 (which is equivalent to 10).
- Similarly, the code for E is 9 - 5 = 4, A is 9 - 1 = 8, R is 9 - 18 = -9 (which is equivalent to 9), C is 9 - 3 = 6, and H is 9 - 8 = 1.
- Therefore, the code for SEARCH is 1048961, which corresponds to option D.
In conclusion, the code for the word SEARCH is 214673 (option D).
Six persons Saif, Alia, Ileana, Varun, Kareena and Ranveer are sitting around the circular table(not necessarily in the same order). Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer. Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif. Varun is not adjacent to Saif. Who sits second to the left of Varun?- a)Kareena
- b)Saif
- c)Ilean
- d)Ranveer
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Six persons Saif, Alia, Ileana, Varun, Kareena and Ranveer are sitting around the circular table(not necessarily in the same order). Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer. Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif. Varun is not adjacent to Saif. Who sits second to the left of Varun?
a)
Kareena
b)
Saif
c)
Ilean
d)
Ranveer
|
|
Shivam Nambiar answered |
Given Information:
- Six persons - Saif, Alia, Ileana, Varun, Kareena, and Ranveer
- Sitting around a circular table (not necessarily in the same order)
- Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer.
- Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif.
- Varun is not adjacent to Saif.
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Determine the possible positions of Ranveer and Saif.
From the given information, we know that Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer. Since it is a circular table, there are two possible arrangements:
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - _ - _ - _ - _
Arrangement 2:
_ - _ - _ - _ - Saif - Ranveer
Step 2: Determine the possible positions of Kareena.
From the given information, we know that Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif. This means that Kareena cannot sit next to Alia or Saif.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - _ - _ - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
_ - _ - _ - _ - Alia - Kareena - Ranveer - Saif
Step 3: Determine the possible positions of Varun.
From the given information, we know that Varun is not adjacent to Saif. This means that Varun cannot sit next to Saif.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - Varun - _ - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
_ - Varun - Ranveer - Saif - Alia - Kareena
Step 4: Determine the possible positions of Ileana.
Since all the other positions have been determined, Ileana can occupy the remaining position.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - Varun - Ileana - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
Ileana - Varun - Ranveer - Saif - Alia - Kareena
Step 5: Identify the person who sits second to the left of Varun.
From the arrangements, we can see that in both cases, Alia is sitting second to the left of Varun.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C) Ileana.
- Six persons - Saif, Alia, Ileana, Varun, Kareena, and Ranveer
- Sitting around a circular table (not necessarily in the same order)
- Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer.
- Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif.
- Varun is not adjacent to Saif.
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Determine the possible positions of Ranveer and Saif.
From the given information, we know that Saif sits second to the right of Ranveer. Since it is a circular table, there are two possible arrangements:
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - _ - _ - _ - _
Arrangement 2:
_ - _ - _ - _ - Saif - Ranveer
Step 2: Determine the possible positions of Kareena.
From the given information, we know that Kareena sits opposite to Alia but not adjacent to Saif. This means that Kareena cannot sit next to Alia or Saif.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - _ - _ - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
_ - _ - _ - _ - Alia - Kareena - Ranveer - Saif
Step 3: Determine the possible positions of Varun.
From the given information, we know that Varun is not adjacent to Saif. This means that Varun cannot sit next to Saif.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - Varun - _ - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
_ - Varun - Ranveer - Saif - Alia - Kareena
Step 4: Determine the possible positions of Ileana.
Since all the other positions have been determined, Ileana can occupy the remaining position.
Arrangement 1:
Ranveer - Saif - Varun - Ileana - Alia - Kareena
Arrangement 2:
Ileana - Varun - Ranveer - Saif - Alia - Kareena
Step 5: Identify the person who sits second to the left of Varun.
From the arrangements, we can see that in both cases, Alia is sitting second to the left of Varun.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C) Ileana.
Directions: The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Principle and the other as Facts. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.Principle: The word 'offence' denotes a thing made punishable by the Indian Penal Code. A prevents B from proceeding in any direction and keeps him/her confined to a place. A has committed an offence of criminal confinement. According to the Indian Penal Code, whoever instigates a person to do a thing, is said to abet such a thing.Facts: L, in an interview to a magazine, articulated her views in favour of living together without a nuptial knot. Aggrieved by the same, X filed a criminal complaint against L, for abetting criminal confinement. Can L be prosecuted and convicted for the same?- a)Yes, because the comments of L could have encouraged people to live together without entering into a nuptial bond.
- b)Yes, because the comments of L in fact encouraged certain individuals to live together without entering into a nuptial bond.
