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Zombie firms, sometimes seen in news implies- a)Firms which earn sufficient profit to finance their debts
- b)Firms with creating more employment opportunities
- c)Firms which are not able to cover their debt-servicing costs with current earnings.
- d)Firms supported by the government without taxing on its profits.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Zombie firms, sometimes seen in news implies
a)
Firms which earn sufficient profit to finance their debts
b)
Firms with creating more employment opportunities
c)
Firms which are not able to cover their debt-servicing costs with current earnings.
d)
Firms supported by the government without taxing on its profits.
|
Aditya Kumar answered |
Former Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian said India had moved from socialism with a limited entry (for firms) to capitalism without exit. Alas, capitalism without exit is Zombieland, full of companies neither dead nor alive.
In the financial world, companies on life support are called "Zombies": Those firms that cannot cover their debt-servicing costs with current earnings. They are in bad shape and probably should have gone out of business already. Yet, they are being kept alive.
Consider the following statements.
1. Indian tax revenues remain largely dependent on direct tax collections.
2. The interest payments represent the lowest share of revenue expenditure rendered by the Centre.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Indian tax revenues remain largely dependent on direct tax collections.
2. The interest payments represent the lowest share of revenue expenditure rendered by the Centre.
1. Indian tax revenues remain largely dependent on direct tax collections.
2. The interest payments represent the lowest share of revenue expenditure rendered by the Centre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
- Since an overwhelming majority of Indians do not pay income taxes, Indian tax revenues remain largely dependent on indirect tax collections, which include all taxes on spending (such as GST). These indirect taxesaccount for over two-thirds of total tax revenue in India.
- Over half of the government's expenditure in India goes towards subsidies and other programmes.
- India also spends a substantial amount on interest payments. At 2017 levels of expenditure, 6% of GDP went towards interest payments.
- Higher proportion of interest payments are a direct outcome of the debt levels accumulated by the Indian government.
Consider the following statements regarding Special economic zones (SEZs) in India.1. The SEZ Act 2005 envisages a key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creating a related infrastructure in SEZs.2. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules.3. SEZs are exempted from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 3 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) 1 and 2 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Special economic zones (SEZs) in India.
1. The SEZ Act 2005 envisages a key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creating a related infrastructure in SEZs.
2. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules.
3. SEZs are exempted from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
All of the above
|
Nisha Nair answered |
SEZs in India
Overview:
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are geographically defined areas set up for the purpose of promoting exports, investment and economic growth. The concept of SEZs was introduced in India in 2000 with the aim of boosting exports and attracting foreign investment.
Key facts:
• SEZs are governed by the SEZ Act, 2005 and the SEZ Rules, 2006.
• SEZs are treated as foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations.
• SEZs are exempted from various taxes and duties such as income tax, customs duty, excise duty, and service tax.
Statements:
1. The SEZ Act 2005 envisages a key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creating a related infrastructure in SEZs.
• This statement is correct.
• State Governments are responsible for providing necessary infrastructure such as water supply, electricity, roads, and other amenities in SEZs.
2. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules.
• This statement is correct.
• SEZs are subject to all central and state laws unless they are specifically exempted under the SEZ Act and Rules.
3. SEZs are exempted from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
• This statement is correct.
• SEZ units are exempt from MAT for a period of 15 years from the date of commencement of production.
Conclusion:
All the statements are correct. The SEZ policy has been successful in promoting exports and attracting foreign investment in India. However, there have been some concerns regarding the impact of SEZs on land acquisition and displacement of local communities. The government needs to ensure that the benefits of SEZs are balanced with the social and environmental costs.
Overview:
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are geographically defined areas set up for the purpose of promoting exports, investment and economic growth. The concept of SEZs was introduced in India in 2000 with the aim of boosting exports and attracting foreign investment.
Key facts:
• SEZs are governed by the SEZ Act, 2005 and the SEZ Rules, 2006.
• SEZs are treated as foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations.
• SEZs are exempted from various taxes and duties such as income tax, customs duty, excise duty, and service tax.
Statements:
1. The SEZ Act 2005 envisages a key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creating a related infrastructure in SEZs.
• This statement is correct.
• State Governments are responsible for providing necessary infrastructure such as water supply, electricity, roads, and other amenities in SEZs.
2. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules.
• This statement is correct.
• SEZs are subject to all central and state laws unless they are specifically exempted under the SEZ Act and Rules.
3. SEZs are exempted from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
• This statement is correct.
• SEZ units are exempt from MAT for a period of 15 years from the date of commencement of production.
Conclusion:
All the statements are correct. The SEZ policy has been successful in promoting exports and attracting foreign investment in India. However, there have been some concerns regarding the impact of SEZs on land acquisition and displacement of local communities. The government needs to ensure that the benefits of SEZs are balanced with the social and environmental costs.
Teaser loan, sometimes seen in news means;- a) Loans which charge lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.
- b) Loans provided to weaker sections of the society with an interest rate below the repo rate.
- c) Loans provided to high net worth individuals.
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Teaser loan, sometimes seen in news means;
a)
Loans which charge lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.
b)
Loans provided to weaker sections of the society with an interest rate below the repo rate.
c)
Loans provided to high net worth individuals.
d)
None of the above
|
Vikram Kapoor answered |
Teaser loans charge comparatively lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.
With reference to the government expenditure in India, which of the following constitutes Transfer Payments?
1. The payments which are made by the government to its employees.
2. The Interest payments made to foreign countries on loans taken.
3. The payments which are made as financial aid in a social welfare programme.Select the correct answer code:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the government expenditure in India, which of the following constitutes Transfer Payments?
1. The payments which are made by the government to its employees.
2. The Interest payments made to foreign countries on loans taken.
3. The payments which are made as financial aid in a social welfare programme.
1. The payments which are made by the government to its employees.
2. The Interest payments made to foreign countries on loans taken.
3. The payments which are made as financial aid in a social welfare programme.
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
Ritika Choudhury answered |
- In macroeconomics and finance, a transfer payment is a redistribution of income and wealth by means of the government making a payment, without goods or services being received in return.
- These payments are considered to be non-exhaustive because they do not directly absorb resources or create output. Examples of transfer payments include welfare, financial aid, social security, and government subsidies for certain businesses.
Consider the following statements regarding Government Security (G-Sec) and Treasury Bills (T-bills).1. In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).2. They are not available for small and retail investors.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Government Security (G-Sec) and Treasury Bills (T-bills).
1. In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
2. They are not available for small and retail investors.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Prisha Nair answered |
Understanding Government Securities (G-Sec) and Treasury Bills (T-bills)
Government Securities (G-Sec) and Treasury Bills (T-bills) are vital instruments in the financial market, especially in India. Let's analyze the statements provided.
Statement 1: Central and State Government Issues
- The statement is correct.
- In India, the Central Government issues both T-bills and dated securities (bonds), while State Governments do not issue T-bills.
- State Governments issue bonds known as State Development Loans (SDLs) to meet their financial needs.
Statement 2: Availability to Small and Retail Investors
- This statement is incorrect.
- T-bills and G-Secs are indeed accessible to small and retail investors.
- They can invest through various platforms including banks, mutual funds, and the Stock Holding Corporation of India (SHCIL).
Conclusion
- Given that Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer to the question is option 'B': 2 only is incorrect.
- Therefore, small and retail investors do have avenues to invest in these securities, contradicting the second statement.
Key Takeaway
- Government Securities and T-bills are crucial for both institutional and retail investors, promoting a broad participation in the Indian financial system.
Understanding these nuances is essential for anyone preparing for competitive examinations like UPSC.
Government Securities (G-Sec) and Treasury Bills (T-bills) are vital instruments in the financial market, especially in India. Let's analyze the statements provided.
Statement 1: Central and State Government Issues
- The statement is correct.
- In India, the Central Government issues both T-bills and dated securities (bonds), while State Governments do not issue T-bills.
- State Governments issue bonds known as State Development Loans (SDLs) to meet their financial needs.
Statement 2: Availability to Small and Retail Investors
- This statement is incorrect.
- T-bills and G-Secs are indeed accessible to small and retail investors.
- They can invest through various platforms including banks, mutual funds, and the Stock Holding Corporation of India (SHCIL).
Conclusion
- Given that Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer to the question is option 'B': 2 only is incorrect.
- Therefore, small and retail investors do have avenues to invest in these securities, contradicting the second statement.
Key Takeaway
- Government Securities and T-bills are crucial for both institutional and retail investors, promoting a broad participation in the Indian financial system.
Understanding these nuances is essential for anyone preparing for competitive examinations like UPSC.
Consider the following statements.1. India is the world's largest crude oil importer.2. At present, OPEC countries meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. India is the world's largest crude oil importer.
2. At present, OPEC countries meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Ankita Sarkar answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: India is the world's largest crude oil importer.
This statement is incorrect. As of 2021, the world's largest crude oil importer is China. India stands at the second position in terms of crude oil imports.
Statement 2: At present, OPEC countries meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.
