All Exams >
UPSC >
Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021 >
All Questions
All questions of March 2021 for UPSC CSE Exam
The Devendrakula Vellalar community, recently seen in the news, belongs to which of the states?- a)Tamil Nadu
- b)Karnataka
- c)Andhra Pradesh
- d)Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The Devendrakula Vellalar community, recently seen in the news, belongs to which of the states?
a)
Tamil Nadu
b)
Karnataka
c)
Andhra Pradesh
d)
Maharashtra
|
Rhea Reddy answered |
In News: Recently, Lok Sabha passed the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021.
Option A is correct. The Devendrakula Vellalar community is from Tamil Nadu. In ancient times, people from this community were warriors and agriculturists. They find mention in Tamil Sangam literature. They are also called Pallars in Tamil Nadu and are listed under the Scheduled Caste category.
Option A is correct. The Devendrakula Vellalar community is from Tamil Nadu. In ancient times, people from this community were warriors and agriculturists. They find mention in Tamil Sangam literature. They are also called Pallars in Tamil Nadu and are listed under the Scheduled Caste category.
With reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), consider the following statements:1. It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting developing nations.
2. It is the outcome of the 1960 Riyad Conference.
3. Ecuador has recently withdrawn from the organisation.
4. OPEC+ countries include non-OPEC oil-producing countries.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1, 2 and 3 only
- b)2, 3 and 4 only
- c)1, 3 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting developing nations.
2. It is the outcome of the 1960 Riyad Conference.
3. Ecuador has recently withdrawn from the organisation.
4. OPEC+ countries include non-OPEC oil-producing countries.
2. It is the outcome of the 1960 Riyad Conference.
3. Ecuador has recently withdrawn from the organisation.
4. OPEC+ countries include non-OPEC oil-producing countries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
2, 3 and 4 only
c)
1, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
In News: OPEC+ has agreed not to increase supply in April as they await a more substantial recovery in demand amid the COVID-19 pandemic. Crude prices rose after the announcement and are up 33% this year.
Statement 1 is correct: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent group consisting of 14 of the world’s major oil-exporting nations.
Statement 2 is not correct: OPEC was founded in 1960 Baghdad Conference with Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela as founding members to coordinate the petroleum policies of its members and to provide member states with technical and economic aid.
Statement 3 is correct: Ecuador has withdrawn its membership of OPEC. In January 2019, Qatar withdrew its membership from the organisation.
Statement 4 is correct: The OPEC plus countries are the non-OPEC countries which export crude oil. OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.
Statement 1 is correct: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent group consisting of 14 of the world’s major oil-exporting nations.
Statement 2 is not correct: OPEC was founded in 1960 Baghdad Conference with Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela as founding members to coordinate the petroleum policies of its members and to provide member states with technical and economic aid.
Statement 3 is correct: Ecuador has withdrawn its membership of OPEC. In January 2019, Qatar withdrew its membership from the organisation.
Statement 4 is correct: The OPEC plus countries are the non-OPEC countries which export crude oil. OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.
With reference to the National Nutrition Mission, which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?1. The main focus of the mission is to improve the nutritional outcomes of children and adolescents only.
2. It aims at removing hidden hunger from the country by 2025.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the National Nutrition Mission, which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
1. The main focus of the mission is to improve the nutritional outcomes of children and adolescents only.
2. It aims at removing hidden hunger from the country by 2025.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
2. It aims at removing hidden hunger from the country by 2025.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Asha Khanna answered |
Understanding the National Nutrition Mission
The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) is a significant initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at combating malnutrition and improving nutritional standards across the nation.
Analysis of the Statements
1. Focus on Children and Adolescents Only
- The statement is incorrect.
- The NNM targets not only children and adolescents but also pregnant and lactating women, making it a comprehensive initiative to address malnutrition across various demographics.
2. Aiming to Remove Hidden Hunger by 2025
- This statement is correct.
- The mission indeed focuses on eradicating hidden hunger, which refers to micronutrient deficiencies, by the year 2025.
3. Implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
- This statement is correct.
- The NNM is implemented by the MWCD, which oversees various programs aimed at improving the nutritional status of women and children.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, the statements that are not correct are:
- Statement 1 is not correct as the mission encompasses a broader target group.
Thus, the correct answer is option A: 1 and 2 only. This reflects the mission's inclusive nature and its ambitious goals to combat malnutrition in India comprehensively.
The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) is a significant initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at combating malnutrition and improving nutritional standards across the nation.
Analysis of the Statements
1. Focus on Children and Adolescents Only
- The statement is incorrect.
- The NNM targets not only children and adolescents but also pregnant and lactating women, making it a comprehensive initiative to address malnutrition across various demographics.
2. Aiming to Remove Hidden Hunger by 2025
- This statement is correct.
- The mission indeed focuses on eradicating hidden hunger, which refers to micronutrient deficiencies, by the year 2025.
3. Implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
- This statement is correct.
- The NNM is implemented by the MWCD, which oversees various programs aimed at improving the nutritional status of women and children.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, the statements that are not correct are:
- Statement 1 is not correct as the mission encompasses a broader target group.
Thus, the correct answer is option A: 1 and 2 only. This reflects the mission's inclusive nature and its ambitious goals to combat malnutrition in India comprehensively.
With reference to the Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology, consider the following statements:1. It is based on the Hydrogen Fuel Cell, thus AIP submarines do not require to go to the surface for charging.
2. It has been developed by the Department of Science and Technology.Which of the following statements is/are not correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is based on the Hydrogen Fuel Cell, thus AIP submarines do not require to go to the surface for charging.
2. It has been developed by the Department of Science and Technology.
2. It has been developed by the Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Akash Majumdar answered |
Introduction:
The Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology is a system used in submarines that allows them to operate without the need to surface frequently for charging their batteries. It is an important advancement in submarine technology that enhances their stealth capabilities and operational endurance.
Statement 1: It is based on the Hydrogen Fuel Cell, thus AIP submarines do not require to go to the surface for charging.
Explanation:
- AIP technology is indeed based on the use of a fuel cell, but it is not exclusively limited to hydrogen fuel cells. There are different types of AIP systems, including those based on Stirling engines and other fuel cell technologies.
