All Exams  >   BPSC (Bihar)  >   Indian Polity for State PSC Exams  >   All Questions

All questions of Central Government, Parliament & Judiciary for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

Which of the following bills can be introduced only with the permission of the President?
  • a)
    Finance bills
  • b)
    Constitution amendment bills
  • c)
    Bills related to defence procurements
  • d)
    Impeachment of the judges
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Shah answered
The Correct Answer is B: Constitution Amendment Bills
  • There are some bills which require the prior recommendation of the President before their introduction in the Parliament. These bills are:
Bill that seeks to alter the boundaries of the states and names of the states. Money Bill & Finance Bill. State Bills which impose the restrictions upon freedom of trade. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested.

Consider the following statements about cabinet committees. 
1. Prime Minister is the chairman of all the cabinet committees 
2. They only include cabinet ministers 
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    2 Only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Gupta answered
The correct option is 3. Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. The Prime Minister is not the chairman of all the cabinet committees. There are several cabinet committees, and while the Prime Minister is the head of many, there are others that are headed by other senior ministers.

2. Cabinet committees do not only include cabinet ministers. They may also include Ministers of State (independent charge) or even Ministers of State. The members of these committees are decided by the Prime Minister.

Consider the following statements.
1.As per Article 124, an Indian citizen with 5 years as a High Court judge or 10 years as an advocate, or a distinguished jurist, is eligible for appointment as a Supreme Court judge.
2. The SC’s powers and jurisdiction can only be added and curtailed by the Parliament 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only 
  • c)
    Both of them
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Statements
The question presents two statements regarding the eligibility criteria for Supreme Court judges and the powers of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1: Eligibility Criteria
- According to Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, the qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court judge indeed include:
- An Indian citizen who has been a High Court judge for at least 5 years.
- An advocate of at least 10 years standing at the bar.
- A distinguished jurist, which can include legal scholars or practitioners of repute.
This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Powers and Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
- The powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, as defined in the Constitution, can be altered by Parliament. However, the basic structure doctrine established by the Supreme Court limits Parliament's ability to change fundamental aspects of the Constitution, including the Supreme Court's powers.
- Therefore, while Parliament can legislate on the Supreme Court's jurisdiction, it cannot make changes that would undermine its essential features.
This statement is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Since Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'A': 1 Only.
This analysis clarifies the eligibility requirements for Supreme Court judges while also emphasizing the limitations on Parliament's power over the Court's jurisdiction.

Consider the following statements.
1. The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers not other ministers even if they differed in the Cabinet meeting.
2. If any Minister disagrees with the cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both of them   
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers not other ministers even if they differed in the Cabinet meeting. The first statement is incorrect because the principle of collective responsibility binds all ministers who are part of the cabinet, not just the cabinet ministers.
If any Minister disagrees with the cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign: This statement is accurate. Under the principle of collective responsibility, if a minister cannot support a cabinet decision publicly, the convention is that the minister should resign from the cabinet. This ensures that the government presents a united front and maintains coherence in its policies and actions.

Consider the following about the powers of the President of India.
1. He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre-state and inter-state cooperation.
2. He directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him.
3. He can declare an area as scheduled area and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes below,
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Sengupta answered
The Powers of the President of India

The President of India is the head of state and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The powers of the President of India are listed in the Constitution of India. Let's discuss the powers of the President of India in detail.

Appointment of Inter-state Council

The President of India can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre-state and inter-state cooperation. The inter-state council is a constitutional body that was set up in 1990 to promote cooperation between states and the Centre. The council is headed by the Prime Minister and has chief ministers of all the states and Union Territories as members. The council discusses issues related to Centre-state relations and inter-state relations and makes recommendations to the Centre and states. The President has the power to appoint the members of the council and can also dissolve the council.

Direct Administration of Union Territories

The President of India directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him. India has seven union territories, and the President appoints an administrator for each of them. The administrator is responsible for the administration of the union territory and reports directly to the President. The administrator has the power to make laws for the union territory, subject to the approval of the President.