This statement is incorrect. The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a group of oil-producing countries. While OPEC countries play a significant role in meeting India's crude oil demand, they do not account for 90% of it. The share of OPEC countries in India's crude oil imports has declined over the years. Currently, it is estimated that OPEC countries meet around 80% of India's crude oil demand.
Conclusion:
Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct. India is not the world's largest crude oil importer, and OPEC countries do not meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.
Statement 1: India is the world's largest crude oil importer.
This statement is incorrect. As of 2021, the world's largest crude oil importer is China. India stands at the second position in terms of crude oil imports.
Statement 2: At present, OPEC countries meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.
This statement is incorrect. The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a group of oil-producing countries. While OPEC countries play a significant role in meeting India's crude oil demand, they do not account for 90% of it. The share of OPEC countries in India's crude oil imports has declined over the years. Currently, it is estimated that OPEC countries meet around 80% of India's crude oil demand.
Conclusion:
Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct. India is not the world's largest crude oil importer, and OPEC countries do not meet 90% of India's crude oil demand.
Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget financing.
1. Off-budget spending is not included in the estimation of economic metrics, such as the fiscal deficit.
2. Parliamentary control on such spending is also reduced.
3. National Small Savings Fund is the biggest source for the Government for Off-budget financing.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget financing.
1. Off-budget spending is not included in the estimation of economic metrics, such as the fiscal deficit.
2. Parliamentary control on such spending is also reduced.
3. National Small Savings Fund is the biggest source for the Government for Off-budget financing.
1. Off-budget spending is not included in the estimation of economic metrics, such as the fiscal deficit.
2. Parliamentary control on such spending is also reduced.
3. National Small Savings Fund is the biggest source for the Government for Off-budget financing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Jatin Nair answered |
Understanding Off-Budget Financing
Off-budget financing refers to expenditures that are not included in the official budget documents. This mechanism can significantly impact a country's fiscal management.
1. Non-Inclusion in Economic Metrics
- Off-budget spending is often excluded from calculations of fiscal deficit and other economic metrics.
- This non-inclusion can lead to a misleading representation of the government’s financial health.
2. Reduced Parliamentary Control
- Since off-budget expenditures are not part of the regular budget, parliamentary oversight is diminished.
- This lack of scrutiny raises concerns about transparency and accountability in government spending.
3. Role of the National Small Savings Fund
- The National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) is indeed one of the primary sources for off-budget financing.
- It allows the government to access funds without impacting the fiscal deficit directly, as these funds are not reflected in the main budget.
Conclusion
All three statements regarding off-budget financing are accurate:
- Off-budget spending is excluded from fiscal deficit calculations.
- Parliamentary control over such expenditures is indeed reduced.
- The NSSF serves as a significant source for off-budget financing.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' (1, 2, 3). Understanding off-budget financing is crucial for comprehending the broader fiscal landscape and the implications for governance and economic policy.
Off-budget financing refers to expenditures that are not included in the official budget documents. This mechanism can significantly impact a country's fiscal management.
1. Non-Inclusion in Economic Metrics
- Off-budget spending is often excluded from calculations of fiscal deficit and other economic metrics.
- This non-inclusion can lead to a misleading representation of the government’s financial health.
2. Reduced Parliamentary Control
- Since off-budget expenditures are not part of the regular budget, parliamentary oversight is diminished.
- This lack of scrutiny raises concerns about transparency and accountability in government spending.
3. Role of the National Small Savings Fund
- The National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) is indeed one of the primary sources for off-budget financing.
- It allows the government to access funds without impacting the fiscal deficit directly, as these funds are not reflected in the main budget.
Conclusion
All three statements regarding off-budget financing are accurate:
- Off-budget spending is excluded from fiscal deficit calculations.
- Parliamentary control over such expenditures is indeed reduced.
- The NSSF serves as a significant source for off-budget financing.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' (1, 2, 3). Understanding off-budget financing is crucial for comprehending the broader fiscal landscape and the implications for governance and economic policy.
Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources (IEBR) sometimes seen in news is- a)Financing received from IFC Masala bonds
- b)Resources raised by the PSUs through loans and equity.
- c)Monetization of deficit through Forex Reserves
- d)Basel III Capitalization of Commercial Banks
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources (IEBR) sometimes seen in news is
a)
Financing received from IFC Masala bonds
b)
Resources raised by the PSUs through loans and equity.
c)
Monetization of deficit through Forex Reserves
d)
Basel III Capitalization of Commercial Banks
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
A big part of the Union government spending comes from outside the budget which is referred as extra-budgetary resources.
IEBR constitutes the resources raised by the PSUs through profits, loans and equity.
IEBR constitutes the resources raised by the PSUs through profits, loans and equity.
Consider the following statements regarding Monetisation of the deficit.1. Deficit monetisation means printing large sums of money and distributing it to the public.2. The Monetisation of the deficit is not practised in India after 1991 Economic Reforms.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Monetisation of the deficit.
1. Deficit monetisation means printing large sums of money and distributing it to the public.
2. The Monetisation of the deficit is not practised in India after 1991 Economic Reforms.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
In layman's language, Monetisation of deficit means printing more money. In other words, Monetisation of deficit happens when RBI buys government securities directly from the primary market to fund the Government's expenses.
The Monetisation of the deficit was in practice in India until 1997, whereby the central Bank automatically monetised government deficit through ad-hoc treasury bills.
What is helicopter money? : This is an unconventional monetary policy tool aimed at bringing a flagging economy back on track. It involves printing large sums of money and distributing it to the public. Under such a policy, a central bank "directly increase the money supply and, via the government, distribute the new cash to the population to boost demand and inflation."
Which of the following are recognised as "Three Sisters" under the Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?1. International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC)2. Codex Alimentarius Commission3. Pacific Plant Protection Organization4. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)Select the correct answer code:Answer: b- a) 1,2 and 3
- b) 1,2 and 4
- c) 2,3 and 4
- d) 2 and 4
Correct answer is option ''. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are recognised as "Three Sisters" under the Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
1. International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC)
2. Codex Alimentarius Commission
3. Pacific Plant Protection Organization
4. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
Select the correct answer code:
Answer: b
a)
1,2 and 3
b)
1,2 and 4
c)
2,3 and 4
d)
2 and 4
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) is one of the "Three Sisters" recognised by the World Trade Organization's (WTO) Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement, along with the Codex Alimentarius Commission for food safety standards and the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) for animal health standards.
Special Drawing Rights (SDR) can be used to1. Supplementing IMF member countries' official reserves.2. Settle Balance of Payment transactions3. Bridge fiscal deficit and fund infrastructure projectsSelect the correct answer code:- a) 1 and 3 only
- b) 1 and 2 only
- c) 1 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Special Drawing Rights (SDR) can be used to
1. Supplementing IMF member countries' official reserves.
2. Settle Balance of Payment transactions
3. Bridge fiscal deficit and fund infrastructure projects
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1 only
d)
All of the above
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies. It cannot be used to fund infrastructure projects as it is not a currency. Same goes for settling domestic financial bills of the government.
SDR allocations can play a role in providing liquidity and supplementing member countries' official reserves.
IMF member countries can borrow SDRs from its reserves at favourable interest rates, mostly to adjust their balance of payments to favourable positions.
The term 'Roaring Twenties' refer to- a)Strong westerly winds found in 10 to 20 degrees latitude
- b)Period of economic prosperity in the United States and Europe
- c)Severe Thunderstorms during 1920s
- d)Economic recession in Asian countries during 1920s
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The term 'Roaring Twenties' refer to
a)
Strong westerly winds found in 10 to 20 degrees latitude
b)
Period of economic prosperity in the United States and Europe
c)
Severe Thunderstorms during 1920s
d)
Economic recession in Asian countries during 1920s
|
|
Bijoy Saha answered |
The Roaring Twenties is a term used to describe a period of economic prosperity in the United States and Europe during the 1920s. This era was marked by a significant increase in consumer spending, driven by technological advancements, mass production, and urbanization.
Heading: Economic Prosperity
During this period, the economy experienced a rapid growth in production and consumption, leading to an increase in employment rates and higher wages for workers. The availability of new technologies, such as the automobile and radio, also led to new industries and job opportunities. The stock market reached new heights, and people invested heavily in stocks, leading to a stock market bubble.
Heading: Social Changes
The Roaring Twenties was also marked by a significant shift in social and cultural norms. Women gained more independence and freedom, leading to the emergence of flappers, who challenged traditional gender roles. The prohibition of alcohol also led to the rise of illegal speakeasies and bootlegging.
Heading: Literature and the Arts
The Roaring Twenties was a significant period for literature and the arts. Many famous authors, such as F. Scott Fitzgerald and Ernest Hemingway, emerged during this time and wrote about the changing social norms and the disillusionment of the era. Jazz music also became popular, and the Harlem Renaissance emerged as a significant cultural movement.
In conclusion, the Roaring Twenties was a period of economic prosperity, social change, and cultural innovation in the United States and Europe. It was a time of great change and transformation, which had a significant impact on the world's political and economic landscape.
