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All questions of Central Government, Parliament & Judiciary for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. If the President so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Neither 1 nor 2
  • c)
    1 and 2
  • d)
    Only 2 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Powers and functions of the Prime Minister
  • Advises the President: The prime minister advises the President for the appointment or resignation of the council of ministers and other significant officials such as CAG, Chairman of UPSC, Election Commissioners etc.
  • Allocate Portfolios: The prime minister is responsible for the location and reshuffling of portfolios of the Council of Ministers.
  • Act as a communication channel between the Council of Ministers and the President: He communicates information related to administrative affairs to the president.
  • Act as Chairman: The prime minister acts as a chairman of various councils such as Niti Aayog, National Development Council, National Integration Council (NIC), Inter-state Council (ISC), and National Water Resource Council.
  • Act as a head: The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and announces government policies in houses of parliament.
  • Other functions: Shaping foreign policies, leader of the party, political head etc.

Consider the following statements about cabinet committees. 
1. Prime Minister is the chairman of all the cabinet committees 
2. They only include cabinet ministers 
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    2 Only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Gupta answered
The correct option is 3. Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. The Prime Minister is not the chairman of all the cabinet committees. There are several cabinet committees, and while the Prime Minister is the head of many, there are others that are headed by other senior ministers.

2. Cabinet committees do not only include cabinet ministers. They may also include Ministers of State (independent charge) or even Ministers of State. The members of these committees are decided by the Prime Minister.

Which of the following bills can be introduced only with the permission of the President?
  • a)
    Finance bills
  • b)
    Constitution amendment bills
  • c)
    Bills related to defence procurements
  • d)
    Impeachment of the judges
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Shah answered
The Correct Answer is B: Constitution Amendment Bills
  • There are some bills which require the prior recommendation of the President before their introduction in the Parliament. These bills are:
Bill that seeks to alter the boundaries of the states and names of the states. Money Bill & Finance Bill. State Bills which impose the restrictions upon freedom of trade. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Regulating Act of 1773: Established Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta
2. India High Courts Act 1861: Created High Courts for various provinces
3. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019: Increased judicial strength from 31 to 34
4. Government of India Act 1935: Created High Courts in Bombay and Madras
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Sengupta answered
Analysis of Correctly Matched Pairs:
1. Regulating Act of 1773: Established Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta
- The Regulating Act of 1773 indeed established the Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta, which was the first Supreme Court in India.
2. India High Courts Act 1861: Created High Courts for various provinces
- The India High Courts Act of 1861 was enacted to create High Courts in different provinces of India, providing a more organized system of justice at the provincial level.
3. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019: Increased judicial strength from 31 to 34
- The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill of 2019 aimed to increase the judicial strength of the Supreme Court from 31 to 34 judges to help manage the increasing workload and backlog of cases.

Conclusion:
Out of the given pairs, three pairs are correctly matched based on the historical and legislative context of each act. These acts played crucial roles in shaping the judicial system in India and had a significant impact on the administration of justice in the country.

Consider the following statements.
1. The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers not other ministers even if they differed in the Cabinet meeting.
2. If any Minister disagrees with the cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both of them   
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers not other ministers even if they differed in the Cabinet meeting. The first statement is incorrect because the principle of collective responsibility binds all ministers who are part of the cabinet, not just the cabinet ministers.
If any Minister disagrees with the cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign: This statement is accurate. Under the principle of collective responsibility, if a minister cannot support a cabinet decision publicly, the convention is that the minister should resign from the cabinet. This ensures that the government presents a united front and maintains coherence in its policies and actions.

Consider the following about the powers of the President of India.
1. He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre-state and inter-state cooperation.
2. He directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him.
3. He can declare an area as scheduled area and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes below,
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Sengupta answered
The Powers of the President of India

The President of India is the head of state and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The powers of the President of India are listed in the Constitution of India. Let's discuss the powers of the President of India in detail.

Appointment of Inter-state Council

The President of India can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre-state and inter-state cooperation. The inter-state council is a constitutional body that was set up in 1990 to promote cooperation between states and the Centre. The council is headed by the Prime Minister and has chief ministers of all the states and Union Territories as members. The council discusses issues related to Centre-state relations and inter-state relations and makes recommendations to the Centre and states. The President has the power to appoint the members of the council and can also dissolve the council.

Direct Administration of Union Territories

The President of India directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him. India has seven union territories, and the President appoints an administrator for each of them. The administrator is responsible for the administration of the union territory and reports directly to the President. The administrator has the power to make laws for the union territory, subject to the approval of the President.