- c)No, because two adult people wanting to live together is not an offence.
- d)No, because the comments of L were not directed towards any particular person and anybody acting on them did so at his/her own risk.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Principle and the other as Facts. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.
Principle: The word 'offence' denotes a thing made punishable by the Indian Penal Code. A prevents B from proceeding in any direction and keeps him/her confined to a place. A has committed an offence of criminal confinement. According to the Indian Penal Code, whoever instigates a person to do a thing, is said to abet such a thing.
Facts: L, in an interview to a magazine, articulated her views in favour of living together without a nuptial knot. Aggrieved by the same, X filed a criminal complaint against L, for abetting criminal confinement. Can L be prosecuted and convicted for the same?
a)
Yes, because the comments of L could have encouraged people to live together without entering into a nuptial bond.
b)
Yes, because the comments of L in fact encouraged certain individuals to live together without entering into a nuptial bond.
c)
No, because two adult people wanting to live together is not an offence.
d)
No, because the comments of L were not directed towards any particular person and anybody acting on them did so at his/her own risk.
|
|
Vedika Choudhary answered |
Principle: The word 'offence' denotes a thing made punishable by the Indian Penal Code. A prevents B from proceeding in any direction and keeps him/her confined to a place. A has committed an offence of criminal confinement. According to the Indian Penal Code, whoever instigates a person to do a thing is said to abet such a thing.
Facts:
L, in an interview to a magazine, articulated her views in favour of living together without a nuptial knot. Aggrieved by the same, X filed a criminal complaint against L, for abetting criminal confinement.
Explanation:
No, because two adult people wanting to live together is not an offence:
- Living together without a nuptial bond is not a criminal offence in India.
- The Indian Penal Code does not prohibit adults from choosing to live together without getting married.
- L's comments expressing her views on this matter do not amount to abetting criminal confinement as it is a personal choice made by consenting adults.
- X's filing of a criminal complaint against L for expressing her opinion does not hold legal ground as it does not constitute a punishable offence under the Indian Penal Code.
In conclusion, L cannot be prosecuted and convicted for abetting criminal confinement in this scenario because her comments in support of living together without marriage do not amount to any criminal offence as per the Indian Penal Code.
Facts:
L, in an interview to a magazine, articulated her views in favour of living together without a nuptial knot. Aggrieved by the same, X filed a criminal complaint against L, for abetting criminal confinement.
Explanation:
No, because two adult people wanting to live together is not an offence:
- Living together without a nuptial bond is not a criminal offence in India.
- The Indian Penal Code does not prohibit adults from choosing to live together without getting married.
- L's comments expressing her views on this matter do not amount to abetting criminal confinement as it is a personal choice made by consenting adults.
- X's filing of a criminal complaint against L for expressing her opinion does not hold legal ground as it does not constitute a punishable offence under the Indian Penal Code.
In conclusion, L cannot be prosecuted and convicted for abetting criminal confinement in this scenario because her comments in support of living together without marriage do not amount to any criminal offence as per the Indian Penal Code.
Directions: Choose the most appropriate word(s) among the four given alternatives to fill in the gap(s).Q. A hobby is an activity of interest ________ for pleasure. It helps to break the monotony and tedium of our _______ routine.- a)developed, interesting
- b)pursued, humdrum
- c)cultivated, developed
- d)regularised, cultivated
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Choose the most appropriate word(s) among the four given alternatives to fill in the gap(s).
Q. A hobby is an activity of interest ________ for pleasure. It helps to break the monotony and tedium of our _______ routine.
a)
developed, interesting
b)
pursued, humdrum
c)
cultivated, developed
d)
regularised, cultivated
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
'Hobby' means an activity done regularly in one's leisure time for pleasure. A hobby is usually our escape from our day-to-day boring routine. Only word that fits the second blank with 'monotony' and 'tedium' is 'humdrum' which means lacking of excitement or variety. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Directions: In this question, there is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.Statement: There have been a large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating panic among the internet users.Courses of action:I. The government should employ ethical hackers to strengthen cyber security and plug loopholes.II. The government should issue an advisory for people to stay away from risky net-banking operations until the culprits are caught.- a)I only
- b)II only
- c)Neither I nor II
- d)Both I and II
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In this question, there is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: There have been a large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating panic among the internet users.
Courses of action:
I. The government should employ ethical hackers to strengthen cyber security and plug loopholes.
II. The government should issue an advisory for people to stay away from risky net-banking operations until the culprits are caught.