Heading: Economic Prosperity
During this period, the economy experienced a rapid growth in production and consumption, leading to an increase in employment rates and higher wages for workers. The availability of new technologies, such as the automobile and radio, also led to new industries and job opportunities. The stock market reached new heights, and people invested heavily in stocks, leading to a stock market bubble.
Heading: Social Changes
The Roaring Twenties was also marked by a significant shift in social and cultural norms. Women gained more independence and freedom, leading to the emergence of flappers, who challenged traditional gender roles. The prohibition of alcohol also led to the rise of illegal speakeasies and bootlegging.
Heading: Literature and the Arts
The Roaring Twenties was a significant period for literature and the arts. Many famous authors, such as F. Scott Fitzgerald and Ernest Hemingway, emerged during this time and wrote about the changing social norms and the disillusionment of the era. Jazz music also became popular, and the Harlem Renaissance emerged as a significant cultural movement.
In conclusion, the Roaring Twenties was a period of economic prosperity, social change, and cultural innovation in the United States and Europe. It was a time of great change and transformation, which had a significant impact on the world's political and economic landscape.
Which of the following are considered as tax revenue for the Union Government?1. Personal income tax2. Excise Duty3. Dividends on investments4. Income through Spectrum Auctions Select the correct answer code:(c)1, 2- a) 1, 2, 3
- b) 1, 3, 4
- c) 1, 2, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are considered as tax revenue for the Union Government?
1. Personal income tax
2. Excise Duty
3. Dividends on investments
4. Income through Spectrum Auctions
Select the correct answer code:
(c)1, 2
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
1, 3, 4
c)
1, 2, 4
|
Akshara Menon answered |
Tax revenue for the Union Government includes the following:
1. Personal income tax: Personal income tax is a direct tax levied on the income earned by individuals. It is a significant source of revenue for the government. Individuals are required to pay taxes on their income, which includes salaries, wages, profits from businesses, rental income, and other sources. The tax rates vary based on the income slab, with higher rates applicable to higher income earners. Personal income tax contributes to the government's revenue pool and helps fund various public services and developmental projects.
2. Excise Duty: Excise duty is a form of indirect tax levied on the manufacture, sale, or use of certain goods. It is typically imposed on goods that are considered harmful or non-essential, such as tobacco, alcohol, petroleum products, and luxury items. The government collects excise duty from manufacturers or importers when these goods are produced or imported. Excise duty serves as a significant source of revenue for the government and helps control the consumption of certain goods by making them relatively more expensive.
3. Dividends on investments: Dividends received by the government from its investments in public sector undertakings (PSUs) and other entities also contribute to its tax revenue. PSUs are government-owned corporations that operate in various sectors of the economy. The government holds a significant stake in these entities and receives dividends based on their profitability. These dividends are considered as a part of the government's overall tax revenue.
4. Income through Spectrum Auctions: Spectrum refers to the radio frequencies used for wireless communication. The government auctions spectrum licenses to telecom companies allowing them to use specific frequency bands for providing mobile and other communication services. Telecom companies bid for these licenses, and the government earns revenue from the auction proceeds. This revenue is considered as part of the government's tax revenue and helps in funding various developmental initiatives.
In conclusion, personal income tax, excise duty, dividends on investments, and income through spectrum auctions are all considered as tax revenue for the Union Government. These revenue sources play a crucial role in financing various government expenditures and developmental projects.
1. Personal income tax: Personal income tax is a direct tax levied on the income earned by individuals. It is a significant source of revenue for the government. Individuals are required to pay taxes on their income, which includes salaries, wages, profits from businesses, rental income, and other sources. The tax rates vary based on the income slab, with higher rates applicable to higher income earners. Personal income tax contributes to the government's revenue pool and helps fund various public services and developmental projects.
2. Excise Duty: Excise duty is a form of indirect tax levied on the manufacture, sale, or use of certain goods. It is typically imposed on goods that are considered harmful or non-essential, such as tobacco, alcohol, petroleum products, and luxury items. The government collects excise duty from manufacturers or importers when these goods are produced or imported. Excise duty serves as a significant source of revenue for the government and helps control the consumption of certain goods by making them relatively more expensive.
3. Dividends on investments: Dividends received by the government from its investments in public sector undertakings (PSUs) and other entities also contribute to its tax revenue. PSUs are government-owned corporations that operate in various sectors of the economy. The government holds a significant stake in these entities and receives dividends based on their profitability. These dividends are considered as a part of the government's overall tax revenue.
4. Income through Spectrum Auctions: Spectrum refers to the radio frequencies used for wireless communication. The government auctions spectrum licenses to telecom companies allowing them to use specific frequency bands for providing mobile and other communication services. Telecom companies bid for these licenses, and the government earns revenue from the auction proceeds. This revenue is considered as part of the government's tax revenue and helps in funding various developmental initiatives.
In conclusion, personal income tax, excise duty, dividends on investments, and income through spectrum auctions are all considered as tax revenue for the Union Government. These revenue sources play a crucial role in financing various government expenditures and developmental projects.
Consider the following statements regarding International Financial Services Centres Authority.1. International Financial Services Centres Authority is a statutory regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs to regulate all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in the country.2. The authority exercises the powers of RBI in respect of financial services performed in the international financial services centres in the country.3. IFSCA has members each nominated from RBI, IRDAI, SEBI and PFRDA.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1, 2
- b) 1, 3
- c) 2, 3
- d) 1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding International Financial Services Centres Authority.
1. International Financial Services Centres Authority is a statutory regulatory body under the Department of Economic Affairs to regulate all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in the country.
2. The authority exercises the powers of RBI in respect of financial services performed in the international financial services centres in the country.
3. IFSCA has members each nominated from RBI, IRDAI, SEBI and PFRDA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Gauri Bose answered |
International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) is a regulatory body established under the Department of Economic Affairs to regulate all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in the country.
Key Points:
- Statement 1 is correct as IFSCA is indeed a statutory regulatory body.
- Statement 2 is also correct as IFSCA exercises the powers of RBI in regulating financial services in IFSCs.
- Statement 3 is correct as well, with members nominated from RBI, IRDAI, SEBI, and PFRDA.
Therefore, all the given statements (1, 2, 3) regarding International Financial Services Centres Authority are correct.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) is a regulatory body established under the Department of Economic Affairs to regulate all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in the country.
Key Points:
- Statement 1 is correct as IFSCA is indeed a statutory regulatory body.
- Statement 2 is also correct as IFSCA exercises the powers of RBI in regulating financial services in IFSCs.
- Statement 3 is correct as well, with members nominated from RBI, IRDAI, SEBI, and PFRDA.
Therefore, all the given statements (1, 2, 3) regarding International Financial Services Centres Authority are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the leverage ratio for banks.1. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets.2. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks helps them boost their lending activities.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the leverage ratio for banks.
1. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets.
2. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks helps them boost their lending activities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Anisha Singh answered |
Explanation:
The leverage ratio is a measure of a bank's core capital to its total assets. It is calculated by dividing a bank's Tier 1 capital (core capital) by its total exposures (total assets). The leverage ratio is a key indicator of a bank's financial strength and stability.
Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. Core capital refers to a bank's Tier 1 capital, which includes common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital. Total assets include all the assets held by the bank, such as loans, investments, and other holdings.
Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks does not necessarily help them boost their lending activities. The leverage ratio is primarily used as a measure of a bank's financial stability and risk. A higher leverage ratio indicates that a bank has a higher proportion of capital to its total assets, which can be seen as a positive sign of financial strength. However, it does not directly impact a bank's lending activities. The lending activities of a bank are influenced by factors such as market conditions, interest rates, and regulatory requirements, rather than the leverage ratio.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks does not necessarily help them boost their lending activities.
The leverage ratio is a measure of a bank's core capital to its total assets. It is calculated by dividing a bank's Tier 1 capital (core capital) by its total exposures (total assets). The leverage ratio is a key indicator of a bank's financial strength and stability.
Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. Core capital refers to a bank's Tier 1 capital, which includes common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital. Total assets include all the assets held by the bank, such as loans, investments, and other holdings.
Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks does not necessarily help them boost their lending activities. The leverage ratio is primarily used as a measure of a bank's financial stability and risk. A higher leverage ratio indicates that a bank has a higher proportion of capital to its total assets, which can be seen as a positive sign of financial strength. However, it does not directly impact a bank's lending activities. The lending activities of a bank are influenced by factors such as market conditions, interest rates, and regulatory requirements, rather than the leverage ratio.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. An increase in the leverage ratio for banks does not necessarily help them boost their lending activities.
Consider the following statements.1. Recession is defined as a fall in the overall economic activity for two consecutive quarters accompanied by a decline in income, sales and employment.2. India's economy has now formally entered into a technical recession.3. Gross Value Added (GVA) data provides a measure of national income by looking at the value-added sectors of the economy.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Recession is defined as a fall in the overall economic activity for two consecutive quarters accompanied by a decline in income, sales and employment.