Powers Concerning the Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas

The President of India can declare an area as scheduled area and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. A scheduled area is an area in which the tribal population is in the majority or in which the tribal population is significantly higher than the rest of the population. The President has the power to declare an area as a scheduled area and can also make regulations for the administration of scheduled areas. The President can also nominate members to the advisory council for the welfare of the scheduled tribes.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the powers of the President of India are significant, and the President plays a crucial role in the governance of the country. The President has the power to appoint an inter-state council, directly administer union territories, and has powers concerning the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. These powers ensure that the President can effectively carry out his duties and responsibilities as the head of state.

Which statement is not correct in the context of Article 75(3)?
  • a)
    The President will appoint the Prime Minister
  • b)
    The number of members of cabinet will not exceed 15% of the total number of Lok Sabha
  • c)
    The minister shall hold the office till the pleasure of the Prime Minister 
  • d)
    The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
The minister shall hold the office till the pleasure of the Prime Minister.  Option 3 is incorrect.
Article 75(2) specifically provides that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any ministers at any time.

Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor?
  • a)
    Power to pardon a sentence by court-martial
  • b)
    Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List
  • c)
    Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances
  • d)
    Power to remit a sentence by court-martial
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The Correct Answer is C: Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances.
According to Article 161 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India has the power to pardon a death sentence. The Governor of a state can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence. However, the Governor cannot grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission, or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial.

Which of the following comes under the judicial powers of the President of India?
1. Appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
2. Pardoning a death sentence.
3. Deciding on whether a bill should be sent for reconsideration to the concerned state legislature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    2 and 3
  • c)
    1 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Kumar answered
Judicial powers of the President of India

The President of India is the head of the Indian judiciary and exercises various judicial powers. The correct option is (a) 1 and 2. Let's understand these powers in detail:

1. Appointment of judges of the Supreme Court of India:
The President of India has the power to appoint the judges of the Supreme Court of India. This power is exercised in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other senior judges of the Supreme Court.

2. Pardoning a death sentence:
The President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. This power is exercised under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution.

3. Sending a bill for reconsideration to the concerned state legislature:
This power is not a judicial power of the President of India. It falls under the legislative powers of the President. The President can send a bill passed by the state legislature for reconsideration. However, the President cannot reject or amend the bill.

Conclusion:
Thus, the correct option is (a) 1 and 2. The President of India has the power to appoint judges of the Supreme Court and to grant pardon or reprieve in case of death sentence.

As per the constitution, the Indian president has the power to
1. Ask for files relating to any matter from Prime Minister that is in deliberation in the Council of Ministers
2. Send the decision of an individual ministry for reconsideration
3. Suspend the council of ministers if he feels it is violating constitutional norms
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • If an individual ministry has taken the decision, which has not been considered by the cabinet, the president can send the reconsideration file.
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (enacted by the Indira Gandhi Government) made the President bound by the council's advice of ministers headed by the prime minister.
  • The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 (enacted by the Janata Party Government headed by Shri Morarji Desai) authorised the President to require ministers' council to reconsider such advice either generally or otherwise.
  • However, he 'shall' act following the advice tendered after such reconsideration. In other words, the President may return a matter once for reconsideration of his ministers, but the reconsidered advice shall be binding.
  • The president can also ask for the files and ask details about the decisions that are to be taken in the council of ministers. However, he cannot suspend it if it enjoys confidence in the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements.
1. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister 
2. But within six months, he must become a member, by election or nomination, of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Both 1 and 2
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    1 Only
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Malik answered
Both statements are correct.
A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a minister under Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India. This is because the Constitution does not specifically require that a person must be a member of Parliament to be appointed as a minister.
However, as per Article 75(5), such a person must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment as a minister. If they fail to do so, they would cease to be a minister. This provision ensures that all ministers are accountable to the Parliament and responsible for their actions as ministers.

In which of the following situations can the President exercise discretionary powers?
1. Asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice tendered to him
2. Pocket veto in case of Parliamentary legislation
3. In appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    2 and 3
  • c)
    1 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Varun Kapoor answered
Discretionary Powers of the President
The President of a country holds certain discretionary powers that allow them to exercise their judgment and take independent actions in specific situations. In the case of India, the President has discretionary powers in various scenarios. Let's discuss each of the situations mentioned in the question:
1. Asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice tendered to him:
- The President can exercise discretionary powers by seeking reconsideration of the advice given by the Council of Ministers.
- This power enables the President to review and reassess the recommendations and decisions put forward by the Council of Ministers before giving his final assent or taking any action.
- By doing so, the President can ensure that the advice given is in the best interest of the nation and aligns with the constitutional provisions.
2. Pocket veto in case of Parliamentary legislation:
- The President can utilize a pocket veto when it comes to parliamentary legislation.
- A pocket veto is a power that allows the President to indirectly veto a bill by not giving his assent within a specified time frame.
- If the President does not take any action on a bill passed by Parliament within a particular period (generally six weeks), it is considered as a pocket veto.
- Through this discretionary power, the President can effectively prevent the enactment of a bill if he deems it necessary.
3. Appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority:
- In situations where no political party can demonstrate a clear majority in the Parliament, the President exercises discretionary powers in appointing the Prime Minister.
- The President weighs various factors, including the support extended by different political parties, the ability to form a stable government, and the overall political landscape, while making this decision.
- By exercising this power, the President plays a crucial role in ensuring the formation of a government that can effectively govern and maintain stability.
Conclusion:
Considering the situations mentioned in the question, all of them fall under the discretionary powers of the President of India. The President can exercise discretion in asking the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, utilizing a pocket veto for parliamentary legislation, and appointing the Prime Minister when no political party can prove a clear majority. Therefore, the correct answer is option D: All of the above.