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Neither I nor II
d)
Both I and II
|
|
Farida Ali answered |
I is advisable because you need a thorn to take out a thorn. Ethical hackers will know what strategies rogue hackers employ and can suggest more fool-proof cyber security measures. Hence, the number of cases of internet hacking is likely to be reduced. II is not advisable because this will hamper normal commercial operations besides causing fear psychosis among the public.
Direction: Statement and conclusion are given below. Read them carefully and find out whether the conclusion follows the statement or not, and according to that choose your answer from the given option.Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.Conclusions:I. Some windows are walls.II. No wall is a door.- a)Only (I) conclusion follows
- b)Only (II) conclusion follows
- c)Either (I) or (II) follows
- d)Both (I) and (II) follow
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: Statement and conclusion are given below. Read them carefully and find out whether the conclusion follows the statement or not, and according to that choose your answer from the given option.
Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are walls.
II. No wall is a door.
a)
Only (I) conclusion follows
b)
Only (II) conclusion follows
c)
Either (I) or (II) follows
d)
Both (I) and (II) follow
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Only (II) follow.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
One day Ravi left home and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. how many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?- a)10 km
- b)15 km
- c)20 km
- d)25 km
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
One day Ravi left home and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. how many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
a)
10 km
b)
15 km
c)
20 km
d)
25 km
|
|
Kabeer ghosh answered |
To solve this question, we need to visualize the movements of Ravi on a map. Let's break down the given information step by step:
1. Ravi starts from his home and cycles 10 km southwards.
2. He then turns right and cycles 5 km.
3. After that, he turns right again and cycles 10 km.
4. Finally, he turns left and cycles 10 km.
We need to calculate the distance Ravi needs to cycle to reach his home straight.
Let's analyze the movements:
1. Cycling 10 km southwards: This means Ravi moves 10 km away from his home in the south direction.
2. Turning right and cycling 5 km: After moving south, Ravi turns right and cycles 5 km. This means he is moving 5 km towards the west.
3. Turning right again and cycling 10 km: After moving west, Ravi turns right again and cycles 10 km. This means he is moving 10 km towards the north.
4. Turning left and cycling 10 km: Finally, Ravi turns left and cycles 10 km. This means he is moving 10 km towards the west.
Now, let's calculate the total distance Ravi needs to cycle to reach his home straight:
- Ravi has moved 10 km southwards.
- Then, he moved 5 km westwards.
- Next, he moved 10 km northwards.
- Finally, he moved 10 km westwards.
To calculate the straight distance to his home, we need to find the net distance in the north-south direction and the net distance in the east-west direction.
Net distance in the north-south direction: 10 km (north) - 10 km (south) = 0 km
Net distance in the east-west direction: 5 km (west) + 10 km (west) = 15 km
Therefore, Ravi needs to cycle 15 km to reach his home straight.
Hence, the correct answer is option B) 15 km.
1. Ravi starts from his home and cycles 10 km southwards.
2. He then turns right and cycles 5 km.
3. After that, he turns right again and cycles 10 km.
4. Finally, he turns left and cycles 10 km.
We need to calculate the distance Ravi needs to cycle to reach his home straight.
Let's analyze the movements:
1. Cycling 10 km southwards: This means Ravi moves 10 km away from his home in the south direction.
2. Turning right and cycling 5 km: After moving south, Ravi turns right and cycles 5 km. This means he is moving 5 km towards the west.
3. Turning right again and cycling 10 km: After moving west, Ravi turns right again and cycles 10 km. This means he is moving 10 km towards the north.
4. Turning left and cycling 10 km: Finally, Ravi turns left and cycles 10 km. This means he is moving 10 km towards the west.
Now, let's calculate the total distance Ravi needs to cycle to reach his home straight:
- Ravi has moved 10 km southwards.
- Then, he moved 5 km westwards.
- Next, he moved 10 km northwards.
- Finally, he moved 10 km westwards.
To calculate the straight distance to his home, we need to find the net distance in the north-south direction and the net distance in the east-west direction.
Net distance in the north-south direction: 10 km (north) - 10 km (south) = 0 km
Net distance in the east-west direction: 5 km (west) + 10 km (west) = 15 km
Therefore, Ravi needs to cycle 15 km to reach his home straight.
Hence, the correct answer is option B) 15 km.