2. India's economy has now formally entered into a technical recession.
3. Gross Value Added (GVA) data provides a measure of national income by looking at the value-added sectors of the economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Kabir Verma answered |
According to the official data released recently, India's gross domestic product (GDP) contracted by 7.5% during the July, August, and September quarter. This means that in Q2 of 2020-21 India produced 7.5% fewer goods and services compared to what India produced in Q2 of 2019-20.
In the process, India's economy has now formally entered into a technical recession because — along with the nearly 24% contraction in Q1 — India has had two consecutive quarters when GDP growth rate has declined.
Recession is defined as a fall in the overall economic activity for two consecutive quarters (six months) accompanied by a decline in income, sales and employment.
Gross Value Added (GVA) data provides a measure of national income by looking at the value-added by different economic sectors in that quarter. If you want to compare which parts of the economy improved production and incomes from one quarter to another, the GVA is more apt.
Geographical Indication tags are typically given for1. Agricultural products2. Foodstuffs3. Handicrafts4. Industrial products5. Wines and spirit drinks Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2, 3, 4
- b)1, 2, 3, 5
- c)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
- d)1, 2, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Geographical Indication tags are typically given for
1. Agricultural products
2. Foodstuffs
3. Handicrafts
4. Industrial products
5. Wines and spirit drinks
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
1, 2, 3, 5
c)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d)
1, 2, 4, 5
|
|
Amit Sharma answered |
The World Intellectual Property Organisation defines a GI as "a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin".
GIs are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, handicrafts, industrial products, wines and spirit drinks. Darjeeling tea, Kullu shawl, Mysore agarbathi, champagne (France), Swiss watches etc. are examples.
Internationally, GIs are covered as an element of intellectual property rights under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. They have also covered under the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
GIs are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, handicrafts, industrial products, wines and spirit drinks. Darjeeling tea, Kullu shawl, Mysore agarbathi, champagne (France), Swiss watches etc. are examples.
Internationally, GIs are covered as an element of intellectual property rights under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. They have also covered under the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
Participatory notes (P-notes) investments in the Indian market is allowed in which of the following instruments1. Equity2. Debt3. Hybrid securities4. DerivativesSelect the correct answer code:- a) 1,2 and 3 only
- b) 1,3 and 4 only
- c) 1 and 2 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Participatory notes (P-notes) investments in the Indian market is allowed in which of the following instruments
1. Equity
2. Debt
3. Hybrid securities
4. Derivatives
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1,2 and 3 only
b)
1,3 and 4 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Ritika Choudhury answered |
Registered FPIs issue P-notes to overseas investors who wish to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly. They, however, need to go through a due diligence process.
P-note investments in Indian markets - equity, debt, hybrid securities and derivatives.
Consider the following statements regarding Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN).1. The Open Credit Enabling Network is a new credit protocol infrastructure that will link lenders and marketplaces.2. It will help small businesses and entrepreneurs get loans.3. National Payments Corporation of India builds it.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 1, 2
- c) 1, 3
- d) 1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN).
1. The Open Credit Enabling Network is a new credit protocol infrastructure that will link lenders and marketplaces.
2. It will help small businesses and entrepreneurs get loans.
3. National Payments Corporation of India builds it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN), a credit protocol infrastructure built by the Indian Software Product Industry Roundtable (iSpirt), a think-tank of the software industry, will democratise the lending ecosystem.
OECN as a credit rail will have a common language and connecting lenders and marketplaces, allowing them to create innovative credit products and services on top of it.
It will democratise credit in the country, helping small businesses and entrepreneurs get loans.
Consider the following statements.1. Disinvestment can either reduce the government's share in the public sector undertakings (PSUs) or transfer the ownership of the PSU altogether to the highest bidder.2. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under the Ministry of Finance is tasked with managing the Centre's investments in the PSUs.3. In the last five years, the Government has been unable to meet the Disinvestment target it wanted at the start of the year.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Disinvestment can either reduce the government's share in the public sector undertakings (PSUs) or transfer the ownership of the PSU altogether to the highest bidder.
2. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under the Ministry of Finance is tasked with managing the Centre's investments in the PSUs.
3. In the last five years, the Government has been unable to meet the Disinvestment target it wanted at the start of the year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
Madhurima Deshpande answered |
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 and 2 only.
Explanation:
1. Disinvestment in PSUs:
Disinvestment refers to the process of reducing the government's ownership in public sector undertakings (PSUs) or transferring the ownership of the PSU altogether to the highest bidder. It is a strategic move by the government to reduce its fiscal burden, promote efficiency, and increase competitiveness in the market.
2. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM):
The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is an agency under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is responsible for managing the Centre's investments in the PSUs. DIPAM plays a crucial role in the disinvestment process by formulating policies, implementing disinvestment plans, and undertaking stake sales in PSUs.
3. Inability to meet disinvestment targets:
The statement mentions that in the last five years, the government has been unable to meet the disinvestment target it set at the beginning of the year. This implies that the government has faced challenges in achieving its desired level of disinvestment. It could be due to various factors such as market conditions, investor interest, political considerations, or delays in the disinvestment process.
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as it explains the concept of disinvestment in PSUs. Statement 2 is correct as it highlights the role of DIPAM in managing the government's investments in PSUs. However, statement 3 is not correct as it suggests that the government has consistently failed to meet its disinvestment targets in the last five years, which may not be a factual statement. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 and 2 only.
Explanation:
1. Disinvestment in PSUs:
Disinvestment refers to the process of reducing the government's ownership in public sector undertakings (PSUs) or transferring the ownership of the PSU altogether to the highest bidder. It is a strategic move by the government to reduce its fiscal burden, promote efficiency, and increase competitiveness in the market.
2. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM):
The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is an agency under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is responsible for managing the Centre's investments in the PSUs. DIPAM plays a crucial role in the disinvestment process by formulating policies, implementing disinvestment plans, and undertaking stake sales in PSUs.
3. Inability to meet disinvestment targets:
The statement mentions that in the last five years, the government has been unable to meet the disinvestment target it set at the beginning of the year. This implies that the government has faced challenges in achieving its desired level of disinvestment. It could be due to various factors such as market conditions, investor interest, political considerations, or delays in the disinvestment process.
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as it explains the concept of disinvestment in PSUs. Statement 2 is correct as it highlights the role of DIPAM in managing the government's investments in PSUs. However, statement 3 is not correct as it suggests that the government has consistently failed to meet its disinvestment targets in the last five years, which may not be a factual statement. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements regarding the zero-coupon bond.1. A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.2. These are special types of bonds issued only by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the zero-coupon bond.
1. A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.
2. These are special types of bonds issued only by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Shivani Desai answered |
Zero-coupon bond:
A zero-coupon bond is a type of debt security that does not pay any interest to the bondholder. Instead, it is sold at a deep discount from its face value and the bondholder receives the full face value of the bond at maturity. This means that the bondholder earns a profit by purchasing the bond at a discount and receiving the full face value at maturity.
Statement 1: A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.
This statement is correct. As mentioned earlier, a zero-coupon bond does not pay any interest to the bondholder. Instead, it is sold at a discounted price, typically below its face value, and the bondholder receives the full face value of the bond at maturity. The difference between the discounted purchase price and the face value represents the profit earned by the bondholder.
Statement 2: These are special types of bonds issued only by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
This statement is incorrect. Zero-coupon bonds can be issued by various entities including governments, corporations, and financial institutions. While it is true that governments may issue zero-coupon bonds, they are not exclusively issued by the central government and are not specifically issued to a particular institution. These bonds can be bought by individual investors, financial institutions, or any other entity interested in investing in fixed-income securities.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statement is statement 1. Zero-coupon bonds do not pay interest but are sold at a discount and redeemed for their full face value at maturity, resulting in a profit for the bondholder. Statement 2 is incorrect as zero-coupon bonds can be issued by various entities and are not exclusively issued by the central government or specifically issued to a particular institution.
A zero-coupon bond is a type of debt security that does not pay any interest to the bondholder. Instead, it is sold at a deep discount from its face value and the bondholder receives the full face value of the bond at maturity. This means that the bondholder earns a profit by purchasing the bond at a discount and receiving the full face value at maturity.
Statement 1: A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.
This statement is correct. As mentioned earlier, a zero-coupon bond does not pay any interest to the bondholder. Instead, it is sold at a discounted price, typically below its face value, and the bondholder receives the full face value of the bond at maturity. The difference between the discounted purchase price and the face value represents the profit earned by the bondholder.
Statement 2: These are special types of bonds issued only by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
This statement is incorrect. Zero-coupon bonds can be issued by various entities including governments, corporations, and financial institutions. While it is true that governments may issue zero-coupon bonds, they are not exclusively issued by the central government and are not specifically issued to a particular institution. These bonds can be bought by individual investors, financial institutions, or any other entity interested in investing in fixed-income securities.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statement is statement 1. Zero-coupon bonds do not pay interest but are sold at a discount and redeemed for their full face value at maturity, resulting in a profit for the bondholder. Statement 2 is incorrect as zero-coupon bonds can be issued by various entities and are not exclusively issued by the central government or specifically issued to a particular institution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).1. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS), jointly owned by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund, is an international financial institution.2. It offers banking services, but only to central banks and other foreign organisations.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).
1. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS), jointly owned by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund, is an international financial institution.
2. It offers banking services, but only to central banks and other foreign organisations.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Rahul Choudhury answered |
The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial institution owned by central banks that "fosters international monetary and financial cooperation and serves as a bank for central banks". The BIS carries out its work through its meetings, programmes and through the Basel Process - hosting international groups pursuing global financial stability and facilitating their interaction.
It also provides banking services, but only to central banks and other international organisations. It is based in Basel, Switzerland.
A repurchase or buyback of a share is a decision by a business to buy its own shares from the market. Such a move can contribute to
1. It reduces the number of outstanding shares of the company.
2. It tends to increase the price of remaining shares.
3. It is often undertaken when the company's shares are undervalued.Select the correct answer code:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A repurchase or buyback of a share is a decision by a business to buy its own shares from the market. Such a move can contribute to
1. It reduces the number of outstanding shares of the company.
2. It tends to increase the price of remaining shares.
3. It is often undertaken when the company's shares are undervalued.
1. It reduces the number of outstanding shares of the company.
2. It tends to increase the price of remaining shares.
3. It is often undertaken when the company's shares are undervalued.
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Vikram Kapoor answered |
What is a share buyback?
- A share repurchase or buyback is a decision by a company to purchase its own stock from the market. Such a move reduces the number of outstanding shares of the company and tend to push up their price and is often undertaken when management considers the company's shares undervalued.
- It is also a key way to transfer surplus earnings to shareholders and tends to lead to an increase in share prices.
Consider the following statements regarding AT-1 bonds.1. AT-1 bonds are unsecured, high-risk bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel III norms.2. As per the latest norms, banks can issue these bonds only on electronic platforms, and only institutional investors could subscribe to them.3. As per RBI guidelines, Banks cannot skip paying interest on these bonds even if their capital ratios fall below a certain threshold level.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) 1 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding AT-1 bonds.
1. AT-1 bonds are unsecured, high-risk bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel III norms.
2. As per the latest norms, banks can issue these bonds only on electronic platforms, and only institutional investors could subscribe to them.
3. As per RBI guidelines, Banks cannot skip paying interest on these bonds even if their capital ratios fall below a certain threshold level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 only
|
|
Sanjay Rana answered |
AT-1 bonds are unsecured, perpetual, high-risk bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel III norms. Banks can skip paying interest on these bonds if their capital ratios fall below a certain threshold level.
Market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) tightened its regulations of additional tier-1 bonds or AT-1 bonds and ensured that these risky instruments are less accessible to retail investors.
As per the latest norms, banks can issue these bonds only on an electronic platform, and only institutional investors could subscribe to them. Minimum allotment for these bonds is set at 1 cr
"These instruments have certain unique features which, inter-alia, grant the issuer (i.e. banks, in consultation with RBI) a discretion in terms of writing down the principal/interest, to skip interest payments, to make an early recall etc. without the commensurate right for investors to legal recourse, even if such actions of the issuer might result in a potential loss to investors,"
"The absolute right, given to the RBI, to direct a bank to write down the entire value of its outstanding AT1 instruments/bonds, if it thinks the Bank has passed the Point of Non-Viability (PONV) or requires a public sector capital infusion to remain a going concern.
Which of the following are the functions of Banks Board Bureau (BBB)?1. Improve the governance of Public Sector Banks.2. Advise the government on top-level bank appointments.3. Provide adequate capital to the Public Sector Banks to deal with bad loans.Select the correct answer code:- a) 1 and 3 only
- b) 1 and 2 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are the functions of Banks Board Bureau (BBB)?
1. Improve the governance of Public Sector Banks.
2. Advise the government on top-level bank appointments.
3. Provide adequate capital to the Public Sector Banks to deal with bad loans.
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Pooja Shah answered |
Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body based on the RBI-appointed PJ Nayak Committee's recommendations to improve governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
It was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.
It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.
Its broad agenda is to improve governance at state-owned lenders. Its mandate also involved advising the government on top-level bank appointments and assisting banks with capital-raising plans and strategies to deal with bad loans.
It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues.
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) hears appeals from the orders of1. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India3. Competition Commission of India (CCI)Select the correct answer code:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) hears appeals from the orders of
1. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
3. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Anjali Rao answered |
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a tribunal formed by the Central Government of India under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013. The tribunal is responsible for hearing appeals from National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) orders, starting on 1 June 2016.
The tribunal also hears appeals from orders issued by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC. It also hears appeals from any direction issued, a decision made, or order passed by India's Competition Commission (CCI).
Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy.
1. The responsibility for conducting monetary policy is assumed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the terms of the Monetary Policy System Act Agreement.
2. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability and achieve growth.
3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with Government of India, once in every five years.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy.
1. The responsibility for conducting monetary policy is assumed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the terms of the Monetary Policy System Act Agreement.
2. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability and achieve growth.
3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with Government of India, once in every five years.
1. The responsibility for conducting monetary policy is assumed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the terms of the Monetary Policy System Act Agreement.
2. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability and achieve growth.
3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with Government of India, once in every five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Kavita Shah answered |
- Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the Act.
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
- In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
- The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
Which of the following are regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Housing Finance Companies
2. Merchant Banking Companies
3. Venture Capital Fund Companies Select the correct answer code:- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Housing Finance Companies
2. Merchant Banking Companies
3. Venture Capital Fund Companies
1. Housing Finance Companies
2. Merchant Banking Companies
3. Venture Capital Fund Companies
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
None of the above
|
|
Kabir Verma answered |
Housing Finance Companies are regulated by National Housing Bank, Merchant Banker/Venture Capital Fund Company/stock-exchanges/stock brokers/sub-brokers are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India, and Insurance companies are regulated by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority. Similarly, Chit Fund Companies are regulated by the respective State Governments and Nidhi Companies are regulated by Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India. Companies that do financial business but are regulated by other regulators are given specific exemption by the Reserve Bank from its regulatory requirements for avoiding duality of regulation.
In India, the sectors where FDI is not allowed are:1. Investment in Chit Funds2. Tobacco industry3. All Agricultural or Plantation Activities4. Satellite and its associated activities Select the correct answer code:- a) 1,2 and 3 only
- b) 1 and 2 only
- c) 1, 2 and 4 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In India, the sectors where FDI is not allowed are:
1. Investment in Chit Funds
2. Tobacco industry
3. All Agricultural or Plantation Activities
4. Satellite and its associated activities
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1,2 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1, 2 and 4 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Rahul Mehta answered |
Sectors in the Indian economy where FDI is not allowed are
(i) Atomic Energy Generation
(ii) Cigars, Cigarettes, or any related tobacco industry
(iii) Lotteries (online, private, government, etc.)
(iv) Investment in Chit Funds
(v) Agricultural or Plantation Activities (although there are many exceptions like horticulture, fisheries, tea plantations, Pisciculture, animal husbandry, etc.)
(vi) Housing and Real Estate (except townships, commercial projects, etc.)
(vii) Trading in TDR's (Transferable development rights)
(viii) Any Gambling or Betting businesses
Consider the following statements regarding Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR).
1. The Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) refers to the relationship between the degree of economic expenditure and the corresponding rise in gross domestic product (GDP).
2. The higher the ICOR, the higher the productivity of capital.
3. In the last ten years, the ICOR has seen substantial decline in India.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)1 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR).
1. The Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) refers to the relationship between the degree of economic expenditure and the corresponding rise in gross domestic product (GDP).
2. The higher the ICOR, the higher the productivity of capital.
3. In the last ten years, the ICOR has seen substantial decline in India.
1. The Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) refers to the relationship between the degree of economic expenditure and the corresponding rise in gross domestic product (GDP).
2. The higher the ICOR, the higher the productivity of capital.
3. In the last ten years, the ICOR has seen substantial decline in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
1 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
- The Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR) is the ratio of investment to growth which is equal to the reciprocal of the marginal product of capital. The higher the ICOR, the lower the productivity of capital or the marginal efficiency of capital. The ICOR can be thought of as a measure of the inefficiency with which capital is used.
- In FY19 (2018-19), the implicit incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR) was 4.6. This is relatively high because of deficient capacity utilisation.
- Historically, India's average ICOR during the three-year period from FY17 to FY19 has averaged 4.23.
Consider the following statements.1. Disinvestment involves selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to a public or private entity.2. When the government sells majority shares in a public sector entity that is strategic disinvestment.3. Under strategic disinvestment, the government transfers the ownership and control of a public sector entity to another public entity and the private sector is not involved here.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 3 only
- b) 1 and 2 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Disinvestment involves selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to a public or private entity.
2. When the government sells majority shares in a public sector entity that is strategic disinvestment.
3. Under strategic disinvestment, the government transfers the ownership and control of a public sector entity to another public entity and the private sector is not involved here.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
Rajesh Roy answered |
Explanation:
Disinvestment is the process of selling shares of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The government can choose to sell minority or majority shares. Strategic disinvestment is a process where the government sells its majority shares in a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The process involves transferring ownership and control of the public sector enterprise.