Powers Concerning the Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas

The President of India can declare an area as scheduled area and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. A scheduled area is an area in which the tribal population is in the majority or in which the tribal population is significantly higher than the rest of the population. The President has the power to declare an area as a scheduled area and can also make regulations for the administration of scheduled areas. The President can also nominate members to the advisory council for the welfare of the scheduled tribes.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the powers of the President of India are significant, and the President plays a crucial role in the governance of the country. The President has the power to appoint an inter-state council, directly administer union territories, and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. These powers ensure that the President can effectively carry out his duties and responsibilities as the head of state.

Which statement is not correct in the context of Article 75(3)?
  • a)
    The President will appoint the Prime Minister
  • b)
    The number of members of cabinet will not exceed 15% of the total number of Lok Sabha
  • c)
    The minister shall hold the office till the pleasure of the Prime Minister 
  • d)
    The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
The minister shall hold the office till the pleasure of the Prime Minister.  Option 3 is incorrect.
Article 75(2) specifically provides that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any ministers at any time.

Which of the following comes under the judicial powers of the President of India?
1. Appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
2. Pardoning a death sentence.
3. Deciding on whether a bill should be sent for reconsideration to the concerned state legislature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    2 and 3
  • c)
    1 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Kumar answered
Judicial powers of the President of India

The President of India is the head of the Indian judiciary and exercises various judicial powers. The correct option is (a) 1 and 2. Let's understand these powers in detail:

1. Appointment of judges of the Supreme Court of India:
The President of India has the power to appoint the judges of the Supreme Court of India. This power is exercised in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other senior judges of the Supreme Court.

2. Pardoning a death sentence:
The President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. This power is exercised under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution.

3. Sending a bill for reconsideration to the concerned state legislature:
This power is not a judicial power of the President of India. It falls under the legislative powers of the President. The President can send a bill passed by the state legislature for reconsideration. However, the President cannot reject or amend the bill.

Conclusion:
Thus, the correct option is (a) 1 and 2. The President of India has the power to appoint judges of the Supreme Court and to grant pardon or reprieve in case of death sentence.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Regulating Act of 1773: Established Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta
2. India High Courts Act 1861: Created High Courts for various provinces
3. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019: Increased judicial strength from 31 to 34
4. Government of India Act 1935: Created High Courts in Bombay and Madras
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Sengupta answered
Analysis of Correctly Matched Pairs:
1. Regulating Act of 1773: Established Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta
- The Regulating Act of 1773 indeed established the Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta, which was the first Supreme Court in India.
2. India High Courts Act 1861: Created High Courts for various provinces
- The India High Courts Act of 1861 was enacted to create High Courts in different provinces of India, providing a more organized system of justice at the provincial level.
3. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019: Increased judicial strength from 31 to 34
- The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019 aimed to increase the judicial strength of the Supreme Court from 31 to 34 judges to help manage the increasing workload and backlog of cases.

Conclusion:
Out of the given pairs, three pairs are correctly matched based on the historical and legislative context of each act. These acts played crucial roles in shaping the judicial system in India and had a significant impact on the administration of justice in the country.

Consider the following statements:
1. Impeachment of the President can be initiated for "violation of the Constitution."
2. A two-thirds majority vote in both houses of Parliament is required for the removal of the President.
3. The charges for impeachment must be signed by half of the members of either house of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Impeachment of the President can be initiated for "violation of the Constitution."
- Statement 2 is correct. For the removal of the President, a two-thirds majority vote in both houses of Parliament is required.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The charges for impeachment must be signed by one-fourth, not half, of the members of either house of Parliament.