In January 2022, _______ became India's first UN Development Programme (UNDP) Youth Climate Champion.- a)Prajakta Koli
- b)Sanya Malhotra
- c) Tara Sutaria
- d)Kiara Advani
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In January 2022, _______ became India's first UN Development Programme (UNDP) Youth Climate Champion.
a)
Prajakta Koli
b)
Sanya Malhotra
c)
Tara Sutaria
d)
Kiara Advani
|
|
Farida Ali answered |
In January 2022, content creator and actress Prajakta Koli became India's first UN Development Programme (UNDP) Youth Climate Champion under her partnership with the organisation.
The title has been conferred to her following her contribution towards mental health, women's rights and girl child education through various global social campaigns.
UNDP aims to eliminate poverty, achieve sustainable growth and scale up human development in countries where it is required the most.
The title has been conferred to her following her contribution towards mental health, women's rights and girl child education through various global social campaigns.
UNDP aims to eliminate poverty, achieve sustainable growth and scale up human development in countries where it is required the most.
The earlier name of the WTO was:- a)UNCTAD
- b)GATT
- c)UNIDO
- d)OECD
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The earlier name of the WTO was:
a)
UNCTAD
b)
GATT
c)
UNIDO
d)
OECD
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
Uruguay Round talks of General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) in 1994 led to the foundation for the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995, with its headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland. So, the earlier name of WTO was GATT.
Direction: In the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side :: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.123 : 4 :: 726 : ?- a)23
- b)26
- c)14
- d)12
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side :: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
123 : 4 :: 726 : ?
a)
23
b)
26
c)
14
d)
12
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
123 ⇒ 12/3 = 4
Similarly,
726 ⇒ 72/6 = 12
In this question, the first two digits of the given number are divided by the third one.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Which of the following has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government?- a)The Prime Minister
- b)The Comptroller and Auditor General
- c)The Parliament
- d)National Development Council
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government?
a)
The Prime Minister
b)
The Comptroller and Auditor General
c)
The Parliament
d)
National Development Council
|
|
Mayank Chaudhary answered |
Parliament has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government. This means that the Parliament has the power to approve or reject the budget presented by the government and can also make changes to it. The expenditure of the government is scrutinized by the Parliament by means of various committees like the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee.
Importance of Parliament's control over expenditure:
1. Ensures accountability: The control of Parliament over the expenditure of the government ensures that the government is accountable to the people for the money it spends.
2. Prevents misuse of public funds: The Parliament's control over expenditure prevents the misuse of public funds by the government.
3. Ensures transparency: The control of Parliament over expenditure ensures that the government's expenditure is transparent and there is no room for corruption.
4. Promotes democracy: The control of Parliament over expenditure promotes democracy as it ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Parliament has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government. This power ensures that the government is accountable to the people for the money it spends and prevents the misuse of public funds. The control of Parliament over expenditure is important for promoting transparency and democracy in the country.
Importance of Parliament's control over expenditure:
1. Ensures accountability: The control of Parliament over the expenditure of the government ensures that the government is accountable to the people for the money it spends.
2. Prevents misuse of public funds: The Parliament's control over expenditure prevents the misuse of public funds by the government.
3. Ensures transparency: The control of Parliament over expenditure ensures that the government's expenditure is transparent and there is no room for corruption.
4. Promotes democracy: The control of Parliament over expenditure promotes democracy as it ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Parliament has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government. This power ensures that the government is accountable to the people for the money it spends and prevents the misuse of public funds. The control of Parliament over expenditure is important for promoting transparency and democracy in the country.
Directions: Find out the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase from the four alternatives.Mare`s nest- a)Unfounded suspicion
- b)The main stay
- c)One who changes his opinion
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Find out the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase from the four alternatives.
Mare`s nest
a)
Unfounded suspicion
b)
The main stay
c)
One who changes his opinion
d)
None of these
|
|
Prateek Rane answered |
Meaning of the Idiom:
Mare's nest: This idiom refers to a situation where someone believes they have discovered something remarkable or important, but in reality, it is nothing more than a false or unfounded suspicion.
Explanation:
- The idiom "Mare's nest" is used to describe a situation where someone is convinced they have found something significant or valuable, but it turns out to be baseless.
- It is similar to a wild goose chase where one is chasing something that does not exist.
- The origin of this idiom can be traced back to the belief that a mare's nest is a nonsensical or absurd notion, as mares do not make nests like birds.
Example in a sentence:
- The detective thought he had uncovered a major clue, but it turned out to be just a mare's nest.
By understanding the meaning and usage of the idiom "Mare's nest," one can effectively incorporate it into their language to convey situations of false discoveries or unfounded suspicions.