- AIP systems work by providing an alternative power source to the traditional diesel-electric propulsion system used in submarines. This allows submarines to remain submerged for longer periods of time without the need to surface for charging their batteries.
- While hydrogen fuel cells are one of the possible technologies used in AIP systems, they are not the only option. Other technologies, such as the Stirling engine, can also be used to generate power for AIP submarines.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as it wrongly assumes that AIP technology is exclusively based on hydrogen fuel cells.
Statement 2: It has been developed by the Department of Science and Technology.
Explanation:
- The Department of Science and Technology (DST) is a government agency in India responsible for promoting scientific research and technological development in the country.
- While the DST may have supported research and development in the field of AIP technology, it is not solely responsible for its development.
- AIP technology has been developed by various organizations and companies around the world, including defense contractors and research institutions.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect as it wrongly assumes that the DST is the sole developer of AIP technology.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. AIP technology is not exclusively based on hydrogen fuel cells, and it has not been developed solely by the Department of Science and Technology. It is important to have accurate information about technological advancements to understand their significance and impact.
The Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology is a system used in submarines that allows them to operate without the need to surface frequently for charging their batteries. It is an important advancement in submarine technology that enhances their stealth capabilities and operational endurance.
Statement 1: It is based on the Hydrogen Fuel Cell, thus AIP submarines do not require to go to the surface for charging.
Explanation:
- AIP technology is indeed based on the use of a fuel cell, but it is not exclusively limited to hydrogen fuel cells. There are different types of AIP systems, including those based on Stirling engines and other fuel cell technologies.
- AIP systems work by providing an alternative power source to the traditional diesel-electric propulsion system used in submarines. This allows submarines to remain submerged for longer periods of time without the need to surface for charging their batteries.
- While hydrogen fuel cells are one of the possible technologies used in AIP systems, they are not the only option. Other technologies, such as the Stirling engine, can also be used to generate power for AIP submarines.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as it wrongly assumes that AIP technology is exclusively based on hydrogen fuel cells.
Statement 2: It has been developed by the Department of Science and Technology.
Explanation:
- The Department of Science and Technology (DST) is a government agency in India responsible for promoting scientific research and technological development in the country.
- While the DST may have supported research and development in the field of AIP technology, it is not solely responsible for its development.
- AIP technology has been developed by various organizations and companies around the world, including defense contractors and research institutions.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect as it wrongly assumes that the DST is the sole developer of AIP technology.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. AIP technology is not exclusively based on hydrogen fuel cells, and it has not been developed solely by the Department of Science and Technology. It is important to have accurate information about technological advancements to understand their significance and impact.
Hareli is the festival of which of the following states?- a)Uttar Pradesh
- b)Chhattisgarh
- c)Himachal Pradesh
- d)Assam
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Hareli is the festival of which of the following states?
a)
Uttar Pradesh
b)
Chhattisgarh
c)
Himachal Pradesh
d)
Assam
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
Hareli is an agrarian festival of Chhattisgarh. It is observed in Shravan month. Farmers celebrate this festival by worshipping farm equipment and livestock. Walking on bamboo known as Gedi is held during the period and children also participate in the gedi race.
This Tiger Reserve lies in western UP, south of the Indo-Nepal Border while River Sharada and Khakra mark the southern boundary. It was declared as the 45th Tiger Reserve in 2008. It was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award for doubling tiger population before stipulated time. Which Tiger Reserve is being referred to in the above description?- a)Raja ji Tiger Reserve
- b)Pilibhit Tiger Reserve
- c)Valmiki Tiger Reserve
- d)Buxa Tiger Reserve
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
This Tiger Reserve lies in western UP, south of the Indo-Nepal Border while River Sharada and Khakra mark the southern boundary. It was declared as the 45th Tiger Reserve in 2008. It was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award for doubling tiger population before stipulated time. Which Tiger Reserve is being referred to in the above description?
a)
Raja ji Tiger Reserve
b)
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve
c)
Valmiki Tiger Reserve
d)
Buxa Tiger Reserve
|
|
Kalyan Verma answered |
Tiger Reserve in Western UP
The Tiger Reserve being referred to in the above description is the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve.
Location
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is located in western Uttar Pradesh, south of the Indo-Nepal border. It is situated along the banks of the River Sharada and Khakra, which mark its southern boundary.
Declaration as Tiger Reserve
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve was declared as the 45th Tiger Reserve in 2008. This designation was given to protect and conserve the population of tigers and their habitat in the region.
Achievement of Tx2, 2020 Award
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award. This award is given to tiger reserves that successfully double their tiger population within a stipulated time frame. The award is a recognition of the conservation efforts and effective management practices implemented in the reserve.
Significance of the Award
The Tx2, 2020 award holds great significance as it highlights the success of Pilibhit Tiger Reserve in tiger conservation. It demonstrates the effectiveness of the conservation strategies and initiatives implemented in the reserve, resulting in the significant increase in the tiger population.
Conservation Efforts
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve has implemented various conservation measures to protect and conserve the tiger population and their habitat. Some of the key initiatives include:
- Strengthening anti-poaching efforts to prevent illegal hunting and trade of tigers and their body parts.
- Enhancing habitat management and restoration to provide suitable conditions for tigers to thrive.
- Implementing community-based conservation programs to involve local communities in tiger conservation and reduce human-wildlife conflicts.
- Conducting scientific research and monitoring to gather data on tiger population and behavior, which helps in formulating effective conservation strategies.
Conclusion
The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve in western Uttar Pradesh is the Tiger Reserve being referred to in the above description. It was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award for successfully doubling the tiger population within the stipulated time frame. This recognition highlights the successful conservation efforts and management practices implemented in the reserve.
The Tiger Reserve being referred to in the above description is the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve.
Location
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is located in western Uttar Pradesh, south of the Indo-Nepal border. It is situated along the banks of the River Sharada and Khakra, which mark its southern boundary.
Declaration as Tiger Reserve
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve was declared as the 45th Tiger Reserve in 2008. This designation was given to protect and conserve the population of tigers and their habitat in the region.
Achievement of Tx2, 2020 Award
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award. This award is given to tiger reserves that successfully double their tiger population within a stipulated time frame. The award is a recognition of the conservation efforts and effective management practices implemented in the reserve.