The functions of the public accounts committee are
1. To examine the appropriation accounts and financial accounts of the union government
2. To examine the accounts of state corporations
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both of them
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Datta answered
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing committee of Parliament of India. Its main function is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. The correct answer is option C, which means both statements are correct.

Functions of Public Accounts Committee:

1. Examination of Appropriation Accounts: The PAC examines the Appropriation Accounts of the Union government. Appropriation accounts show the details of expenditure and receipts of the government during a financial year. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent for the purpose for which it was granted by the Parliament.

2. Examination of Finance Accounts: The PAC examines the Finance Accounts of the Union government. Finance accounts show the details of receipts and expenditure of the government during a financial year. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent within the limits of the grants and appropriations sanctioned by the Parliament.

3. Examination of Accounts of State Corporations: The PAC also examines the accounts of state corporations. These corporations are set up by the state governments to undertake various activities, such as power generation, road construction, and irrigation projects. The PAC examines the accounts to ensure that the money was spent for the purpose for which it was granted by the state government.

4. Examination of CAG Audit Reports: The PAC examines the audit reports of the CAG after they are laid in the Parliament. The audit reports point out the irregularities and deficiencies in the financial management of the government. The PAC examines these reports and makes recommendations to improve the financial management of the government.

5. Scrutiny of Public Expenditure: The PAC scrutinizes the public expenditure to ensure that there is no wasteful expenditure and that the money is spent in a judicious and efficient manner.

In conclusion, the Public Accounts Committee plays an important role in ensuring accountability and transparency in the financial management of the government. It examines the accounts of the government and makes recommendations to improve the financial management of the government.

In the Rajya Sabha, the rules committee consists of
  • a)
    15 members including the chairman
  • b)
    10 members including the chairman
  • c)
    20 members including the chairman
  • d)
    16 members including the chairman
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Pillai answered
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha consists of 16 members including the chairman. Let's understand the role and composition of the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha in detail.

Role of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India, and it has its own set of rules and procedures to conduct its business effectively.
- The rules committee is responsible for formulating and recommending changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.
- It plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the Rajya Sabha by reviewing, revising, and updating the rules as per the changing needs and requirements.

Composition of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The rules committee consists of members who are elected by the Rajya Sabha itself.
- According to the current composition, the rules committee consists of 16 members, including the chairman.
- The chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who is the Vice President of India, serves as the ex-officio chairman of the rules committee.
- The remaining 15 members of the committee are nominated by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- These members are selected based on their experience, expertise, and representation from various political parties and groups in the Rajya Sabha.
- The members of the committee are usually senior and experienced parliamentarians who have a good understanding of the functioning and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.

Responsibilities of the Rules Committee in the Rajya Sabha:
- The main responsibility of the rules committee is to examine and suggest changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha.
- It considers proposals for amending the rules and procedures brought by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Leader of the House, or any member of the Rajya Sabha.
- The committee also examines the rules and procedures of other legislatures within India and in other countries to incorporate best practices and make necessary recommendations.
- It reviews the functioning of the Rajya Sabha and suggests measures to improve its efficiency, effectiveness, and transparency.
- The committee also provides guidance and clarifications to the members of the Rajya Sabha regarding the interpretation and application of the rules and procedures.

In conclusion, the rules committee in the Rajya Sabha consists of 16 members, including the chairman. It is responsible for formulating, reviewing, and recommending changes to the rules and procedures of the Rajya Sabha to ensure its smooth functioning and effectiveness.