The following statements are given:
1. Disinvestment involves selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to a public or private entity.
This statement is correct. Disinvestment can involve selling minority shares of public sector enterprises to public or private entities. The government can choose to sell shares through the stock market or a strategic sale.
2. When the government sells majority shares in a public sector entity that is strategic disinvestment.
This statement is correct. Strategic disinvestment involves selling the majority shares of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The government can choose to sell shares through the stock market or a strategic sale.
3. Under strategic disinvestment, the government transfers the ownership and control of a public sector entity to another public entity and the private sector is not involved here.
This statement is incorrect. Under strategic disinvestment, the government can transfer ownership and control of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The private sector can be involved in the purchase of shares.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Disinvestment is the process of selling shares of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The government can choose to sell minority or majority shares. Strategic disinvestment is a process where the government sells its majority shares in a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The process involves transferring ownership and control of the public sector enterprise.
The following statements are given:
1. Disinvestment involves selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to a public or private entity.
This statement is correct. Disinvestment can involve selling minority shares of public sector enterprises to public or private entities. The government can choose to sell shares through the stock market or a strategic sale.
2. When the government sells majority shares in a public sector entity that is strategic disinvestment.
This statement is correct. Strategic disinvestment involves selling the majority shares of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The government can choose to sell shares through the stock market or a strategic sale.
3. Under strategic disinvestment, the government transfers the ownership and control of a public sector entity to another public entity and the private sector is not involved here.
This statement is incorrect. Under strategic disinvestment, the government can transfer ownership and control of a public sector enterprise to a private or public entity. The private sector can be involved in the purchase of shares.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Development Bank (ADB).1. Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth.2. The Bank admits the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries.3. The ADB was modelled closely on the New Development Bank, where the Bank's initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(b)1 and 2 only- a) 1 and 3 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
1. Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth.
2. The Bank admits the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries.
3. The ADB was modelled closely on the New Development Bank, where the Bank's initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b)1 and 2 only
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
All of the above
|
Sameer Ghoshal answered |
Answer:
Introduction:
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank that aims to reduce poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth. It plays a crucial role in providing financial and technical assistance to its member countries for the development of infrastructure, energy, education, healthcare, and other sectors. This question tests the knowledge about the objectives, membership, and structure of the ADB.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement to determine its correctness:
Statement 1: Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth.
This statement is correct. The ADB's main objective is to promote sustainable economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve living conditions in its developing member countries in Asia and the Pacific region. It achieves this by providing loans, grants, and technical assistance for various development projects.
Statement 2: The Bank admits the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries.
This statement is incorrect. The ADB primarily consists of regional members, which include countries from Asia and the Pacific region. Non-regional developed countries can participate in the ADB's operations but cannot become members. However, the ADB collaborates with various international organizations, including the United Nations and its agencies, to achieve its objectives.
Statement 3: The ADB was modeled closely on the New Development Bank, where the Bank's initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members.
This statement is incorrect. The ADB was established in 1966, whereas the New Development Bank (also known as the BRICS Development Bank) was established in 2014. The ADB's initial subscribed capital was not equally distributed among the founding members. Instead, it was based on the economic size and contribution of each member country.
Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth. The other statements are incorrect because the ADB does not admit non-regional developed countries like the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), and its initial subscribed capital was not equally distributed among the founding members like the New Development Bank. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 3 only.
Introduction:
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank that aims to reduce poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth. It plays a crucial role in providing financial and technical assistance to its member countries for the development of infrastructure, energy, education, healthcare, and other sectors. This question tests the knowledge about the objectives, membership, and structure of the ADB.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement to determine its correctness:
Statement 1: Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth.
This statement is correct. The ADB's main objective is to promote sustainable economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve living conditions in its developing member countries in Asia and the Pacific region. It achieves this by providing loans, grants, and technical assistance for various development projects.
Statement 2: The Bank admits the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries.
This statement is incorrect. The ADB primarily consists of regional members, which include countries from Asia and the Pacific region. Non-regional developed countries can participate in the ADB's operations but cannot become members. However, the ADB collaborates with various international organizations, including the United Nations and its agencies, to achieve its objectives.
Statement 3: The ADB was modeled closely on the New Development Bank, where the Bank's initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members.
This statement is incorrect. The ADB was established in 1966, whereas the New Development Bank (also known as the BRICS Development Bank) was established in 2014. The ADB's initial subscribed capital was not equally distributed among the founding members. Instead, it was based on the economic size and contribution of each member country.
Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth. The other statements are incorrect because the ADB does not admit non-regional developed countries like the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), and its initial subscribed capital was not equally distributed among the founding members like the New Development Bank. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 3 only.
Singapore's Temasek-like model, sometimes seen in news is related to(a) Restrictive lockdown measures(b) Disinvestment programme(c) Local Governance(d) Primary Health careCorrect answer is 'b'. Can you explain this answer?
Singapore's Temasek-like model, sometimes seen in news is related to
(a) Restrictive lockdown measures
(b) Disinvestment programme
(c) Local Governance
(d) Primary Health care
|
|
Ritika Choudhury answered |
The Economic Survey 2019-20 backed the government's move to aggressively privatise central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) through divestment of government stake, which will have a multiplier effect on improving efficiency and profitability of the divested company while unlocking capital that can be used for building public infrastructure.
The Survey cited the case of Temasek Holdings Company in Singapore, a model that it said can be adopted to maximise government stake in CPSEs successfully.
In the model, the government can transfer its stake in the listed CPSEs to a separate corporate entity that would be managed by an independent board and would be mandated to divest the government stake in these CPSEs over time. "This will lend professionalism and autonomy to the disinvestment programme which, in turn, would improve the economic performance of the CPSEs," the Survey said.
Consider the following statements regarding the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR).1. The London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the international interbank market for short-term loans.2. The European Central Bank manages it (ECB).3. LIBOR will not be published any more after end-2021.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR).
1. The London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the international interbank market for short-term loans.
2. The European Central Bank manages it (ECB).
3. LIBOR will not be published any more after end-2021.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Amit Sharma answered |
The London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the international interbank market for short-term loans.
LIBOR, which stands for London Interbank Offered Rate, serves as a globally accepted key benchmark interest rate that indicates borrowing costs between banks. The rate is calculated and published each day by the Intercontinental Exchange (ICE). Still, due to recent scandals and questions around its validity as a benchmark rate, it is being phased out.
Libor will not be published any more after end-2021, and market participants are strongly encouraged to transition to other risk-free rates.
Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR).
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset generated by the IMF that bears interest.
2. The value of the SDR is not set by IMF, rather it is directly determined by supply and demand in the market.
3. It can be held and used by member countries, private entities or individuals.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR).
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset generated by the IMF that bears interest.
2. The value of the SDR is not set by IMF, rather it is directly determined by supply and demand in the market.
3. It can be held and used by member countries, private entities or individuals.
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset generated by the IMF that bears interest.
2. The value of the SDR is not set by IMF, rather it is directly determined by supply and demand in the market.
3. It can be held and used by member countries, private entities or individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
|
|
Kavita Mehta answered |
- The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries.
- The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, euro, pound sterling and Chinese Renminbi. It is not a currency, nor a claim on the IMF, but is potentially a claim on freely usable currencies of IMF members. The value of the SDR is not directly determined by supply and demand in the market, but is set daily by the IMF on the basis of market exchange rates between the currencies included in the SDR basket.
- It can be held and used by member countries, the IMF, and certain designated official entities called "prescribed holders"—but it cannot be held, for example, by private entities or individuals. Its status as a reserve asset derives from the commitments of members to hold, accept, and honor obligations denominated in SDR. The SDR also serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
Consider the following statements.
1. Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
2. If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
3. The marketed surplus for all the crops covered under MSP is more than 50%.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
2. If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
3. The marketed surplus for all the crops covered under MSP is more than 50%.
1. Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
2. If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
3. The marketed surplus for all the crops covered under MSP is more than 50%.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Arnav Malik answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
This statement is correct. The minimum support price (MSP) is a price set by the government to protect farmers from any sharp fall in crop prices. However, MSPs are generally announced only for major crops such as wheat, rice, maize, and pulses. Commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane, and oilseeds are not covered under the MSP system.
Statement 2: If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
This statement is correct. When the government announces an MSP, it becomes a legally binding price. Private buyers are not allowed to purchase crops from farmers below the MSP. However, this does not mean that private buyers are obligated to buy crops at the MSP. They can choose to buy at a higher price, but not below the MSP.
Statement 3: The marketed surplus for all the crops covered under MSP is more than 50%.
This statement is incorrect. The marketed surplus refers to the quantity of a crop that is sold in the market after meeting the farmer's own consumption needs. While it is difficult to provide an exact percentage, it is generally observed that the marketed surplus for crops covered under MSP is less than 50%. This means that a significant portion of the crop is consumed by the farmers themselves or used for other purposes like seed or animal feed.