In the matter of State legislation, the President may
  • a)
    exercise only suspensive veto power
  • b)
    may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills
  • c)
    withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration
  • d)
    directly disallow any bill which he considers anti-national
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Datta answered
Explanation:
According to Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, when a bill is passed by both houses of Parliament, it is presented to the President for his assent. The President can do the following:

1. Give his assent: If the President gives his assent, the bill becomes an act and comes into force.

2. Withhold his assent: If the President withholds his assent, the bill is dropped, and it does not become an act.

3. Return the bill for reconsideration: If the President returns the bill for reconsideration, the Parliament can make changes to the bill and pass it again. If the bill is passed again and presented to the President, he must give his assent.

4. Exercise suspensive veto power: If the President exercises suspensive veto power, he can withhold his assent to the bill for a maximum of six months. If the bill is not passed again by Parliament in the meantime, it lapses.

However, the President cannot withhold his assent to a money bill. A money bill is a bill that deals with taxation, borrowing of money by the government, or expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. It is deemed to be passed by both houses of Parliament if it is passed by the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) within 14 days. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on the bill, and the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject these recommendations. The President cannot return a money bill for reconsideration.

Thus, in the matter of State legislation, the President may withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills.

In the Rajya Sabha, the rules committee consists of
  • a)
    15 members including the chairman
  • b)
    10 members including the chairman
  • c)
    20 members including the chairman
  • d)
    16 members including the chairman
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Pillai answered
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha consists of 16 members including the chairman. Let's understand the role and composition of the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha in detail.

Role of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India, and it has its own set of rules and procedures to conduct its business effectively.
- The rules committee is responsible for formulating and recommending changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.
- It plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the Rajya Sabha by reviewing, revising, and updating the rules as per the changing needs and requirements.

Composition of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The rules committee consists of members who are elected by the Rajya Sabha itself.
- According to the current composition, the rules committee consists of 16 members, including the chairman.
- The chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who is the Vice President of India, serves as the ex-officio chairman of the rules committee.
- The remaining 15 members of the committee are nominated by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- These members are selected based on their experience, expertise, and representation from various political parties and groups in the Rajya Sabha.
- The members of the committee are usually senior and experienced parliamentarians who have a good understanding of the functioning and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.

Responsibilities of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The main responsibility of the rules committee is to examine and suggest changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.
- It considers proposals for amending the rules and procedures brought by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Leader of the House, or any member of the Rajya Sabha.
- The committee also examines the rules and procedures of other legislatures within India and in other countries to incorporate best practices and make necessary recommendations.
- It reviews the functioning of the Rajya Sabha and suggests measures to improve its efficiency, effectiveness, and transparency.
- The committee also provides guidance and clarifications to the members of the Rajya Sabha regarding the interpretation and application of the rules and procedures.

In conclusion, the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha consists of 16 members, including the chairman. It is responsible for formulating, reviewing, and recommending changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha to ensure its smooth functioning and effectiveness.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of the High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court without consulting the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
2. The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India if the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent.
3. The Collegium system for the appointment and transfer of judges was established through a constitutional amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Incorrect: The Chief Justice of India can only appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court after consulting with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the President.
2. Correct: The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India if the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent, as well as if the office is vacant or if the Chief Justice is unable to perform his duties.
3. Incorrect: The Collegium system was not established through a constitutional amendment. It was developed through a series of judicial decisions known as the "three judges cases" and has been in practice since 1998. There is no mention of the Collegium in the original Constitution or in subsequent amendments.
Therefore, the only correct statement is statement 2.

Consider the following statements.
1. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister 
2. But within six months, he must become a member, by election or nomination, of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Both 1 and 2
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    1 Only
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Malik answered
Both statements are correct.
A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a minister under Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India. This is because the Constitution does not specifically require that a person must be a member of Parliament to be appointed as a minister.
However, as per Article 75(5), such a person must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment as a minister. If they fail to do so, they would cease to be a minister. This provision ensures that all ministers are accountable to the Parliament and responsible for their actions as ministers.