Directions: In the following question, a letter-number series is given with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.B3D, H9J, N15P, ?- a)U21V
- b)T21W
- c)T21V
- d)Y22W
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the following question, a letter-number series is given with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
B3D, H9J, N15P, ?
a)
U21V
b)
T21W
c)
T21V
d)
Y22W
|
|
Malini desai answered |
To solve this letter-number series, we need to identify the pattern between the given terms and use it to find the missing term. Let's analyze the given series B3D, H9J, N15P.
Pattern Analysis:
- The first letter in each term follows the sequence B, H, N, which suggests an increment of 6 (B + 6 = H, H + 6 = N).
- The second term in each term follows the sequence 3, 9, 15, which suggests an increment of 6 as well (3 + 6 = 9, 9 + 6 = 15).
- The third letter in each term follows the sequence D, J, P, which suggests an increment of 6 as well (D + 6 = J, J + 6 = P).
Using these patterns, we can determine the missing term in the series.
Solution:
- The first letter of the missing term should be the next letter in the sequence after N, which is T (N + 6 = T).
- The second number of the missing term should be the next number in the sequence after 15, which is 21 (15 + 6 = 21).
- The third letter of the missing term should be the next letter in the sequence after P, which is V (P + 6 = V).
Therefore, the missing term in the series B3D, H9J, N15P is T21V. Hence, option C (T21V) is the correct answer.
Pattern Analysis:
- The first letter in each term follows the sequence B, H, N, which suggests an increment of 6 (B + 6 = H, H + 6 = N).
- The second term in each term follows the sequence 3, 9, 15, which suggests an increment of 6 as well (3 + 6 = 9, 9 + 6 = 15).
- The third letter in each term follows the sequence D, J, P, which suggests an increment of 6 as well (D + 6 = J, J + 6 = P).
Using these patterns, we can determine the missing term in the series.
Solution:
- The first letter of the missing term should be the next letter in the sequence after N, which is T (N + 6 = T).
- The second number of the missing term should be the next number in the sequence after 15, which is 21 (15 + 6 = 21).
- The third letter of the missing term should be the next letter in the sequence after P, which is V (P + 6 = V).
Therefore, the missing term in the series B3D, H9J, N15P is T21V. Hence, option C (T21V) is the correct answer.
Directions: In this question, an assertion is followed by two reasons, RI and RII. Read the assertion carefully and decide which, out of RI and RII, is/are the possible reason(s) for the assertion.Assertion: The government wants the country's antitrust body to assess whether the so-called 'Big Four' auditing firms and their affiliates are hurting competition in any manner.RI: The recent statistics show that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched.RII: The 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE).- a)Only RI is the reason.
- b)Only RII is the reason.
- c)Neither RI nor RII is the reason.
- d)Both RI and RII are the reasons.
- e)Either RI or RII is the reason.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In this question, an assertion is followed by two reasons, RI and RII. Read the assertion carefully and decide which, out of RI and RII, is/are the possible reason(s) for the assertion.
Assertion: The government wants the country's antitrust body to assess whether the so-called 'Big Four' auditing firms and their affiliates are hurting competition in any manner.
RI: The recent statistics show that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched.
RII: The 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE).
a)
Only RI is the reason.
b)
Only RII is the reason.
c)
Neither RI nor RII is the reason.
d)
Both RI and RII are the reasons.
e)
Either RI or RII is the reason.
|
|
Kalyan Chawla answered |
Assertion: The government wants the country's antitrust body to assess whether the so-called 'Big Four' auditing firms and their affiliates are hurting competition in any manner.
RI: The recent statistics show that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched.
RII: The 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE).
Reasoning: The assertion talks about the government's concern about the 'Big Four' auditing firms and their affiliates potentially harming competition in some way. The two reasons provided are the recent statistics showing that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched (RI) and the fact that the 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE) (RII).
RI: The recent statistics showing that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched is not a direct reason for the government's concern about the 'Big Four' auditing firms. This statistic may indicate a broader issue with auditing firms in general, but it does not necessarily implicate the 'Big Four' specifically.
RII: The fact that the 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE) is a more direct reason for the government's concern about these firms. This statistic suggests that the 'Big Four' have a significant market share in the auditing industry, which could potentially harm competition and create barriers to entry for smaller firms.
Therefore, only RII is a possible reason for the assertion, and the correct answer is option 'B'.
RI: The recent statistics show that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched.
RII: The 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE).
Reasoning: The assertion talks about the government's concern about the 'Big Four' auditing firms and their affiliates potentially harming competition in some way. The two reasons provided are the recent statistics showing that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched (RI) and the fact that the 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE) (RII).