Therefore, the correct statements are:
1. Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
2. If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
Statement 1: Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
This statement is correct. The minimum support price (MSP) is a price set by the government to protect farmers from any sharp fall in crop prices. However, MSPs are generally announced only for major crops such as wheat, rice, maize, and pulses. Commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane, and oilseeds are not covered under the MSP system.
Statement 2: If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
This statement is correct. When the government announces an MSP, it becomes a legally binding price. Private buyers are not allowed to purchase crops from farmers below the MSP. However, this does not mean that private buyers are obligated to buy crops at the MSP. They can choose to buy at a higher price, but not below the MSP.
Statement 3: The marketed surplus for all the crops covered under MSP is more than 50%.
This statement is incorrect. The marketed surplus refers to the quantity of a crop that is sold in the market after meeting the farmer's own consumption needs. While it is difficult to provide an exact percentage, it is generally observed that the marketed surplus for crops covered under MSP is less than 50%. This means that a significant portion of the crop is consumed by the farmers themselves or used for other purposes like seed or animal feed.
Therefore, the correct statements are:
1. Commercial crops are not covered under minimum support prices (MSPs).
2. If MSP is legally binding, no crop can be bought by private buyers below the MSP.
Consider the following statements.1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were formed by an act of parliament, with an objective to provide credit and other facilities to small farmers, agricultural labourers, and artisans in rural areas.2. As per RBI guidelines, the RRBs have to provide 90 per cent of their total credit under priority sector lending.3. Co-operative Banks contributed the major share in agricultural and allied credit in India.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 2 only
- c) 1 and 3 only
- d) 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were formed by an act of parliament, with an objective to provide credit and other facilities to small farmers, agricultural labourers, and artisans in rural areas.
2. As per RBI guidelines, the RRBs have to provide 90 per cent of their total credit under priority sector lending.
3. Co-operative Banks contributed the major share in agricultural and allied credit in India.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Deepa Iyer answered |
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were formed under the RRB Act, 1976 with an objective to provide credit and other facilities to small farmers, agricultural labourers, and artisans in rural areas.
As per RBI guidelines, the RRBs have to provide 75 per cent of their total credit under priority sector lending.
RRBs primarily cater to the credit and banking requirements of the agriculture sector and rural areas, focusing on small and marginal farmers, micro and small enterprises, rural artisans and weaker sections of the society.
The actual liabilities of the Union government include which of the following
1. Borrowings by PSUs
2. Loans taken for the recapitalisation of banks
3. Capital expenditures of various Ministries.Select the correct answer code:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The actual liabilities of the Union government include which of the following
1. Borrowings by PSUs
2. Loans taken for the recapitalisation of banks
3. Capital expenditures of various Ministries.
1. Borrowings by PSUs
2. Loans taken for the recapitalisation of banks
3. Capital expenditures of various Ministries.
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
- In addition to the borrowings by PSUs, the actual liabilities of the government would include loans taken for the recapitalisation of banks.
- Capital expenditure creates assets for the government and causes reduction in liabilities for the government.
Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget borrowing.
1. Off-budget loans are loans made under the control of the central government by any public entity.
2. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the country's fiscal deficit within acceptable limits. 3. Off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators and does not have any fiscal implications.
4. Public sector banks can fund off-budget expenses.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2 and 3 only
- b)1, 2 and 4 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget borrowing.
1. Off-budget loans are loans made under the control of the central government by any public entity.
2. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the country's fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
1. Off-budget loans are loans made under the control of the central government by any public entity.
2. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the country's fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
3. Off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators and does not have any fiscal implications.
4. Public sector banks can fund off-budget expenses.
4. Public sector banks can fund off-budget expenses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
1, 2 and 4 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Kavita Shah answered |
- Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution which borrows on the directions of the central government. Such borrowings are used to fulfil the government's expenditure needs.
- But since the liability of the loan is not formally on the Centre, the loan is not included in the national fiscal deficit. This helps keep the country's fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
- Comptroller and Auditor General report of 2019 points out, this route of financing puts major sources of funds outside the control of Parliament. "Such off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators despite fiscal implications," said the report.
- The government can ask an implementing agency to raise the required funds from the market through loans or by issuing bonds. In the Budget presentation for 2020-21, the government paid only half the amount budgeted for the food subsidy bill to the Food Corporation of India. The shortfall was met through a loan from the National Small Savings Fund.
- Public sector banks are also used to fund off-budget expenses. For example, loans from PSU banks were used to make up for the shortfall in the release of fertiliser subsidy.
India's economy is showing decisive signs of a 'V-shaped' recovery in 2021. What does 'V-shaped' recovery mean?- a)Economy quickly rises like a phoenix after a crash and It more than makes up for lost ground.
- b)Economy quickly recoups lost ground and gets back to the normal growth trend.
- c)Economy, after falling, struggles and muddles around a low growth rate for some time, before rising gradually to usual levels.
- d)Growth falls and rises, but falls again before recovering yet again.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
India's economy is showing decisive signs of a 'V-shaped' recovery in 2021. What does 'V-shaped' recovery mean?
a)
Economy quickly rises like a phoenix after a crash and It more than makes up for lost ground.
b)
Economy quickly recoups lost ground and gets back to the normal growth trend.
c)
Economy, after falling, struggles and muddles around a low growth rate for some time, before rising gradually to usual levels.
d)
Growth falls and rises, but falls again before recovering yet again.
|
|
Meera Singh answered |
- The Z-shaped recovery is the most-optimistic scenario in which the economy quickly rises like a phoenix after a crash. It more than makes up for lost ground (think revenge-buying after the lockdowns are lifted) before settling back to the normal trend-line, thus forming a Z-shaped chart.
- In V-shaped recovery the economy quickly recoups lost ground and gets back to the normal growth trend-line.
- A U-shaped recovery is a scenario in which the economy, after falling, struggles and muddles around a low growth rate for some time, before rising gradually to usual levels.
- A W-shaped recovery is a dangerous creature — growth falls and rises, but falls again before recovering yet again, thus forming a W-like chart.
- The L-shaped recovery is the worst-case scenario, in which growth after falling, stagnates at low levels and does not recover for a long, long time.
Consider the following statements regarding Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM)1. Reverse charge is a mechanism under which the goods or services provider is liable to pay the tax instead of the recipient of the goods and services.2. The RCM helps to check tax evasion and expand the tax base of the government.3. It puts pressure on small businesses to voluntarily register on the Goods and Service Tax Network. (GSTN).Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM)
1. Reverse charge is a mechanism under which the goods or services provider is liable to pay the tax instead of the recipient of the goods and services.
2. The RCM helps to check tax evasion and expand the tax base of the government.
3. It puts pressure on small businesses to voluntarily register on the Goods and Service Tax Network. (GSTN).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Kavita Mehta answered |
Reverse charge is a mechanism under which the recipient of the goods or services can pay the tax instead of the goods and services, provider. Under the normal taxation regime, the supplier collects the buyer's tax and deposits the same after adjusting the output tax liability with the input tax credit available. But under reverse charge mechanism (RCM), liability to pay tax shifts from supplier to recipient.
The reverse charge clause is the most powerful check inserted into the regulations by the architects of GST.
RCM intended to check tax evasion and expand the tax base. The first few months of GST rollout witnessed a sharp expansion in the indirect taxpayer base due to the reverse charge feature's presence.
The other impact of RCM was that smaller vendor who wished to supply to larger clients, voluntarily registered on the GST NETWORK. They were afraid that if unregistered, larger clients might spurn them.
Consider the following statements.1. From the 11th finance commission to the 14th finance commission, the share of net proceeds recommended to be devolved to states have increased each time.2. The gap between states' share in gross tax revenue and states' share in a divisible pool has widened due to increase in cesses and surcharges.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. From the 11th finance commission to the 14th finance commission, the share of net proceeds recommended to be devolved to states have increased each time.
2. The gap between states' share in gross tax revenue and states' share in a divisible pool has widened due to increase in cesses and surcharges.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
From t4he 11th finance commission to the 14th, the share of net proceeds recommended being devolved to states increased each time: from 29.5% to 30.5% to 32% to 42%. In Article 279 of the Constitution, net proceeds are defined as gross tax revenue of the centreless surcharges and cesses, and cost of collection.
Consider the following statements regarding the Coal Sector in India.1. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 permits the Government to auction coal mines to the private sector for both captive and Commercial purposes.2. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 extends to the whole of India.3. India allows 100% FDI in the coal sector.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) 3 only
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Coal Sector in India.
1. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 permits the Government to auction coal mines to the private sector for both captive and Commercial purposes.
2. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 extends to the whole of India.
3. India allows 100% FDI in the coal sector.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
None of the above
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The objective of Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 is to empower the Government to allocate the coal mines based on competitive bidding to ensure continuity in coal mining operations and promote optimum utilisation of coal resources.
The Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015, permits the Government to auction coal mines to the private sector for captive and commercial purposes. The Government has auctioned 24 coal blocks to private companies till March 2019 and will be further auctioning coal blocks for commercial mining by both Indian and foreign companies.