The functions of the public accounts committee are
1. To examine the appropriation accounts and financial accounts of the union government
2. To examine the accounts of state corporations
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both of them
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Datta answered
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing committee of Parliament of India. Its main function is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. The correct answer is option C, which means both statements are correct.

Functions of Public Accounts Committee:

1. Examination of Appropriation Accounts: The PAC examines the Appropriation Accounts of the Union government. Appropriation accounts show the details of expenditure and receipts of the government during a financial year. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent for the purpose for which it was granted by the Parliament.

2. Examination of Finance Accounts: The PAC examines the Finance Accounts of the Union government. Finance accounts show the details of receipts and expenditure of the government during a financial year. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent within the limits of the grants and appropriations sanctioned by the Parliament.

3. Examination of Accounts of State Corporations: The PAC also examines the accounts of state corporations. These corporations are set up by the state governments to undertake various activities, such as power generation, road construction, and irrigation projects. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent for the purpose for which it was granted by the state government.

4. Examination of CAG Audit Reports: The PAC examines the audit reports of the CAG after they are laid in the Parliament. The audit reports point out the irregularities and deficiencies in the financial management of the government. The PAC examines these reports and makes recommendations to improve the financial management of the government.

5. Scrutiny of Public Expenditure: The PAC scrutinizes the public expenditure to ensure that there is no wasteful expenditure and that the money is spent in a judicious and efficient manner.

In conclusion, the Public Accounts Committee plays an important role in ensuring accountability and transparency in the financial management of the government. It examines the accounts of the government and makes recommendations to improve the financial management of the government.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Vice-President of India can hold office beyond 5 years until a successor takes charge.
Statement-II:
The Vice-President of India can be reelected any number of times.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered

Statement-I is accurate as per the provisions mentioned in the Term of Office & Emoluments section for the Vice-President of India. The Vice-President can indeed hold office beyond 5 years until a successor takes charge. This aligns with the information provided.
However, Statement-II is incorrect based on the same source material. The Vice-President of India cannot be reelected any number of times. While there is no specific limit mentioned, there is an implicit understanding that there are practical and political considerations that would likely prevent indefinite reelections. Therefore, Statement-II is inaccurate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c): Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

In which of the following situations can the President exercise discretionary powers?
1. Asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice tendered to him
2. Pocket veto in case of Parliamentary legislation
3. In appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    2 and 3
  • c)
    1 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Discretionary Powers of the President
The President of a country holds certain discretionary powers that allow them to exercise their judgment and take independent actions in specific situations. In the case of India, the President has discretionary powers in various scenarios. Let's discuss each of the situations mentioned in the question:
1. Asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice tendered to him:
- The President can exercise discretionary powers by seeking reconsideration of the advice given by the Council of Ministers.
- This power enables the President to review and reassess the recommendations and decisions put forward by the Council of Ministers before giving his final assent or taking any action.
- By doing so, the President can ensure that the advice given is in the best interest of the nation and aligns with the constitutional provisions.
2. Pocket veto in case of Parliamentary legislation:
- The President can utilize a pocket veto when it comes to parliamentary legislation.
- A pocket veto is a power that allows the President to indirectly veto a bill by not giving his assent within a specified time frame.
- If the President does not take any action on a bill passed by Parliament within a particular period (generally six weeks), it is considered as a pocket veto.
- Through this discretionary power, the President can effectively prevent the enactment of a bill if he deems it necessary.
3. Appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority:
- In situations where no political party can demonstrate a clear majority in the Parliament, the President exercises discretionary powers in appointing the Prime Minister.
- The President weighs various factors, including the support extended by different political parties, the ability to form a stable government, and the overall political landscape, while making this decision.
- By exercising this power, the President plays a crucial role in ensuring the formation of a government that can effectively govern and maintain stability.
Conclusion:
Considering the situations mentioned in the question, all of them fall under the discretionary powers of the President of India. The President can exercise discretion in asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, utilizing a pocket veto for parliamentary legislation, and appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority. Therefore, the correct answer is option D: All of the above.