Significance of the Award
The Tx2, 2020 award holds great significance as it highlights the success of Pilibhit Tiger Reserve in tiger conservation. It demonstrates the effectiveness of the conservation strategies and initiatives implemented in the reserve, resulting in the significant increase in the tiger population.
Conservation Efforts
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve has implemented various conservation measures to protect and conserve the tiger population and their habitat. Some of the key initiatives include:
- Strengthening anti-poaching efforts to prevent illegal hunting and trade of tigers and their body parts.
- Enhancing habitat management and restoration to provide suitable conditions for tigers to thrive.
- Implementing community-based conservation programs to involve local communities in tiger conservation and reduce human-wildlife conflicts.
- Conducting scientific research and monitoring to gather data on tiger population and behavior, which helps in formulating effective conservation strategies.
Conclusion
The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve in western Uttar Pradesh is the Tiger Reserve being referred to in the above description. It was awarded the first Tx2, 2020 award for successfully doubling the tiger population within the stipulated time frame. This recognition highlights the successful conservation efforts and management practices implemented in the reserve.
Black-browed Babbler, recently seen in news, is a species of?- a)Frog
- b)Rattlesnake
- c)Primates
- d)Bird
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Black-browed Babbler, recently seen in news, is a species of?
a)
Frog
b)
Rattlesnake
c)
Primates
d)
Bird
|
Wizius Careers answered |
In News: Black-browed babbler has been rediscovered in Borneo Island of Indonesia after 170 years.
Option D is correct. It is a bird endemic to Borneo. IUCN keeps it in the Data deficient category. It is a small brown-grey songbird with a distinctive broad, black eye-stripe running all the way around its head. Its Scientific Name is Malacocincla perspicillata. It’s prime habitat is Subtropical or Tropical moist lowland forests, at altitudes of 200-1170 m.
Option D is correct. It is a bird endemic to Borneo. IUCN keeps it in the Data deficient category. It is a small brown-grey songbird with a distinctive broad, black eye-stripe running all the way around its head. Its Scientific Name is Malacocincla perspicillata. It’s prime habitat is Subtropical or Tropical moist lowland forests, at altitudes of 200-1170 m.
Consider the following statements regarding Malaria Free Status:1. El-Salvador became the first nation to get this status from Central America.
2. Malaria Free Status is granted when no cases of malaria are reported for 5 years.
3. India was awarded this status in 2017.Which of the above statements are not correct?- a)1 and 2
- b)2 and 3
- c)1 and 3
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Malaria Free Status:
1. El-Salvador became the first nation to get this status from Central America.
2. Malaria Free Status is granted when no cases of malaria are reported for 5 years.
3. India was awarded this status in 2017.
2. Malaria Free Status is granted when no cases of malaria are reported for 5 years.
3. India was awarded this status in 2017.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
1 and 3
d)
All of the above
|
|
Wizius Careers answered |
In News: El Salvador has officially been declared malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) after no reports of new indigenous cases of the disease since 2017.
Statement 1 is correct. The country is the first in Central America to achieve the WHO’s malaria-free certification status and third in the Americas overall after Argentina in 2019 and Paraguay in 2018.
Statement 2 is not correct. It is a WHO certification for which countries can apply for when there have been no local cases for three consecutive years.
Statement 3 is not correct. Globally, 38 countries and territories have achieved malaria-free status. India is yet to attain Malaria free status.
Statement 1 is correct. The country is the first in Central America to achieve the WHO’s malaria-free certification status and third in the Americas overall after Argentina in 2019 and Paraguay in 2018.
Statement 2 is not correct. It is a WHO certification for which countries can apply for when there have been no local cases for three consecutive years.
Statement 3 is not correct. Globally, 38 countries and territories have achieved malaria-free status. India is yet to attain Malaria free status.
With reference to “Operation Green”, consider the following statements:1. It seeks to stabilize the supply of Onion, Wheat and Rice in India.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to “Operation Green”, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to stabilize the supply of Onion, Wheat and Rice in India.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Zara Khan answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: It is a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce. It aims to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPO), Agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management of agri-produce. It focuses on organized marketing of Tomatoes, Onions and Potatoes (TOP vegetables) by connecting farmers with consumers.
Statement 2 is not correct: Operation Green was originally launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
Statement 2 is not correct: Operation Green was originally launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
The Food Waste Index Report, recently seen in the news, is released by?- a)Food and Agriculture Organization
- b)United Nations Environment Programme
- c)International Fund for Agricultural Development
- d)United Nations Development Programme
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Food Waste Index Report, recently seen in the news, is released by?
a)
Food and Agriculture Organization
b)
United Nations Environment Programme
c)
International Fund for Agricultural Development
d)
United Nations Development Programme
|
Anaya Patel answered |
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) releases the Food Waste Index Report. The Food Waste Index presents the most comprehensive food waste data collection, analysis and modelling to date, generating a new estimate of global food waste. It seeks to support efforts to halve food waste by 2030.
With reference to Helium, consider the following statements:1. It is the lightest element on the Earth.
2. It is the only element that cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Helium, consider the following statements:
1. It is the lightest element on the Earth.
2. It is the only element that cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
2. It is the only element that cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Raksha Khanna answered |
Statement 1: Helium is the lightest element on Earth.
This statement is incorrect. While helium is indeed a very light element, it is not the lightest element on Earth. Hydrogen is actually the lightest element, with a lower atomic mass than helium. Hydrogen has an atomic mass of 1, while helium has an atomic mass of 4.
Statement 2: Helium is the only element that cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
This statement is correct. Helium is known for its extremely low boiling point, which is close to absolute zero (-268.93 degrees Celsius or -452 degrees Fahrenheit). At this temperature, helium exists in a liquid state. However, cooling helium further does not result in its solidification at normal atmospheric pressure. Instead, it undergoes a phase transition known as superfluidity, where it exhibits unique properties such as zero viscosity and the ability to flow up and over the walls of containers. To solidify helium, it requires extremely high pressures, around 25 atmospheres, along with temperatures close to absolute zero.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as hydrogen is the lightest element on Earth, not helium. Statement 2 is correct as helium cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
This statement is incorrect. While helium is indeed a very light element, it is not the lightest element on Earth. Hydrogen is actually the lightest element, with a lower atomic mass than helium. Hydrogen has an atomic mass of 1, while helium has an atomic mass of 4.