RI: The recent statistics showing that only 13% of the auditing firms survived in the market for more than a year after being launched is not a direct reason for the government's concern about the 'Big Four' auditing firms. This statistic may indicate a broader issue with auditing firms in general, but it does not necessarily implicate the 'Big Four' specifically.
RII: The fact that the 'Big Four' do auditing work for almost 60% of the top 500 companies that trade on India's National Stock Exchange (NSE) is a more direct reason for the government's concern about these firms. This statistic suggests that the 'Big Four' have a significant market share in the auditing industry, which could potentially harm competition and create barriers to entry for smaller firms.
Therefore, only RII is a possible reason for the assertion, and the correct answer is option 'B'.
Direction: In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer. The woman to who I sold my house was a criminal.- a)to whom I selled
- b)to whom I sell
- c)to whom I sold
- d)no correction required
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer.
The woman to who I sold my house was a criminal.
a)
to whom I selled
b)
to whom I sell
c)
to whom I sold
d)
no correction required
|
|
Siddhi Patel answered |
Explanation:
The original sentence is: "The woman to who I sold my house was a criminal."
In this sentence, the phrase "to who" is incorrect. The correct form should be "to whom" because "whom" is used as the object of the preposition "to."
Option A: "to whom I selled" - This option is incorrect because "selled" is not the correct past tense form of "sell." The correct form is "sold."
Option B: "to whom I sell" - This option is incorrect because it uses the present tense form "sell" instead of the past tense form "sold."
Option C: "to whom I sold" - This is the correct answer. It uses the correct past tense form "sold" and the correct pronoun "whom" as the object of the preposition "to."
Option D: "No correction required" - This option is incorrect because the sentence does require correction.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: "to whom I sold."
The original sentence is: "The woman to who I sold my house was a criminal."
In this sentence, the phrase "to who" is incorrect. The correct form should be "to whom" because "whom" is used as the object of the preposition "to."
Option A: "to whom I selled" - This option is incorrect because "selled" is not the correct past tense form of "sell." The correct form is "sold."
Option B: "to whom I sell" - This option is incorrect because it uses the present tense form "sell" instead of the past tense form "sold."
Option C: "to whom I sold" - This is the correct answer. It uses the correct past tense form "sold" and the correct pronoun "whom" as the object of the preposition "to."
Option D: "No correction required" - This option is incorrect because the sentence does require correction.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: "to whom I sold."
Which one among the following is not a coral reef island?- a)Great Barrier Reef, Australia
- b)Rainbow Reef, Fiji
- c)Swaraj Island, India
- d)Kyushu Island, Japan
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one among the following is not a coral reef island?
a)
Great Barrier Reef, Australia
b)
Rainbow Reef, Fiji
c)
Swaraj Island, India
d)
Kyushu Island, Japan
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
Kyushu Island, Japan, is not a coral reef island.
A coral island is a type of island formed from coral detritus and associated organic material. It occurs in tropical and subtropical areas, typically as part of coral reefs which have grown to cover a far larger area under the sea.
Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest coral reef system composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for over 2,300 km over an area of approximately 3,44,400 km2. The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
Rainbow Reef is a reef in the Somosomo Strait between the Fijian islands of Taveuni and Vanua Levu.
Swaraj Island is a part of Ritchie's Archipelago, in India's Andaman Islands. It is known for its dive sites and beaches, like Elephant Beach, with its coral reefs.
Direction: The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word you consider most appropriate for the blank.Q. Anaita is on the ______ financial ruin.- a)side of
- b)periphery
- c)boundary of
- d)brink of
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word you consider most appropriate for the blank.
Q. Anaita is on the ______ financial ruin.
a)
side of
b)
periphery
c)
boundary of
d)
brink of
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
‘On the side’ is a phrase which means in addition to one’s regular job.
‘On the periphery of’ means not a very important part of it.
‘On the brink of’ means about to happen.
By the meaning of words, the most appropriate is "on the brink of", it gives the proper sense to the sentence.
Then the sentence is, "Anaita is on the brink of financial ruin."