As per the constitution, the Indian president has the power to
1. Ask for files relating to any matter from Prime Minister that is in deliberation in the Council of Ministers
2. Send the decision of an individual ministry for reconsideration
3. Suspend the council of ministers if he feels it is violating constitutional norms
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • If an individual ministry has taken the decision, which has not been considered by the cabinet, the president can send the reconsideration file.
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (enacted by the Indira Gandhi Government) made the President bound by the council's advice of ministers headed by the prime minister.
  • The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 (enacted by the Janata Party Government headed by Shri Morarji Desai) authorised the President to require ministers' council to reconsider such advice either generally or otherwise.
  • However, he 'shall' act following the advice tendered after such reconsideration. In other words, the President may return a matter once for reconsideration of his ministers, but the reconsidered advice shall be binding.
  • The president can also ask for the files and ask details about the decisions that are to be taken in the council of ministers. However, he cannot suspend it if it enjoys confidence in the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
To be eligible for election as Vice-President of India, a person should be a citizen of India and have completed 35 years of age.
Statement-II:
The Vice-President of India is required to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India and faithfully discharge the duties of the office.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of the Statements
To evaluate the correctness of Statement-I and Statement-II regarding the eligibility and duties of the Vice-President of India, we need to break down each statement.
Statement-I: Eligibility Criteria
- A person must be a citizen of India.
- The individual should be at least 35 years old.
This statement is accurate as per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, which outlines the qualifications for election as Vice-President.
Statement-II: Oath and Duties
- The Vice-President is required to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution.
- They must faithfully discharge the duties of the office.
This statement is also correct as it reflects the oath taken by the Vice-President, which is mandated by the Constitution.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct.
- However, Statement-II does not explain or provide additional context for Statement-I; it merely describes the duties of the Vice-President.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': "Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I."
By understanding the distinction between eligibility criteria and duties, we can see why both statements stand independently yet are both valid.

Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor?
  • a)
    Power to pardon a sentence by court-martial
  • b)
    Power to remit a sentence by court-martial
  • c)
    Power to pardon, reprive, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence.
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tarun Iyer answered
Understanding the Powers of President and Governor
The powers exercised by the President of India and the Governor of a state include various forms of clemency, but they differ in scope and application.
Power to Pardon and Commute Sentences
- The correct answer is option 'C': Power to pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend, or commute the punishment or sentence.
- This power is granted under Article 72 of the Constitution for the President and Article 161 for the Governor.
Scope of the Powers
- Pardoning Power: Both the President and the Governor can pardon sentences, meaning they can completely forgive the offense and release the individual from all legal consequences.
- Reprieve and Respite: They can also grant temporary relief or delay in the execution of a sentence.
- Remit and Commute: They hold the authority to reduce the severity of a punishment or replace it with a less severe one.
Differences in Application
- The President’s pardoning power applies to offenses against laws related to the Union, while the Governor’s power pertains to state laws.
- Additionally, the President can exercise this power in cases involving court-martial sentences, which is not applicable to Governors.
Conclusion
- Therefore, option 'C' reflects the clemency powers that both the President and the Governor can exercise, highlighting their role in the justice system while maintaining checks and balances within their respective domains.

Parliamentary committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or elected by the Speaker / Chairman or nominated by the House
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vijay Kumar answered
Parliamentary committee means a committee that: 1 Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman 2 Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman 3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman 4. Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the union is vested in the President?
  • a)
    54
  • b)
    55
  • c)
    56
  • d)
    53
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
Important Points 
Article 53: Executive Power of the Union
  1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
  2. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union Shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
  3. Nothing in this article shall –
  • be deemed to transfer to the President any functions conferred by any existing law on the Government of any State or other authority; or
  • prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.
Thus, we can conclude that under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the union is vested in the President.
Additional Information
  • Article 54: Election of President
  • Article 55: Manner of Election of President
  • Article 56: Term of Office of President

Consider the following statements.
1. The doctrine of Judicial review originated and developed in the USA
2. In India the constitution itself confers the power of Judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts).
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury V. Madison (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court. In India, on the other hand, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts).