Consider the following statements:
1. Impeachment of the President can be initiated for "violation of the Constitution."
2. A two-thirds majority vote in both houses of Parliament is required for the removal of the President.
3. The charges for impeachment must be signed by half of the members of either house of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Impeachment of the President can be initiated for "violation of the Constitution."
- Statement 2 is correct. For the removal of the President, a two-thirds majority vote in both houses of Parliament is required.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The charges for impeachment must be signed by one-fourth, not half, of the members of either house of Parliament.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Vice-President of India can hold office beyond 5 years until a successor takes charge.
Statement-II:
The Vice-President of India can be reelected any number of times.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Datta answered
Explanation:
Statement-I: The Vice-President of India can hold office beyond 5 years until a successor takes charge.
Statement-II: The Vice-President of India can be reelected any number of times.

Analysis:
- The Constitution of India states that the Vice-President shall hold office for a term of 5 years.
- However, there is no limit on the number of times a Vice-President can be reelected.
- So, the Vice-President can hold office beyond 5 years until a successor takes charge, but there is no provision for the Vice-President to hold office indefinitely.

Conclusion:
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct as per the Constitution of India.
- Statement-II is incorrect as there is no provision for the Vice-President to be reelected any number of times.

In the matter of State legislation, the President may
  • a)
    exercise only suspensive veto power
  • b)
    may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills
  • c)
    withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration
  • d)
    directly disallow any bill which he considers anti-national
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Datta answered
Explanation:
According to Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, when a bill is passed by both houses of Parliament, it is presented to the President for his assent. The President can do the following:

1. Give his assent: If the President gives his assent, the bill becomes an act and comes into force.

2. Withhold his assent: If the President withholds his assent, the bill is dropped, and it does not become an act.

3. Return the bill for reconsideration: If the President returns the bill for reconsideration, the Parliament can make changes to the bill and pass it again. If the bill is passed again and presented to the President, he must give his assent.

4. Exercise suspensive veto power: If the President exercises suspensive veto power, he can withhold his assent to the bill for a maximum of six months. If the bill is not passed again by Parliament in the meantime, it lapses.

However, the President cannot withhold his assent to a money bill. A money bill is a bill that deals with taxation, borrowing of money by the government, or expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. It is deemed to be passed by both houses of Parliament if it is passed by the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) within 14 days. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on the bill, and the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject these recommendations. The President cannot return a money bill for reconsideration.

Thus, in the matter of State legislation, the President may withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills.

Consider the following statements.
1. Article 143 authorises the President to seek an advisory opinion from the Supreme Court
2. The advice of the supreme court is binding in this case 
Which of these statements is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 Only  
  • b)
    2 Only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice. However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters and the President is not bound to accept such an advice. So, Statement 2 in wrong.

At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of each year's first session, the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. This is a
  • a)
    Constitutional provision
  • b)
    Statutory provisions
  • c)
    Rules of Procedure of the House
  • d)
    Parliamentary Convention
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Singh answered
Article 87(1) of the Constitution provides for this. This is the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha; the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled after the Members have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
It generally takes 2 days to complete these preliminaries. No other business is transacted till the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled and informed Parliament of the Government's agenda.

Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. Consider the following in this regard.
1. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is valid if approved by the Council of Ministers and Parliament.
2. An ordinance cannot be used to amend the constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Menon answered
Explanation:

Article 123 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President of India the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. An ordinance is a temporary law that has the same effect as an act of Parliament. However, it is temporary in nature and needs to be approved by Parliament within a specified period.

1. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is valid if approved by the Council of Ministers and Parliament:
This statement is incorrect. According to Article 123(1) of the Constitution, the President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. If both Houses are in session, the President cannot exercise this power. The purpose of granting this power to the President is to ensure that urgent and immediate action can be taken in situations when Parliament is not in session.

When an ordinance is promulgated, it must be laid before both Houses of Parliament when they reassemble. The ordinance will cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or if disapproved by either House before that period. Therefore, an ordinance made when both Houses are in session is not valid.

2. An ordinance cannot be used to amend the constitution:
This statement is correct. The power to amend the Constitution lies with the Parliament, and not with the President. The President is only empowered to promulgate ordinances on matters that fall within the legislative competence of Parliament. The Constitution can only be amended through the prescribed procedure under Article 368, which involves the introduction and passage of a constitutional amendment bill in both Houses of Parliament, followed by ratification by the states, if required.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India under specific circumstances.
Statement-II:
An ad hoc judge can be appointed by the Chief Justice of India in the absence of a quorum of permanent judges in the Supreme Court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Menon answered
Understanding the Statements
The statements revolve around the powers of the President and the Chief Justice of India regarding the appointment of judges in the Supreme Court.
Statement-I: Correctness
- The President of India does have the authority to appoint an acting Chief Justice of India.
- This can occur in circumstances such as the Chief Justice's absence or when the position is temporarily vacant.
Statement-II: Correctness
- The Chief Justice of India can appoint ad hoc judges.
- This appointment is made when there is an absence of a quorum of permanent judges in the Supreme Court, ensuring that the court can continue to function effectively.
Relationship Between Statements
- Both statements are correct independently.
- Statement-II elaborates on a specific provision related to judicial appointments, but it does not directly explain the mechanism for appointing an acting Chief Justice.
Conclusion
- Since both statements are accurate and Statement-II provides additional context without explaining Statement-I, the correct answer is option B.
- This highlights the constitutional provisions that ensure the smooth functioning of the judiciary in India.
In summary, both statements reflect the procedures and powers related to judicial appointments in the Supreme Court, affirming the robustness of India's judicial system.

Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can declare war or peace only with the approval of Parliament.
2. The President of India serves a term of six years from the date of assuming office.
3. The President can continue in office until the successor takes over and is eligible for re-election for multiple terms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Chauhan answered
1. The President of India can declare war or peace only with the approval of Parliament.
- This statement is correct. The President of India acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister. Therefore, the declaration of war or peace requires the approval of Parliament.

2. The President of India serves a term of six years from the date of assuming office.
- This statement is incorrect. The President of India serves a term of five years from the date of assuming office, as per Article 56 of the Indian Constitution.

3. The President can continue in office until the successor takes over and is eligible for re-election for multiple terms.
- This statement is correct. The President can continue in office until the successor takes over and is eligible for re-election for multiple terms, as there is no specific limit on the number of terms a President can serve in India.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements.
1. The term Judicial review was first coined by Arthur Schlesinger Jr
2. The term judicial activism was first coined by John Marshall
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
The correct answer is:
3. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. The term "Judicial review" was not first coined by Arthur Schlesinger Jr. Judicial review is a concept that has been attributed to the landmark case Marbury v. Madison (1803) in the United States, and while the term itself may not have been coined in that case, the practice and principle were firmly established there by Chief Justice John Marshall. Arthur Schlesinger Jr. is known more for his work on the term "imperial presidency," not judicial review.
2. The term "judicial activism" was not first coined by John Marshall. John Marshall was a Chief Justice of the United States Supreme Court who played a pivotal role in the establishment of judicial review, but he did not coin the term "judicial activism." The term "judicial activism" was actually first used by Arthur Schlesinger Jr. in a 1947 Fortune magazine article to describe the tendencies of certain Supreme Court justices.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements about Cabinet Committees:
1. They are not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
3. The Cabinet cannot review the decisions taken by Cabinet Committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnav Malik answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B', 1 and 2 only. Let's analyze each statement to understand why.

Statement 1: They are not mentioned in the Constitution.

- This statement is correct. Cabinet Committees are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. The Constitution only mentions the existence of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister.

Statement 2: They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.

- This statement is correct. Cabinet Committees are formed by the Prime Minister based on the specific needs and requirements of the government. The Prime Minister has the authority to establish and dissolve these committees as and when required.

Statement 3: The Cabinet cannot review the decisions taken by Cabinet Committees.

- This statement is incorrect. The decisions taken by Cabinet Committees are subject to review by the Cabinet. The Cabinet is the supreme decision-making body and has the power to review, modify, or reject the recommendations made by the Cabinet Committees.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, and the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 only.

Which among the following are the roles of the cabinet?
1. It is the chief policy formulating body of the central government 
2. It deals with all the major legislative matters
3. It deals with all foreign policies and Foreign Affairs
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 3 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Mehta answered
The correct answer is option 'D': All of them.

The cabinet plays multiple roles in the functioning of the government. Let's discuss each role in detail:

1. Chief Policy Formulating Body of the Central Government:
The cabinet is responsible for formulating and implementing policies that guide the functioning of the central government. It is the highest decision-making body where policies are discussed, debated, and approved. The cabinet members, who are senior ministers, provide inputs, suggestions, and recommendations on various policy matters. They also analyze the potential impact of policies on different sectors and sections of society. Once a policy is finalized, it is implemented through various government departments and agencies.

2. Dealing with Major Legislative Matters:
The cabinet plays a crucial role in the legislative process. It is responsible for proposing and introducing major bills and legislations in the parliament. Cabinet members, who are also members of parliament, take part in the legislative debates, discussions, and voting. They present the government's perspective on various bills and work towards their passage. The cabinet also reviews and approves the draft bills prepared by different ministries before they are presented in the parliament.

3. Handling Foreign Policies and Foreign Affairs:
The cabinet is responsible for formulating and implementing foreign policies of the country. It deals with matters related to international relations, diplomacy, and foreign affairs. Cabinet members, including the Prime Minister and the Minister of External Affairs, represent the country in international forums, negotiations, and summits. They engage in bilateral and multilateral discussions with other countries to promote the country's interests, maintain peace and security, and enhance economic cooperation. The cabinet also takes decisions on matters like signing international treaties, agreements, and conventions.