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Directions: In the following passage, there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.To see Gokhale in interaction was as _____(1)_____ a joy as interactive education. He never wasted a minute. His private relations and friendships _____(2)_____ for public good. His interests were _____(3)_____ only on the good of the country. They were absolutely free from any _____(4)_____ of untruth _____(5)_____ insincerity. India’s _____(6)_____ and subjection were matters of constant and intense concern to him. Various people _____(7)_____ to draw his interest to different things but he could not be distracted. He only _____(8)_____ freedom for his country.Q. Fill in blank (4).- a)slice
- b)piece
- c)trace
- d)shard
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the following passage, there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
To see Gokhale in interaction was as _____(1)_____ a joy as interactive education. He never wasted a minute. His private relations and friendships _____(2)_____ for public good. His interests were _____(3)_____ only on the good of the country. They were absolutely free from any _____(4)_____ of untruth _____(5)_____ insincerity. India’s _____(6)_____ and subjection were matters of constant and intense concern to him. Various people _____(7)_____ to draw his interest to different things but he could not be distracted. He only _____(8)_____ freedom for his country.
Q. Fill in blank (4).
a)
slice
b)
piece
c)
trace
d)
shard
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
‘Trace’ is the correct word to use here to mean without the tiniest amount of untruth.
Directions: The sentence given below is divided into three parts (a), (b) and (c). One of these parts may contain an error. You have to indicate that part as your answer. If there are no errors, indicate (d) as your answer.The faster (a)/ you act, the better (b)/ is it. (c)/ No error (d)- a)(a)
- b)(b)
- c)(c)
- d)(d)
Correct answer is option ''. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: The sentence given below is divided into three parts (a), (b) and (c). One of these parts may contain an error. You have to indicate that part as your answer. If there are no errors, indicate (d) as your answer.
The faster (a)/ you act, the better (b)/ is it. (c)/ No error (d)
a)
(a)
b)
(b)
c)
(c)
d)
(d)
|
|
Madhavi bhatia answered |
Explanation:
Error Identification:
The error in the sentence is in part (c).
Correction:
The corrected sentence should be: "The faster you act, the better it is."
The correct sentence structure for comparing two actions is "the + comparative adjective + subject + verb, the + comparative adjective + subject + verb." There is no need to include "is" in this construction.
Therefore, the error lies in part (c) of the sentence.
Error Identification:
The error in the sentence is in part (c).
Correction:
The corrected sentence should be: "The faster you act, the better it is."
The correct sentence structure for comparing two actions is "the + comparative adjective + subject + verb, the + comparative adjective + subject + verb." There is no need to include "is" in this construction.
Therefore, the error lies in part (c) of the sentence.
Which Member of Parliament (MP) won the Sansad Ratna Award in March 2022?- a)Bhagwant Mann
- b)Ravi Shankar Prasad
- c)Manohar Lal Joshi
- d)Kuldeep Rai Sharma
- e)Lal Krishan Advani
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which Member of Parliament (MP) won the Sansad Ratna Award in March 2022?
a)
Bhagwant Mann
b)
Ravi Shankar Prasad
c)
Manohar Lal Joshi
d)
Kuldeep Rai Sharma
e)
Lal Krishan Advani
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
In March 2022, Andaman and Nicobar Islands' MP Kuldeep Rai Sharma was awarded the Sansad Ratna Award 2022, in recognition of his hard work in his constituency. He also worked towards the rights of children in the area. The award was given by Chief Election Commissioner of India, Sushil Chandra, in the presence of Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs Arjun Ram Meghwal.
Directions: Find out the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase from the four alternatives.A square peg in a round hole- a)To know a thing thoroughly
- b)To confess fully
- c)A person out of his element
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Find out the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase from the four alternatives.
A square peg in a round hole
a)
To know a thing thoroughly
b)
To confess fully
c)
A person out of his element
d)
None of these
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
"Square peg in a round hole" is an idiomatic expression which describes the unusual individualist who could not fit into a niche of their society, that is to say, a person in a situation unsuited to their abilities or character.
The period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is- a)one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud
- b)six months from the date of knowledge of fraud
- c)two years from the incident of fraud
- d)fourteen months from the date of knowledge of fraud
- e)NA
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is
a)
one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud
b)
six months from the date of knowledge of fraud
c)
two years from the incident of fraud
d)
fourteen months from the date of knowledge of fraud
e)
NA
|
|
Priyadarshini shukla answered |
Period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud:
The correct answer is option 'A', which states that the period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud.
Explanation:
To understand why option 'A' is the correct answer, let's first define what an annulment of marriage is and what constitutes fraud in the context of marriage.
An annulment of marriage is a legal process that declares a marriage null and void, as if it never took place. It differs from a divorce, which terminates a valid marriage. An annulment can be sought on various grounds, including fraud.
Fraud in the context of marriage refers to situations where one party deceives the other party into marrying them by concealing important information or providing false information. This deception must be substantial and go to the root of the marriage for it to be considered fraudulent.