Consider the following statements. 
1. Article 74 deals with the appointment and tenure of the council of ministers 
2. Article 72 deals with the responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Article 74 deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers. The principles of the parliamentary system of government are not detailed in the Constitution, but two Articles (74 and 75) deal with them in a broad, sketchy and general manner.

The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India. Which of the following are done by the President, concerning the sessions of the Parliament?
1. Summoning
2. Proroguing
3. Dissolving Lok Sabha
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Roles of the President concerning the sessions of the Parliament:
The President of India has several significant roles and powers when it comes to the functioning of the Parliament of India. Here are the roles corresponding to the options mentioned:
  • Summoning: The President has the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet. This means that the President can call for a new session of the Parliament. This is done at such time and place as he thinks fit. Normally, there are three sessions of Parliament in a year: the Budget session, the Monsoon session, and the Winter session.
  • Proroguing: The President can prorogue the Houses of Parliament. This means that the President can end a session of the Parliament. However, it must be noted that prorogation does not affect the bills, resolutions, motions, etc., pending before the House, which can be resumed in the next session from the stage at which they were left before prorogation.
  • Dissolving Lok Sabha: The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. This means that the President can end the tenure of the Lok Sabha before its term of five years. However, the President can dissolve Lok Sabha only on the advice of the Prime Minister. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, etc., pending before it or its committees lapse.
So, all the above-mentioned roles - summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the Lok Sabha are performed by the President concerning the sessions of the Parliament. Hence, the correct answer is D: All of the above.

 Which of the following statements are not correct? 
1. Vice president can be removed from the office before completion of his term 
2. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal 
3. The vice president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution 
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Isha Yadav answered
No ground has been mentioned in the constitution for his removal. The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (ie, a majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days' advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms.

Which among the following are the roles of the cabinet?
1. It is the chief policy formulating body of the central government 
2. It deals with all the major legislative matters
3. It deals with all foreign policies and Foreign Affairs
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 3 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Mehta answered
The correct answer is option 'D': All of them.

The cabinet plays multiple roles in the functioning of the government. Let's discuss each role in detail:

1. Chief Policy Formulating Body of the Central Government:
The cabinet is responsible for formulating and implementing policies that guide the functioning of the central government. It is the highest decision-making body where policies are discussed, debated, and approved. The cabinet members, who are senior ministers, provide inputs, suggestions, and recommendations on various policy matters. They also analyze the potential impact of policies on different sectors and sections of society. Once a policy is finalized, it is implemented through various government departments and agencies.

2. Dealing with Major Legislative Matters:
The cabinet plays a crucial role in the legislative process. It is responsible for proposing and introducing major bills and legislations in the parliament. Cabinet members, who are also members of parliament, take part in the legislative debates, discussions, and voting. They present the government's perspective on various bills and work towards their passage. The cabinet also reviews and approves the draft bills prepared by different ministries before they are presented in the parliament.

3. Handling Foreign Policies and Foreign Affairs:
The cabinet is responsible for formulating and implementing foreign policies of the country. It deals with matters related to international relations, diplomacy, and foreign affairs. Cabinet members, including the Prime Minister and the Minister of External Affairs, represent the country in international forums, negotiations, and summits. They engage in bilateral and multilateral discussions with other countries to promote the country's interests, maintain peace and security, and enhance economic cooperation. The cabinet also takes decisions on matters like signing international treaties, agreements, and conventions.

In summary, the cabinet plays a pivotal role in policy formulation, legislative matters, and foreign affairs. It serves as the chief decision-making body of the central government, ensuring effective governance and representing the country's interests at the national and international levels.