Statement 2: Helium is the only element that cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
This statement is correct. Helium is known for its extremely low boiling point, which is close to absolute zero (-268.93 degrees Celsius or -452 degrees Fahrenheit). At this temperature, helium exists in a liquid state. However, cooling helium further does not result in its solidification at normal atmospheric pressure. Instead, it undergoes a phase transition known as superfluidity, where it exhibits unique properties such as zero viscosity and the ability to flow up and over the walls of containers. To solidify helium, it requires extremely high pressures, around 25 atmospheres, along with temperatures close to absolute zero.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as hydrogen is the lightest element on Earth, not helium. Statement 2 is correct as helium cannot be solidified by sufficient cooling at normal atmospheric pressure.
With reference to Amazonia-1 Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. It is an earth observation satellite which will monitor deforestation in North American Countries
2. It was launched by PSLV-C51 along with 18 co-passenger satellites.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Amazonia-1 Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an earth observation satellite which will monitor deforestation in North American Countries
2. It was launched by PSLV-C51 along with 18 co-passenger satellites.
2. It was launched by PSLV-C51 along with 18 co-passenger satellites.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Statement 1 is not correct
- It is a 637-kg optical earth observation satellite of the National Institute for Space Research.
- It is powered by lithium-ion batteries and two solar arrays. It has an 850km swath and 60m resolution.
- It will offer remote sensing data to users for monitoring deforestation in the Amazon region of Brazil including the analysis of diversified agriculture in the South American country.
Statement 2 is correct
- India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C51 successfully launched Amazonia-1 along with 18 copassenger satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
- PSLV-C51 is the 53rd flight of PSLV and the 3rd flight of PSLV in 'DL' configuration (with 2 strap-on motors).
Which of the following Tiger Reserve falls under the Ken-Betwa interlinking Project?- a)Kanha Tiger Reserve
- b)Pench Tiger Reserve
- c)Panna Tiger Reserve
- d)Satpura Tiger Reserve
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following Tiger Reserve falls under the Ken-Betwa interlinking Project?
a)
Kanha Tiger Reserve
b)
Pench Tiger Reserve
c)
Panna Tiger Reserve
d)
Satpura Tiger Reserve
|
|
Sanchita Bose answered |
The correct answer is option 'C' - Panna Tiger Reserve.
Explanation:
The Ken-Betwa interlinking project is a major river interlinking project in India. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken River in Madhya Pradesh to the Betwa River in Uttar Pradesh, with the primary objective of meeting the water needs of the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.
The project involves the construction of a dam on the Ken River, which will create a reservoir called the Daudhan Dam. This reservoir will provide water to the Betwa River through a canal system, thus ensuring water availability in the Betwa River basin.
Panna Tiger Reserve, located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh, falls under the area where the Ken-Betwa interlinking project is being implemented. This tiger reserve is spread across an area of approximately 542.67 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity, including a significant tiger population.
The implementation of the Ken-Betwa interlinking project in the vicinity of Panna Tiger Reserve raises concerns about the potential impact on the wildlife and ecosystem of the reserve. The construction of the dam and the canal system may lead to habitat fragmentation, disturbance to wildlife, and changes in the water flow dynamics of the Ken River.
To mitigate these concerns, the project authorities are required to undertake environmental impact assessments and implement suitable measures to minimize the negative impacts on the tiger reserve. These measures may include the creation of wildlife corridors, relocation of villages, and proper management of the water flow to ensure the sustenance of the ecosystem.
Overall, the Ken-Betwa interlinking project is a significant infrastructure undertaking aimed at improving water availability in the Bundelkhand region. However, it also poses challenges in terms of balancing development and conservation, particularly in the context of protected areas like the Panna Tiger Reserve.
Explanation:
The Ken-Betwa interlinking project is a major river interlinking project in India. It aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken River in Madhya Pradesh to the Betwa River in Uttar Pradesh, with the primary objective of meeting the water needs of the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.
The project involves the construction of a dam on the Ken River, which will create a reservoir called the Daudhan Dam. This reservoir will provide water to the Betwa River through a canal system, thus ensuring water availability in the Betwa River basin.
Panna Tiger Reserve, located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh, falls under the area where the Ken-Betwa interlinking project is being implemented. This tiger reserve is spread across an area of approximately 542.67 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity, including a significant tiger population.
The implementation of the Ken-Betwa interlinking project in the vicinity of Panna Tiger Reserve raises concerns about the potential impact on the wildlife and ecosystem of the reserve. The construction of the dam and the canal system may lead to habitat fragmentation, disturbance to wildlife, and changes in the water flow dynamics of the Ken River.
To mitigate these concerns, the project authorities are required to undertake environmental impact assessments and implement suitable measures to minimize the negative impacts on the tiger reserve. These measures may include the creation of wildlife corridors, relocation of villages, and proper management of the water flow to ensure the sustenance of the ecosystem.
Overall, the Ken-Betwa interlinking project is a significant infrastructure undertaking aimed at improving water availability in the Bundelkhand region. However, it also poses challenges in terms of balancing development and conservation, particularly in the context of protected areas like the Panna Tiger Reserve.
‘AXIOMATIC ASYMPTOTE’, recently seen in news regarding Digital Security is related to- a)Quantum Computing
- b)Edge Computing
- c)End to End Encryption
- d)Domain Spoofing
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
‘AXIOMATIC ASYMPTOTE’, recently seen in news regarding Digital Security is related to
a)
Quantum Computing
b)
Edge Computing
c)
End to End Encryption
d)
Domain Spoofing
|
Nikita Singh answered |
In News: Red Echo (a trojan allegedly operated by Chinese firms like APT41, Barium, Winnti, Wicked Panda, and Wicked Spider) had targeted 10 vital nodes in India’s power distribution system and two seaports.
Option D is Correct. The US firm, Recorded Future, detected this malware attack by tracking AXIOMATIC ASYMPTOTE servers being contacted by IP addresses linked to critical Indian systems. Domains spoofing was observed. Eg. ‘ntpc-co[.]com’ domain spoofed the original ntpc[.]co[.]in. AXIOMATICASYMPTOTE servers act as command and control centres for a malware known as ShadowPad.