In summary, the cabinet plays a pivotal role in policy formulation, legislative matters, and foreign affairs. It serves as the chief decision-making body of the central government, ensuring effective governance and representing the country's interests at the national and international levels.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution
2. The power of judicial review can be curtailed or excluded by a constitutional amendment Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Diya Deshpande answered
The Power of Judicial Review

The power of judicial review refers to the authority of the judiciary to review and strike down any legislation or executive action that is found to be unconstitutional or in violation of the basic structure of the Constitution. This power is an essential feature of a democratic system and is aimed at ensuring that the government operates within the limits of the Constitution.

Statement 1: The Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution.

This statement is correct. In the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review is an essential feature of the Constitution and is part of the basic structure of the Constitution. The Court also stated that this power cannot be taken away by the legislature through the process of constitutional amendment.

Statement 2: The power of judicial review can be curtailed or excluded by a constitutional amendment.

This statement is incorrect. As mentioned above, the Supreme Court has held that the power of judicial review is an essential feature of the Constitution and cannot be taken away by the legislature through the process of constitutional amendment. Any attempt to do so would be unconstitutional and would be struck down by the courts.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The power of judicial review is an essential feature of the Constitution and cannot be curtailed or excluded by a constitutional amendment.

The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from
  • a)
    The persons recommended by the National Integration Council
  • b)
    People who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.
  • c)
    People who have contributed immensely to Indian politics.
  • d)
    Eminent political scientists who have never contested an election
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Das answered
The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha based on specific criteria:

The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India, and its members are either elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies or nominated by the President. The President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha based on certain criteria. Among the given options, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that the President can nominate individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service.

Explanation:

The Rajya Sabha plays a crucial role in the legislative process of India. It represents the interests of the states and serves as a platform for debate and discussion on matters of national importance. The President's power to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha ensures the inclusion of individuals with diverse backgrounds and expertise, enriching the legislative process.

Criteria for nomination:

1. Special knowledge or practical experience: The President can nominate individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. This criterion allows for the inclusion of experts and professionals from various fields who can contribute their expertise to the legislative proceedings. It ensures a holistic representation of society and helps in making well-informed decisions on policies and laws affecting these domains.

2. Importance of art, literature, science, and social service: By nominating individuals with expertise in art, literature, science, and social service, the President recognizes the significance of these fields in shaping the cultural and intellectual fabric of the nation. It acknowledges the role of artists, writers, scientists, and social workers in contributing to the nation's progress and development.

3. Supplementing the elected members: The nomination of individuals with special knowledge or practical experience complements the elected members of the Rajya Sabha. While elected members represent the interests of the states, the nominated members bring in their domain-specific expertise, adding value to the legislative process.

Conclusion:

The President's power to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha allows for the inclusion of individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. This provision ensures a diverse representation and enriches the legislative proceedings with expertise from various fields. By nominating such individuals, the President acknowledges the importance of these domains in shaping the nation's progress and development.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ordinance-Making Power of the President:
Statement I:
The ordinance-making power of the President allows for the issuance of ordinances only when Parliament is not in session or either House is not in session.
Statement II:
The ordinance-making power of the President is not subject to any limitations and can be exercised at any time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kritika Menon answered
Understanding the Ordinance-Making Power of the President
The ordinance-making power of the President of India is an essential aspect of governance, particularly in situations where immediate legislative action is required. Here’s a detailed analysis of the two statements provided:
Statement I: Correct
- The President can issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session. This is crucial for ensuring that urgent legislative measures can be enacted without waiting for the Parliament to convene.
- Ordinances can be issued under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, which allows the President to legislate by ordinance in matters where Parliament has the authority to make laws.
Statement II: Incorrect
- While the President has the power to issue ordinances, this power is not unlimited. There are specific conditions and limitations surrounding its exercise.
- The ordinance must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembly; otherwise, it ceases to operate. This means the ordinance-making power is subject to checks and balances, ensuring it cannot be used arbitrarily.
Conclusion
- Since Statement I accurately describes the conditions under which the President can issue ordinances, but Statement II falsely claims that there are no limitations on this power, the correct answer is option 'C': "Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect."
In summary, the ordinance-making power is a vital legislative tool for the President, but it is governed by constitutional limitations to prevent misuse.