 Before a Minister enters upon his office, the president administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy. In his oath of office, the minister swears:
1. To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India,
2. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India,
3. To faithfully and conscientiously discharge the duties of his office, and
4. To preserve, protect and defend the constitution and the law
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1, 3 and 4 only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
Before a Minister enters upon his office, the president administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy. In his oath of office, the minister swears: 1. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India, 2. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, 3. to faithfully and conscientiously discharge the duties of his office, and 4. to do right to all manner of people in accordance with the Constitution and the law, without fear or favour, affection or ill will.

Which of the following statement about the Council of ministers is NOT correct?
  1. It is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers.
  2. It includes all the three categories of ministers, that is, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers.
  • a)
    Only 1 is incorrect
  • b)
    Only 2 is incorrect
  • c)
    Both are incorrect
  • d)
    Both are correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Desai answered
Understanding the Council of Ministers
The Council of Ministers is a pivotal component of the executive branch in India, responsible for the administration and governance of the country. Let's analyze the statements provided.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: It is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers.
- This statement is incorrect. In India, the Council of Ministers can consist of more than 20 ministers, depending on the size of the government. There is no fixed upper limit of 20 ministers, making this statement misleading.
- Statement 2: It includes all three categories of ministers: cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers.
- This statement is correct. The Council of Ministers indeed comprises all three categories of ministers. Cabinet ministers hold significant portfolios, while ministers of state may hold independent charge or assist cabinet ministers. Deputy ministers typically assist cabinet or state ministers.
Conclusion
Given the analysis, only the first statement is incorrect, which means the correct answer is option 'A'.
- Option A: Only 1 is incorrect.
This highlights the importance of understanding the structure and composition of the Council of Ministers in the context of Indian governance, especially for competitive examinations like UPSC.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Council of Ministers?
1. It consists of three categories of ministers.
2. At times, the council of ministers may also include a deputy prime minister.
Select the correct answer code from the following options.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nabanita Kaur answered
Central Council of Ministers consists of three categories of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state and deputy ministers. At times, the council of ministers may also include a deputy prime minister. The deputy prime ministers are appointed mostly for political reasons.

Consider the following statements about the pardoning power of the President.
1. He can exercise this power even without the advice of the cabinet.
2. The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
3. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below,
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Nair answered
Understanding the Pardoning Power of the President
The pardoning power of the President is an important aspect of executive authority. Let’s analyze the statements to determine the correct answer.
1. President's Power Without Cabinet Advice
- The President can exercise the pardoning power independently without the advice of the cabinet.
- This power is enshrined in Article 72 of the Constitution, allowing the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
2. No Obligation to Provide Reasons
- The President is not required to provide reasons for granting or denying a pardon.
- This ensures that the decision remains discretionary and is not subject to judicial review based on reasoning.
3. Right to Oral Hearing
- A petitioner for mercy does not have a right to an oral hearing before the President.
- The process is typically conducted through written petitions, and the President can decide based on the merits of the written submissions.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1: True
- Statement 2: True
- Statement 3: True
However, the question asks us to evaluate the options based on the statements. Since the answer option 'B' claims that statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is also correct but not included, it implies that the focus is on the procedural aspect of the President’s discretion.
Hence, while all statements are true, the option 'B' highlights the uniqueness of the President’s discretion in terms of providing reasons and oral hearings, making it the correct choice in this context.

Consider the following statements.
1. The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president
2. This does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time
3. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President
4. If he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 Only
  • b)
    1, 3 and 4 only
  • c)
    1 and 4 only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Original Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court decides disputes between the Centre and one or more states.
2. Writ Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
3. Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can hear appeals only in criminal matters.
4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can provide opinions to the President on any question of law or fact of public importance.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Original Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court has the authority to decide disputes between different units of the Indian Federation, including disputes between the Centre and one or more states.
2. Writ Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court can indeed issue writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
3. Appellate Jurisdiction: Incorrect. The Supreme Court hears appeals in constitutional, civil, and criminal matters, not just criminal matters.
4. Advisory Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court can provide opinions to the President on any question of law or fact of public importance under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, but pair 3 is incorrect.
Answer: Option B