Option D is Correct. The US firm, Recorded Future, detected this malware attack by tracking AXIOMATIC ASYMPTOTE servers being contacted by IP addresses linked to critical Indian systems. Domains spoofing was observed. Eg. ‘ntpc-co[.]com’ domain spoofed the original ntpc[.]co[.]in. AXIOMATICASYMPTOTE servers act as command and control centres for a malware known as ShadowPad.
With reference to the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:1. It is a statutory body formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
2. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals within 1 year of the filing of the case.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
2. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals within 1 year of the filing of the case.
2. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals within 1 year of the filing of the case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Pritam Shah answered |
National Green Tribunal
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized judicial body that was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act. It has the power to handle cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources, and enforcement of any legal provisions related to the environment.
Statements
Statement 1: It is a statutory body formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
This statement is incorrect. The NGT was not formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, which was enacted by the Parliament in 2010.
Statement 2: It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals within 1 year of the filing of the case.
This statement is also incorrect. While the NGT is mandated to dispose of cases in a timely manner, it does not have a specific time limit of one year for disposal of applications or appeals. The NGT is expected to follow the principles of natural justice and ensure that cases are heard and disposed of in a fair and efficient manner.
Conclusion
In conclusion, both the statements given in the question are incorrect. The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, and while it is expected to dispose of cases in a timely manner, it does not have a specific time limit of one year for disposal of applications or appeals.
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized judicial body that was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act. It has the power to handle cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources, and enforcement of any legal provisions related to the environment.
Statements
Statement 1: It is a statutory body formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
This statement is incorrect. The NGT was not formed under the Tenth Five-Year Plan. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, which was enacted by the Parliament in 2010.
Statement 2: It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals within 1 year of the filing of the case.
This statement is also incorrect. While the NGT is mandated to dispose of cases in a timely manner, it does not have a specific time limit of one year for disposal of applications or appeals. The NGT is expected to follow the principles of natural justice and ensure that cases are heard and disposed of in a fair and efficient manner.
Conclusion
In conclusion, both the statements given in the question are incorrect. The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, and while it is expected to dispose of cases in a timely manner, it does not have a specific time limit of one year for disposal of applications or appeals.
With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:1. It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. It is legally binding on the Parties.
3. India is the member state of CITES.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:
1. It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. It is legally binding on the Parties.
3. India is the member state of CITES.
2. It is legally binding on the Parties.
3. India is the member state of CITES.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
In News: World Wildlife Day 2021 is being celebrated on 3rd March with the theme ‘Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet'.
Option D is correct: The day was chosen as World Wildlife day by the UN General As-sembly (UNGA) on 20 December 2013 at its 68th session. The aim was to celebrate and raise awareness about animals and plants. The reason this date was selected for the oc-casion was that the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed on 3 March, 1973. CITES is a multilateral legally binding treaty to protect endangered plants & animals. It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to imple-ment its goals.
Option D is correct: The day was chosen as World Wildlife day by the UN General As-sembly (UNGA) on 20 December 2013 at its 68th session. The aim was to celebrate and raise awareness about animals and plants. The reason this date was selected for the oc-casion was that the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed on 3 March, 1973. CITES is a multilateral legally binding treaty to protect endangered plants & animals. It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to imple-ment its goals.
Mullaperiyar Dam, recently seen in news, is currently operated by?- a)Kerala
- b)Karnataka
- c)TamilNadu
- d)Andhra Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Mullaperiyar Dam, recently seen in news, is currently operated by?
a)
Kerala
b)
Karnataka
c)
TamilNadu
d)
Andhra Pradesh
|
|
Wizius Careers answered |
In News: 126-year-old Mullaperiyar Dam (Masonry gravity dam on the Periyar River) has dangerously outlived its 50 years of life.
Option C is correct. Under lease agreement between British and Travancore (Current Kerala), TamilNadu got the rights to operate Mullaperiyar Dam even though it is situated in Kerala on Periyar River. It is bone of contention and sub judice due to Kerala’s wish to decommission it.
Option C is correct. Under lease agreement between British and Travancore (Current Kerala), TamilNadu got the rights to operate Mullaperiyar Dam even though it is situated in Kerala on Periyar River. It is bone of contention and sub judice due to Kerala’s wish to decommission it.
With reference to the Jim Corbett National Park, consider the following statements:1. It is India's oldest and most prestigious National Park.
2. It is honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Jim Corbett National Park, consider the following statements:
1. It is India's oldest and most prestigious National Park.
2. It is honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
2. It is honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Wizius Careers answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936 as the Hailey National Park. It is India's oldest and most prestigious National Park.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Park is a part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve, which is a Project Tiger Reserve. It is honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Park is a part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve, which is a Project Tiger Reserve. It is honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
Consider the following statements1. Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is an executive body under the Finance Ministry.
2. It is the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries.Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements
1. Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is an executive body under the Finance Ministry.
2. It is the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries.
2. It is the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Pankaj Kumar answered |
Background:
The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Finance Ministry as stated in Statement 1. It is responsible for managing the provident fund, pension scheme, and insurance scheme for employees in India. EPFO plays a crucial role in ensuring social security for employees and implementing various welfare measures.
Explanation:
Statement 1: Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is an executive body under the Finance Ministry.
This statement is incorrect. The EPFO is not under the Finance Ministry; it is under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The EPFO is responsible for the administration of the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
Statement 2: It is the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries.
This statement is correct. The EPFO acts as the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements (SSAs) with other countries. SSAs are agreements signed between two countries to coordinate the social security provisions for individuals who have worked in both countries. These agreements ensure that individuals are not disadvantaged when it comes to availing social security benefits in their respective countries.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Statement 1 is incorrect as the EPFO is not under the Finance Ministry but under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is correct as the EPFO is indeed the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.
The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Finance Ministry as stated in Statement 1. It is responsible for managing the provident fund, pension scheme, and insurance scheme for employees in India. EPFO plays a crucial role in ensuring social security for employees and implementing various welfare measures.
Explanation:
Statement 1: Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is an executive body under the Finance Ministry.