This act extends to the whole of India.
Consider the following statements.1. India is the leading exporter of Basmati Rice to the global market.2. In India, Basmati rice is mainly grown in South and Central India.3. Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has registered Basmati Rice as a product with Geographical Indication (GI).Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. India is the leading exporter of Basmati Rice to the global market.
2. In India, Basmati rice is mainly grown in South and Central India.
3. Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has registered Basmati Rice as a product with Geographical Indication (GI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
India is the leading exporter of Basmati Rice to the global market. India is also the largest producer of basmati rice in the world.
Major Export Destinations (2019-20): Iran, Saudi Arab, Iraq, UAE, Kuwait.
Basmati Rice production areas in India are in the states of J & K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttarakhand and western Uttar Pradesh.
On February 15, 2016, the Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), an autonomous organisation under the Department of Commerce in India, registered Basmati Rice as a product with Geographical Indication (GI).
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty.1. An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.2. In India, Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry conducts anti-dumping investigations.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty.
1. An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.
2. In India, Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry conducts anti-dumping investigations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on imports that it believes are priced below fair market value. Dumping is a process wherein a company exports a product at a significantly lower price than the price it normally charges in its home (or its domestic) market.
Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) conducts anti-dumping investigations, under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and the rules made thereunder, based on a duly substantiated application filed by the domestic industry alleging dumping of goods into the country causing injury to the domestic industry. Anti-dumping measures' basic intent is to eliminate injury caused to the domestic industry by the unfair trade practice of dumping and to create a level playing field for the domestic industry.
Which of the following sectors are eligible for Priority Sector Lending to ensure adequate institutional credit?1. Export Credit2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises3. Social Infrastructure4. Renewable EnergySelect the correct answer code:- a) 1, 2 and 4 only
- b) 1, 2 and 3 only
- c) 2, 3 and 4 only
- d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following sectors are eligible for Priority Sector Lending to ensure adequate institutional credit?
1. Export Credit
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Social Infrastructure
4. Renewable Energy
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2 and 4 only
b)
1, 2 and 3 only
c)
2, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
|
|
Athira Gupta answered |
Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mandatory lending requirement set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for banks, aimed at ensuring adequate institutional credit to certain sectors of the economy. This helps in promoting inclusive growth and achieving the socio-economic objectives of the government.
Sectors Eligible for PSL
The sectors eligible for Priority Sector Lending include:
1. Export Credit: Export credit refers to loans provided to exporters for financing their working capital requirements, pre-shipment and post-shipment financing, and export-related activities. By promoting export credit, the government aims to boost the country's exports and earn foreign exchange.
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): MSMEs play a crucial role in the Indian economy, contributing significantly to employment generation and economic development. Priority Sector Lending includes lending to MSMEs for both manufacturing and service sectors. This enables MSMEs to access affordable credit and meet their working capital and investment needs.
3. Social Infrastructure: Social infrastructure includes sectors such as education, healthcare, and affordable housing. PSL extends credit to entities involved in the development of social infrastructure projects, such as schools, hospitals, and low-cost housing projects. This helps in addressing the infrastructure gaps in these sectors and promoting social welfare.
4. Renewable Energy: PSL also includes lending to the renewable energy sector, which encompasses projects related to solar, wind, hydro, and biomass energy. By providing credit to renewable energy projects, the government aims to promote sustainable development, reduce dependence on fossil fuels, and mitigate climate change.
Importance of PSL
Priority Sector Lending is crucial for the inclusive and sustainable development of the economy. It helps in addressing the credit needs of underprivileged sections of society and sectors that have traditionally been neglected by the formal banking sector. PSL ensures that adequate credit is available to these sectors at affordable rates, enabling them to grow, generate employment, and contribute to economic growth.
In conclusion, all the sectors mentioned - Export Credit, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Social Infrastructure, and Renewable Energy - are eligible for Priority Sector Lending. This lending requirement by the RBI aims to ensure that these sectors have access to institutional credit and contribute to the overall development of the economy.
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mandatory lending requirement set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for banks, aimed at ensuring adequate institutional credit to certain sectors of the economy. This helps in promoting inclusive growth and achieving the socio-economic objectives of the government.
Sectors Eligible for PSL
The sectors eligible for Priority Sector Lending include:
1. Export Credit: Export credit refers to loans provided to exporters for financing their working capital requirements, pre-shipment and post-shipment financing, and export-related activities. By promoting export credit, the government aims to boost the country's exports and earn foreign exchange.
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): MSMEs play a crucial role in the Indian economy, contributing significantly to employment generation and economic development. Priority Sector Lending includes lending to MSMEs for both manufacturing and service sectors. This enables MSMEs to access affordable credit and meet their working capital and investment needs.
3. Social Infrastructure: Social infrastructure includes sectors such as education, healthcare, and affordable housing. PSL extends credit to entities involved in the development of social infrastructure projects, such as schools, hospitals, and low-cost housing projects. This helps in addressing the infrastructure gaps in these sectors and promoting social welfare.
4. Renewable Energy: PSL also includes lending to the renewable energy sector, which encompasses projects related to solar, wind, hydro, and biomass energy. By providing credit to renewable energy projects, the government aims to promote sustainable development, reduce dependence on fossil fuels, and mitigate climate change.
Importance of PSL
Priority Sector Lending is crucial for the inclusive and sustainable development of the economy. It helps in addressing the credit needs of underprivileged sections of society and sectors that have traditionally been neglected by the formal banking sector. PSL ensures that adequate credit is available to these sectors at affordable rates, enabling them to grow, generate employment, and contribute to economic growth.
In conclusion, all the sectors mentioned - Export Credit, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Social Infrastructure, and Renewable Energy - are eligible for Priority Sector Lending. This lending requirement by the RBI aims to ensure that these sectors have access to institutional credit and contribute to the overall development of the economy.
India's average tariff increased to 14.3% in FY21 from 13% in FY15 with the country's policymakers frequently using trade policy measures to- a)Encourage domestic production
- b)Curb inflation
- c)Both a and b
- d)Neither a nor b
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
India's average tariff increased to 14.3% in FY21 from 13% in FY15 with the country's policymakers frequently using trade policy measures to
a)
Encourage domestic production
b)
Curb inflation
c)
Both a and b
d)
Neither a nor b
|
|
Amit Sharma answered |
India's average tariff increased to 14.3% in FY21 from 13% in FY15 with the country's policymakers frequently using trade policy measures to encourage domestic production and curb inflation, the World Trade Organization (WTO) said in its latest Trade Policy Review for Asia's third-largest economy.
Consider the following statements.
1. RBI primarily factors in retail inflation while making its bi-monthly monetary policy.
2. A broad-based domestic and global economic recovery can lead to rise in inflation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2 S
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. RBI primarily factors in retail inflation while making its bi-monthly monetary policy.
2. A broad-based domestic and global economic recovery can lead to rise in inflation.
1. RBI primarily factors in retail inflation while making its bi-monthly monetary policy.
2. A broad-based domestic and global economic recovery can lead to rise in inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2 S
|
|
Priya Menon answered |
RBI primarily factors in retail inflation while making its bi-monthly monetary policy.
A broad-based domestic and global economic recovery should improve aggregate demand, posing an upside risk to inflation. On the other hand, favorable base effect, appreciating rupee and any risk of second or third wave of covid led slowdown, will be a tailwind for CPI inflation.
A broad-based domestic and global economic recovery should improve aggregate demand, posing an upside risk to inflation. On the other hand, favorable base effect, appreciating rupee and any risk of second or third wave of covid led slowdown, will be a tailwind for CPI inflation.
Consider the following statements regarding FDI in India in 2019-20.1. Singapore remained the top source of FDI followed by Mauritius.2. Services sector attracted maximum foreign inflows during 2019-20.3. In India, Greenfield investment is more dominant than in the world.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) 2 only
- d) 1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding FDI in India in 2019-20.
1. Singapore remained the top source of FDI followed by Mauritius.
2. Services sector attracted maximum foreign inflows during 2019-20.
3. In India, Greenfield investment is more dominant than in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1 and 3 only
|
|
Kavita Mehta answered |
Sectors which attracted maximum foreign inflows during 2019-20 include services ($7.85 billion), computer software and hardware ($7.67 billion), telecommunications ($4.44 billion), trading ($4.57 billion), automobile ($2.82 billion), construction ($2 billion), and chemicals ($one billion), the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) data showed.
Foreign direct investment into India rose 13% to $49.97 billion in FY20 from $44.36 billion a year earlier.
Singapore remained the top source of FDI, accounting for $14.67 billion, followed by Mauritius at $8.24 billion.
Maharashtra garnered the highest share of FDI at 30% with investments clocking $7.26 billion. Karnataka and Delhi followed with 18% and 17% share, respectively.
In India, Brownfield investment is more dominant than in the world. If investments tend to be in the form of mergers and acquisitions, it is known as brownfield investment.
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Indian Economy for State PSC Exams
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