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive).
Statement-II:
The President has the authority to appoint the Prime Minister based on the conventions of the parliamentary system of government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly defines the roles of the President and Prime Minister in the government structure. The President holds a symbolic position while the Prime Minister wields actual executive power.
Statement-II accurately mentions that the President appoints the Prime Minister following the parliamentary system's conventions. However, it does not elaborate on the distinct roles of the President and Prime Minister as highlighted in Statement-I. Hence, both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court
2. It also authorises the CJI to appoint other place or places as the seat of the Supreme Court but with the prior approval of President.
3. He can make a decision in this regard only with the approval of the Parliament 
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Singh answered
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court: This statement is correct. Article 130 of the Indian Constitution states, "The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint."
2. It also authorises the CJI to appoint other place or places as the seat of the Supreme Court but with the prior approval of the President: This statement is also correct. As per the same Article 130, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) has the authority to appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court, but only with the prior approval of the President.
3. He can make a decision in this regard only with the approval of the Parliament: This statement is incorrect. The CJI does not require the approval of the Parliament to make a decision in this regard. As mentioned in Article 130, the CJI only needs the approval of the President to appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court.
 
 

Which of these constitutional functionaries holds office till the pleasure of the President?
1. Governor
2. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kabir Verma answered
  • The President can remove him at any time without citing reasons for the same. He is an agent of the Centre and does not enjoy any security of tenure.
  • The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge.
In other words, he can be removed by the president based on a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with the special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Thus, he does not hold his office until the president's pleasure, though he appoints him.

Consider the following statements.
1. The term Judicial review was first coined by Arthur Schlesinger Jr
2. The term judicial activism was first coined by John Marshall
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
The correct answer is:
3. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. The term "Judicial review" was not first coined by Arthur Schlesinger Jr. Judicial review is a concept that has been attributed to the landmark case Marbury v. Madison (1803) in the United States, and while the term itself may not have been coined in that case, the practice and principle were firmly established there by Chief Justice John Marshall. Arthur Schlesinger Jr. is known more for his work on the term "imperial presidency," not judicial review.
2. The term "judicial activism" was not first coined by John Marshall. John Marshall was a Chief Justice of the United States Supreme Court who played a pivotal role in the establishment of judicial review, but he did not coin the term "judicial activism." The term "judicial activism" was actually first used by Arthur Schlesinger Jr. in a 1947 Fortune magazine article to describe the tendencies of certain Supreme Court justices.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements.
1. The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens
2. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable 
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    2 Only
  • b)
    Both 1 and 2
  • c)
    Neither 1 nor 2 
  • d)
    1 Only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Let's analyze the given statements in the context of the Indian Constitution and judicial review.
  1. The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens.
    This statement is incorrect. The concept of "procedure established by law" is narrower than the "due process of law" found in the U.S. Constitution. Under "procedure established by law," the Supreme Court of India is primarily concerned with whether a law has been enacted following the correct procedure laid down by the legislature. It does not provide the same broad scope for judicial review of the law's reasonableness or fairness as "due process of law" would.
  2. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable.
    This statement is incorrect. The Indian judiciary, under the "procedure established by law," can declare laws void if they do not follow the proper procedure or violate fundamental rights. However, it cannot declare a law void purely on the grounds of it being unreasonable or unfair in substance unless it violates a specific fundamental right.
Therefore, both statements are not correct.
The correct answer is: 
    2. Both 1 and 2

Chapter doubts & questions for Central Government, Parliament & Judiciary - Indian Polity for State PSC Exams 2025 is part of BPSC (Bihar) exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of Central Government, Parliament & Judiciary - Indian Polity for State PSC Exams in English & Hindi are available as part of BPSC (Bihar) exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for BPSC (Bihar) Exam by signing up for free.

Top Courses BPSC (Bihar)