This statement is incorrect. The EPFO is not under the Finance Ministry; it is under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The EPFO is responsible for the administration of the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
Statement 2: It is the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries.
This statement is correct. The EPFO acts as the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements (SSAs) with other countries. SSAs are agreements signed between two countries to coordinate the social security provisions for individuals who have worked in both countries. These agreements ensure that individuals are not disadvantaged when it comes to availing social security benefits in their respective countries.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Statement 1 is incorrect as the EPFO is not under the Finance Ministry but under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is correct as the EPFO is indeed the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.
With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:1. These are set of statutory norms laid under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. The MCC is operational from the date the election schedule is announced till the last day of polling.
3. Certain provisions of MCC can be enforced by invoking certain corresponding provisions in other statutes.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:
1. These are set of statutory norms laid under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. The MCC is operational from the date the election schedule is announced till the last day of polling.
3. Certain provisions of MCC can be enforced by invoking certain corresponding provisions in other statutes.
2. The MCC is operational from the date the election schedule is announced till the last day of polling.
3. Certain provisions of MCC can be enforced by invoking certain corresponding provisions in other statutes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: The model code refers to a set of norms laid down by the Election Commission of India, with the consensus of political parties. It is not statutory. The purpose of these guidelines is to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections.
Statement 2 is not correct: The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 3 is correct: The MCC is not enforceable by law. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Statement 2 is not correct: The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced.
Statement 3 is correct: The MCC is not enforceable by law. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and Representation of the People Act, 1951.
‘Shigmo Festival’ is celebrated in which of the following states?- a)Goa
- b)Assam
- c)Mizoram
- d)Tripura
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Shigmo Festival’ is celebrated in which of the following states?
a)
Goa
b)
Assam
c)
Mizoram
d)
Tripura
|
|
Rajiv Reddy answered |
The Shigmo festival, also known as Shigmotsav is a spring festival celebrated in Goa. It is the celebration of a ‘rich, golden harvest of paddy’ by the tribal communities of Goa. Agricultural communities including the Kunbis, Gawdas and Velips celebrate the festival.
With reference to the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, consider the following statements:1. It inserted Article 239AA in the Constitution of India.
2. It empowers the Legislative Assembly of Delhi to make laws in all matters with the only exception of police.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, consider the following statements:
1. It inserted Article 239AA in the Constitution of India.
2. It empowers the Legislative Assembly of Delhi to make laws in all matters with the only exception of police.
2. It empowers the Legislative Assembly of Delhi to make laws in all matters with the only exception of police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Alok Verma answered |
In News: Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has introduced the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021 in Lok Sabha, which gives more discretionary powers to the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) of Delhi.
Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 inserted the Article 239AA in the Constitution of India. Article 239AA: The Council of Ministers will aid and advise the L-G in matters where the Legislative Assembly has the power to make laws except where the L-G can exercise discretion.
Statement 2 is not correct. As per the Act, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has the power to make laws in all matters except public order, police and land.
Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 inserted the Article 239AA in the Constitution of India. Article 239AA: The Council of Ministers will aid and advise the L-G in matters where the Legislative Assembly has the power to make laws except where the L-G can exercise discretion.
Statement 2 is not correct. As per the Act, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has the power to make laws in all matters except public order, police and land.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the ‘Summoning of the Parliament’ has been specified?- a)Article 84
- b)Article 85
- c)Article 86
- d)Article 87
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the ‘Summoning of the Parliament’ has been specified?
a)
Article 84
b)
Article 85
c)
Article 86
d)
Article 87
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution and the power rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned.
‘2001 FO32’, sometimes seen in the news, is a?- a)Giant Red Star
- b)Asteroid
- c)Supernova
- d)Blackhole
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
‘2001 FO32’, sometimes seen in the news, is a?
a)
Giant Red Star
b)
Asteroid
c)
Supernova
d)
Blackhole
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Option B is correct: The “2001 FO32” is the largest asteroid predicted to pass by Earth in 2021 and it will be at its closest on 21st March 2021. Apart from the stars, planets and satellites, there are numerous tiny bodies which also move around the sun. These bodies are called asteroids. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
The Suez Canal, recently seen in the news, connects?- a)Baltic Sea and North Sea
- b)Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
- c)Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
- d)Sea of Azov and Black Sea
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Suez Canal, recently seen in the news, connects?
a)
Baltic Sea and North Sea
b)
Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
c)
Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
d)
Sea of Azov and Black Sea
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
The Suez Canal is a human-made waterway and is one of the world’s most heavily used shipping lanes. It connects the Mediterranean and the Red Sea through Egypt and extends 193 km between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south. Built in 1869, it provides a major shortcut for ships moving between Europe and Asia, who before its construction had to sail around Africa to complete the same journey.
People with this medical condition experience distortions of the sense of smell. What is the condition called?- a)Sinusitis
- b)Esotropia
- c)Senopia
- d)Parosmia
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
People with this medical condition experience distortions of the sense of smell. What is the condition called?
a)
Sinusitis
b)
Esotropia
c)
Senopia
d)
Parosmia
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
Option D is correct. Parosmia is a medical term used to describe a condition in which affected individuals experience “distortions of the sense of smell”. A person with parosmia is able to detect certain odours, but they might experience the smell of certain things as different and often unpleasant.
Sinusitis is an inflammation of the lining inside the sinuses which can be acute or chronic. When the sinuses become blocked and fill with fluid, germs can grow and cause symptoms such as headache and nasal yellowish secretions.
Esotropia is a form of strabismus in which one or both eyes turn inward. The condition can be constantly present, or occur intermittently, and can give the affected individual a "cross-eyed" appearance.
Senopia is the improvement of near vision sometimes occurring in the aged because of swelling of the crystalline lens in incipient cataract.
Sinusitis is an inflammation of the lining inside the sinuses which can be acute or chronic. When the sinuses become blocked and fill with fluid, germs can grow and cause symptoms such as headache and nasal yellowish secretions.
Esotropia is a form of strabismus in which one or both eyes turn inward. The condition can be constantly present, or occur intermittently, and can give the affected individual a "cross-eyed" appearance.
Senopia is the improvement of near vision sometimes occurring in the aged because of swelling of the crystalline lens in incipient cataract.