Consider the following statements.
1. The American Vice President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for the unexpired term of his predecessor. 
2. The Indian Vice-President, on the other hand, does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the unexpired term. 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Chawla answered
  1. The American Vice President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for the unexpired term of his predecessor.
    • This statement is correct. According to the U.S. Constitution and the Presidential Succession Act, if the President of the United States dies, resigns, is removed from office, or is otherwise unable to serve, the Vice President automatically becomes President and serves for the remainder of the original term.
  2. The Indian Vice-President, on the other hand, does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the unexpired term.
    • This statement is also correct. In India, when the office of the President falls vacant, the Vice-President serves as the Acting President until a new President is elected. The Vice-President does not become the President for the remainder of the original term but only holds the office temporarily.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Both 1 and 2

Consider the following statements about the pardoning power of the President.
1. He can exercise this power even without the advice of the cabinet.
2. The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
3. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below,
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Sharma answered
The Supreme Court examined the President's pardoning power under different cases and laid down the following principles.
1. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
2. The President can examine the evidence afresh and take a view different from the court's view.
3. The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.
4. The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.
5. The President can afford relief from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh and from an evident mistake.
6. There is no need for the Supreme Court to lay down specific guidelines for the President's power exercise.
7. The President's exercise of power is not subject to judicial review except where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
8. Where the President has rejected the earlier petition for mercy, the stay cannot be obtained by filing another petition.

The executive can make laws via the ordinance route, as mentioned in Article 123 of the constitution. Consider the following with this reference.
1. Ordinances can only be made from subjects in the Union List by the Union executive.
2. All ordinances made by the state executive are null and void if made without the President's prior recommendation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Saha answered
Explanation:

The correct option is D i.e. None of the above statements are correct. Let's understand why:

1. Ordinances can only be made from subjects in the Union List by the Union executive: This statement is incorrect because ordinances can be made on subjects in all three lists i.e. Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. However, the President cannot promulgate an ordinance on a matter that falls under the State List without the prior recommendation of the concerned state government.

2. All ordinances made by the state executive are null and void if made without the President's prior recommendation: This statement is also incorrect because the state executive cannot make ordinances. Only the Governor can promulgate an ordinance on matters that fall under the State List, but only when the state legislature is not in session and the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist that require immediate action.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Conclusion:

Ordinances are temporary laws that can be made by the President or the Governor when the Parliament or state legislature is not in session. They can be made on subjects in all three lists. However, the President cannot promulgate an ordinance on a matter that falls under the State List without the prior recommendation of the concerned state government. Similarly, the Governor can promulgate an ordinance on matters that fall under the State List, but only when the state legislature is not in session and the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist that require immediate action.

Consider the following statements:
1. During a national emergency, the President can suspend all fundamental rights.
2. The President can impose President's Rule due to the failure of constitutional machinery in states.
3. Financial Emergency allows the President to issue directives to reduce salaries and allowances of government officials, including judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
Analysis of the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's evaluate each one in detail.
Statement 1: Suspension of Fundamental Rights
- During a national emergency, certain fundamental rights can indeed be suspended.
- However, not all fundamental rights are suspended; specifically, the rights under Articles 20 and 21 (protection in respect of conviction for offenses and protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 2: Imposition of President's Rule
- The President can impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 of the Constitution due to the failure of constitutional machinery.
- This is valid when the state government cannot function according to the provisions of the Constitution.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
Statement 3: Directives during Financial Emergency
- Under Article 360, during a Financial Emergency, the President can indeed issue directives to reduce salaries and allowances of government officials, which includes judges.
- This provision allows the government to manage the financial crisis effectively.
- Consequently, this statement is correct.
Conclusion
- Based on the evaluations:
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C: 2 and 3 only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Executive Authority - Conducting diplomatic relations
2. Legislative Authority - Summoning and proroguing Parliament
3. Financial Authority - Presentation of the annual financial statement (Union Budget)
4. Judicial Authority - Authority to grant pardons
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Pair 1 (Correct): Conducting diplomatic relations is an executive function, as it involves managing foreign affairs and representing India internationally. 
- Pair 2 (Correct): Summoning and proroguing Parliament is a Legislative Authority of the President.
- Pair 3 (Correct): Presentation of the annual financial statement (Union Budget) is a Financial Authority of the President.
- Pair 4 (Incorrect): The authority to grant pardons is a Executive  Authority of the President.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court
2. It also authorises the CJI to appoint other place or places as the seat of the Supreme Court but with the prior approval of President.
3. He can make a decision in this regard only with the approval of the Parliament 
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Singh answered
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court: This statement is correct. Article 130 of the Indian Constitution states, "The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint."
2. It also authorises the CJI to appoint other place or places as the seat of the Supreme Court but with the prior approval of the President: This statement is also correct. As per the same Article 130, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) has the authority to appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court, but only with the prior approval of the President.
3. He can make a decision in this regard only with the approval of the Parliament: This statement is incorrect. The CJI does not require the approval of the Parliament to make a decision in this regard. As mentioned in Article 130, the CJI only needs the approval of the President to appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court.
 