Period of Limitation:
The period of limitation refers to the time within which a legal action must be initiated. In the case of seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud, there is a specific time limit within which the action must be filed.
According to the given options, the correct period of limitation is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud. This means that once a person becomes aware of the fraudulent act committed by their spouse, they have one year to file for an annulment based on that ground.
It is important to note that the period of limitation may vary depending on the jurisdiction and the specific laws governing annulments in that particular jurisdiction. Therefore, it is always advisable to consult the relevant laws and seek legal advice to determine the correct period of limitation in a particular case.
In conclusion, option 'A' is the correct answer as it accurately states that the period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud.
The correct answer is option 'A', which states that the period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud.
Explanation:
To understand why option 'A' is the correct answer, let's first define what an annulment of marriage is and what constitutes fraud in the context of marriage.
An annulment of marriage is a legal process that declares a marriage null and void, as if it never took place. It differs from a divorce, which terminates a valid marriage. An annulment can be sought on various grounds, including fraud.
Fraud in the context of marriage refers to situations where one party deceives the other party into marrying them by concealing important information or providing false information. This deception must be substantial and go to the root of the marriage for it to be considered fraudulent.
Period of Limitation:
The period of limitation refers to the time within which a legal action must be initiated. In the case of seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud, there is a specific time limit within which the action must be filed.
According to the given options, the correct period of limitation is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud. This means that once a person becomes aware of the fraudulent act committed by their spouse, they have one year to file for an annulment based on that ground.
It is important to note that the period of limitation may vary depending on the jurisdiction and the specific laws governing annulments in that particular jurisdiction. Therefore, it is always advisable to consult the relevant laws and seek legal advice to determine the correct period of limitation in a particular case.
In conclusion, option 'A' is the correct answer as it accurately states that the period of limitation for seeking an annulment of marriage on the ground of fraud is one year from the date of knowing the fact of fraud.
Directions: Four alternative summaries are given below the underneath text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.However ingeniously we might plan and organise our society and adjust human relationships, so long as the world is what it is, the best of us cannot escape sorrow and suffering, Socialism cannot remove human selfishness. Even if we by some stroke of good fortune escape from the usual annoyances of life, we cannot free ourselves from death.- a)That what is impending shall happen; acceptance of one's destiny is the ultimate truth.
- b)Human relationships, societal set ups or luck cannot salvage man from what is fated to happen.
- c)The inevitabilities of life cannot be wished away by the best of human efforts or luck.
- d)A socialist format of a society is not immune to pains and suffering that tend to afflict human beings.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Four alternative summaries are given below the underneath text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
However ingeniously we might plan and organise our society and adjust human relationships, so long as the world is what it is, the best of us cannot escape sorrow and suffering, Socialism cannot remove human selfishness. Even if we by some stroke of good fortune escape from the usual annoyances of life, we cannot free ourselves from death.
a)
That what is impending shall happen; acceptance of one's destiny is the ultimate truth.
b)
Human relationships, societal set ups or luck cannot salvage man from what is fated to happen.
c)
The inevitabilities of life cannot be wished away by the best of human efforts or luck.
d)
A socialist format of a society is not immune to pains and suffering that tend to afflict human beings.
|
|
Ananya Deshmukh answered |
The passage says that even the best of good efforts of man cannot save him from the inevitable.
Option 1 is incorrect as "acceptance of one's destiny" is not a message implicit in the passage.
Option 2 is incorrect as "what is fated to happen" is not what the passage talks about; the passage talks about something that will always happen to everyone – sorrow, suffering, death.
Option 4 is incorrect as the passage doesn't revolve around socialism; this is just one aspect of it.
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is the third to the left of J who is second to the left of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an immediate neighbour of M.- a)F
- b)M
- c)P
- d)J
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is the third to the left of J who is second to the left of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an immediate neighbour of M.
a)
F
b)
M
c)
P
d)
J
|
|
Sagnik Majumdar answered |
Analysis:
- M, P, J, B, R, T, and F are sitting around a circle facing the center.
- B is the third to the left of J.
- J is the second to the left of M.
- P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R.
- T is not an immediate neighbor of M.
Solution:
- From the given information, we can arrange the people in the following order around the circle: T, R, P, B, J, M, F.
- So, F is sitting third to the right of T.
Answer:
- Therefore, the person sitting third to the right of T is F. Hence, the correct answer is option A, F.
Chapter doubts & questions for DU LLB Mock Tests - DU LLB Mock Test Series 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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DU LLB Mock Test Series
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