India’s largest floating solar power plant is situated at- a)Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
- b)Ramagundam, Telangana
- c)Bhadla, Rajasthan
- d)Pavagada, Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
India’s largest floating solar power plant is situated at
a)
Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
b)
Ramagundam, Telangana
c)
Bhadla, Rajasthan
d)
Pavagada, Karnataka
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
In News: NTPC is ready to commission India’s largest floating solar power plant at Ramagundam in Telangana by May 2021.
Option B is correct. Bhadla Solar Park in Jodhpur district of Rajasthan is the world's biggest solar park in terms of power generation and second largest in terms of area but it is not floating. The largest floating solar park in India is Ramgundam.
Option B is correct. Bhadla Solar Park in Jodhpur district of Rajasthan is the world's biggest solar park in terms of power generation and second largest in terms of area but it is not floating. The largest floating solar park in India is Ramgundam.
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is decided on the recommendations of which of the following?- a)Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
- b)Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
- c)Food Corporation of India
- d)Indian Chamber of Food and Agriculture
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is decided on the recommendations of which of the following?
a)
Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
b)
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
c)
Food Corporation of India
d)
Indian Chamber of Food and Agriculture
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. It is announced by the Government at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricul-tural Costs and Prices (CACP).
The joint military exercise ‘Dustlik-II’, recently seen in the news, is held between India and -- a)Uzbekistan
- b)Afghanistan
- c)Saudi Arabia
- d)Kazakhstan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The joint military exercise ‘Dustlik-II’, recently seen in the news, is held between India and -
a)
Uzbekistan
b)
Afghanistan
c)
Saudi Arabia
d)
Kazakhstan
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
Exercise Dustlik-II is the joint military exercise between India and Uzbekistan. The first-ever edition was held in 2019 and the second edition is being held in March 2021. It focuses on people-centric intelligence-based surgical operations, incorporating technological advancements to minimize collateral damage.
With reference to Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:1. Rajya Sabha has 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the Presi-dent.
2. One-third of its members retire every third year.
3. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha can vote in the election of the President.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha has 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the Presi-dent.
2. One-third of its members retire every third year.
3. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha can vote in the election of the President.
2. One-third of its members retire every third year.
3. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha can vote in the election of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Alok Verma answered |
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service; and not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union Territories.
Statement 2 and 3 are not correct: The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year. Nominated members have the same rights and privileges as elected members, with one notable difference — they cannot vote in the election of the President.
Statement 2 and 3 are not correct: The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year. Nominated members have the same rights and privileges as elected members, with one notable difference — they cannot vote in the election of the President.
Namghar, recently seen in the news, is a?- a)Funeral house
- b)Dormitory
- c)Place for recitation and prayer
- d)Observatory
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Namghar, recently seen in the news, is a?
a)
Funeral house
b)
Dormitory
c)
Place for recitation and prayer
d)
Observatory
|
|
Zara Khan answered |
Namghar is an important cultural and religious institution in Assam. These are houses of recitation and prayer. These were initiated by Srimanta Sankardeva, the 15th-century social reformer and religious preacher.
With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:1. It is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Indian constitution.
2. It is established by the President of India.
3. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the council.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Indian constitution.
2. It is established by the President of India.
3. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the council.
2. It is established by the President of India.
3. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The Council is formed to discuss or investigate policies, subjects of common interest, and disputes among states.
Statement 2 is correct: The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Article 263 empowers the President of India to set up an inter-state council to deal with federal issues.
Statement 3 is not correct: The council is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes six Union ministers and all chief ministers as members.
Statement 2 is correct: The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Article 263 empowers the President of India to set up an inter-state council to deal with federal issues.
Statement 3 is not correct: The council is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes six Union ministers and all chief ministers as members.
With reference to Benzene, consider the following statements:1. It is a colourless or light-yellow chemical that is liquid at room temperature.
2. Benzene is formed naturally as well as anthropogenically.
3. If released in soil, it breaks down and contaminates the groundwater.Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Benzene, consider the following statements:
1. It is a colourless or light-yellow chemical that is liquid at room temperature.
2. Benzene is formed naturally as well as anthropogenically.
3. If released in soil, it breaks down and contaminates the groundwater.
2. Benzene is formed naturally as well as anthropogenically.
3. If released in soil, it breaks down and contaminates the groundwater.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
Statement 1 is correct. Benzene is a colourless or light-yellow chemical that is liquid at room temperature. It has a sweet odour and is highly flammable.
Statement 2 is correct. Benzene is formed from both natural processes and human activities. It can occur naturally in the environment. It is emitted into the atmosphere by erupting volcanoes, from the smoke of forest fires and some plants and animals. Anthropogenic factors include being released into the atmosphere by buses, cars, motorbikes, trains and aeroplanes. It can be emitted in exhaust fumes, and by evaporation of fuels from machinery, motors and petrol tanks.
Statement 3 is correct. Benzene can quickly evaporate into the air and be carried over long distances. If it is released into soil it can break down quickly and may contaminate groundwater.
Statement 2 is correct. Benzene is formed from both natural processes and human activities. It can occur naturally in the environment. It is emitted into the atmosphere by erupting volcanoes, from the smoke of forest fires and some plants and animals. Anthropogenic factors include being released into the atmosphere by buses, cars, motorbikes, trains and aeroplanes. It can be emitted in exhaust fumes, and by evaporation of fuels from machinery, motors and petrol tanks.
Statement 3 is correct. Benzene can quickly evaporate into the air and be carried over long distances. If it is released into soil it can break down quickly and may contaminate groundwater.
Which of the following is declared as a Mixed Site under UNESCO's Heritage Sites List?- a)Nanda Devi
- b)Western Ghats
- c)Khangchendzonga National Park
- d)Kaziranga National Park
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is declared as a Mixed Site under UNESCO's Heritage Sites List?
a)
Nanda Devi
b)
Western Ghats
c)
Khangchendzonga National Park
d)
Kaziranga National Park
|
Arshadkhan A Jahagirdar answered |
Khangchendzonga National Park also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a national park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim, India. It was included under the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list onJuly 2016, becoming the first "Mixed Heritage" site of India. It was included in the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme.