 

Which of the following statements is false? 
  • a)
    The post of Vice President of India has been taken from the Constitution of France
  • b)
    The office of vice president is the second-highest constitutional office after the president.
  • c)
    While acting as a caretaker President, the Vice President does not act as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 
  • d)
    Vice President may be re-elected on his post 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Kapoor answered
The false statement among the options given is: The post of Vice President of India has been taken from the Constitution of France.
The office of the Vice President of India is modeled after the American vice presidency. The Vice President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and steps in as acting President in the absence of the President. This is different from the French system, where the Senate president assumes the role of the interim head of state when the presidency is vacant. The French system does not have a Vice President.

Every bill passed by the Parliament goes to the President for his assent before it becomes a law. Consider the following concerning it.
1. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill.
2. There is no time limit mentioned in the constitution for the President to approve these bills.
3. The President is constitutionally authorised to send and introduce legislative proposals in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer:

The President's Assent to Bills Passed by Parliament

The process of making a bill into law in India involves passing it through both houses of Parliament and then sending it to the President for his assent. The President can either give his assent to the bill or send it back to the Parliament for reconsideration.

Options:

1. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill.

This statement is true. The President of India has the power to send a bill back to the Parliament if he feels that it needs to be reconsidered. This is known as the power of veto. If the bill is sent back, the Parliament can either make changes to the bill and send it back to the President for his assent, or it can choose to override the veto by passing the bill with a two-thirds majority in both houses.

2. There is no time limit mentioned in the constitution for the President to approve these bills.

This statement is also true. There is no time limit mentioned in the constitution for the President to give his assent to a bill. However, if the President does not give his assent within a reasonable amount of time, the bill is deemed to have been given assent and becomes law.

3. The President is constitutionally authorised to send and introduce legislative proposals in the Parliament.

This statement is false. While the President does have certain powers to initiate legislation, he is not constitutionally authorised to introduce legislative proposals in the Parliament. The power to introduce bills lies with the members of Parliament.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, which includes statements 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pardoning Power of the President:
Statement I:
The President's pardoning power includes the ability to grant pardons, commutations, remissions, respites, and reprieves.
Statement II:
The President exercises the pardoning power independently without any advice from the Union Cabinet.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Tiwari answered
Statement Analysis:

Statement I:
- The President's pardoning power includes granting pardons, commutations, remissions, respites, and reprieves.

Statement II:
- The President exercises the pardoning power independently without any advice from the Union Cabinet.

Explanation:

Statement I:
- The pardoning power of the President indeed includes the ability to grant various forms of pardons such as pardons, commutations, remissions, respites, and reprieves. This power is granted under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution, which empowers the President to grant pardons and to suspend, remit, or commute sentences in certain cases.

Statement II:
- However, the President does not exercise the pardoning power independently. In practice, the President is required to act on the advice of the Union Cabinet while exercising the pardoning power. The advice of the Council of Ministers is necessary for the President to make informed decisions regarding pardons and commutations.

Conclusion:
- Therefore, while Statement I is correct in explaining the extent of the President's pardoning power, Statement II is incorrect as the President does not exercise this power independently without the advice of the Union Cabinet.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Original Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court decides disputes between the Centre and one or more states.
2. Writ Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
3. Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can hear appeals only in criminal matters.
4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court can provide opinions to the President on any question of law or fact of public importance.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Original Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court has the authority to decide disputes between different units of the Indian Federation, including disputes between the Centre and one or more states.
2. Writ Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court can indeed issue writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
3. Appellate Jurisdiction: Incorrect. The Supreme Court hears appeals in constitutional, civil, and criminal matters, not just criminal matters.
4. Advisory Jurisdiction: Correct. The Supreme Court can provide opinions to the President on any question of law or fact of public importance under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, but pair 3 is incorrect.
Answer: Option B

Consider the following pairs:
1. Executive Authority - Appointment of the Prime Minister
2. Legislative Authority - Sending messages to Parliament about pending bills
3. Financial Authority - Prior recommendation for the introduction of money bills
4. Judicial Authority - Appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
- Pair 1 (Correct): Appointment of the Prime Minister is an Executive Authority of the President.
- Pair 2 (Correct): Sending messages to Parliament, including messages related to pending bills, is a Legislative Authority of the President.
- Pair 3 (Correct): Prior recommendation for the introduction of money bills is a Financial Authority of the President.
- Pair 4 (Incorrect): Appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India falls under Executive Authority, not Judicial Authority.

Consider the following statements.
1. The doctrine of Judicial review originated and developed in the USA
2. In India the constitution itself confers the power of Judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts).
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury V. Madison (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court. In India, on the other hand, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts).

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