Mixed heritage sites contain elements of both natural and cultural significance. The ratio of cultural to natural sites on the World Heritage List is roughly 3 to 1.
Which of the following department instituted SERB Women Excellence Award?- a)Department of Science and Technology
- b)Department of Higher Education
- c)Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
- d)Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following department instituted SERB Women Excellence Award?
a)
Department of Science and Technology
b)
Department of Higher Education
c)
Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
d)
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
The SERB Women Excellence Award was instituted by the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), Department of Science and Technology (DST). It recognises and rewards outstanding research achievements of young women scientists in frontier areas of Science and Engineering.
With reference to the Banking system, consider the following statements:1. When the loans are written-down, the recovery procedure is totally stopped.
2. Writing off loans frees up capital for better liquidity in banks.Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Banking system, consider the following statements:
1. When the loans are written-down, the recovery procedure is totally stopped.
2. Writing off loans frees up capital for better liquidity in banks.
2. Writing off loans frees up capital for better liquidity in banks.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
In News: Banks wrote off ₹1.2 lakh cr. in the past 9 months of FY21 to improve liquidity as per RBI.
Statement 1 is not correct. When the loans are written-down, the recovery procedure is not stopped but the mortgaged assets are reevaluated for their worth and loan recovery is attempted accordingly. Writedown is the opposite of a write-up, and it will become a write-off if the entire value of the asset becomes worthless and is eliminated from the account altogether.
Statement 2 is correct. Writing off loans frees up capital for better liquidity in banks. The banks reserve some capital based on CRAR requirements mandated by RBI on basis of BASEL norms. When loans are written off, banks’ accounts are cleared of non performing assets and the capital frees increasing liquidity (money to give loan). It never means the Bank will stop efforts for recovery. Bank will try to recover the loan and the recovered amount will go to a separate head.
Statement 1 is not correct. When the loans are written-down, the recovery procedure is not stopped but the mortgaged assets are reevaluated for their worth and loan recovery is attempted accordingly. Writedown is the opposite of a write-up, and it will become a write-off if the entire value of the asset becomes worthless and is eliminated from the account altogether.
Statement 2 is correct. Writing off loans frees up capital for better liquidity in banks. The banks reserve some capital based on CRAR requirements mandated by RBI on basis of BASEL norms. When loans are written off, banks’ accounts are cleared of non performing assets and the capital frees increasing liquidity (money to give loan). It never means the Bank will stop efforts for recovery. Bank will try to recover the loan and the recovered amount will go to a separate head.
With reference to the Index Monitoring Cell (IMC), consider the following statements:1. It was set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. It has the objective to improve India’s ranking in all Global Indices.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Index Monitoring Cell (IMC), consider the following statements:
1. It was set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. It has the objective to improve India’s ranking in all Global Indices.
2. It has the objective to improve India’s ranking in all Global Indices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The Index Monitoring Cell (IMC) was set up by the Information and Broadcasting Ministry in 2020.
Statement 2 is not correct. Its task is to improve India’s ranking in the World Press Freedom Index and to evolve an objective yardstick to gauge media freedom. It will also put in place a mechanism for States to come up with their own rankings of press freedom.
Statement 2 is not correct. Its task is to improve India’s ranking in the World Press Freedom Index and to evolve an objective yardstick to gauge media freedom. It will also put in place a mechanism for States to come up with their own rankings of press freedom.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in?- a)Kerala
- b)Tamil Nadu
- c)Karnataka
- d)Telangana
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in?
a)
Kerala
b)
Tamil Nadu
c)
Karnataka
d)
Telangana
|
|
Alok Verma answered |
In News: The gregarious flowering of bamboo inside the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) poses a potential threat to wildlife in the Nilgiri biosphere, a major tiger and elephant habitat.
Option A is correct. The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala. It was set up in 1973 and is ranked 8th in the list of the World's Biodiversity Hotspots. The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 km2) and of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
Option A is correct. The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala. It was set up in 1973 and is ranked 8th in the list of the World's Biodiversity Hotspots. The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 km2) and of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
Periodic Labour Force Surveys, recently in the news, are released by?- a)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
- b)Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- c)Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- d)Ministry of Labour and Employment
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Periodic Labour Force Surveys, recently in the news, are released by?
a)
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
b)
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
c)
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
d)
Ministry of Labour and Employment
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Periodic Labour Force Surveys (PLFSs) are India’s first computer-based surveys. These were launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO) in 2017 and are released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. These aim to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (Worker Population Ratio, Unemployment Rate, etc.) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS) and also in both usual status and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
With reference to PM Kisan Mandhan Yojana, consider the following statements:1. Under it, a monthly pension of Rs. 5000 is given to all farmers on attaining the age of 60 years.
2. It aims to cover 3 crore beneficiaries by 2021-22.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to PM Kisan Mandhan Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. Under it, a monthly pension of Rs. 5000 is given to all farmers on attaining the age of 60 years.
2. It aims to cover 3 crore beneficiaries by 2021-22.
2. It aims to cover 3 crore beneficiaries by 2021-22.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
In News: To double farm incomes, the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare must seek more funds, says House panel.
Statement 1 is not correct. The PM Kisan Mandhan Yojana is a voluntary and contributory scheme. Under it, a monthly pension of Rs.3000 is given to Small and Marginal farmers on attaining the age of 60 years.
Statement 2 is correct. When the scheme was launched in 2019, it aimed to cover five crore beneficiaries by 2021-22. The target was later downgraded to three crore.
Statement 1 is not correct. The PM Kisan Mandhan Yojana is a voluntary and contributory scheme. Under it, a monthly pension of Rs.3000 is given to Small and Marginal farmers on attaining the age of 60 years.
Statement 2 is correct. When the scheme was launched in 2019, it aimed to cover five crore beneficiaries by 2021-22. The target was later downgraded to three crore.
Dhubri Phulbari bridge will be constructed on which of the following rivers?- a)Brahmaputra
- b)Ganga
- c)Indus
- d)Krishna
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Dhubri Phulbari bridge will be constructed on which of the following rivers?
a)
Brahmaputra
b)
Ganga
c)
Indus
d)
Krishna
|
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
Dhubri Phulbari bridge -Foundation stone for 19-km-long four-lane Dhubri Phulbari bridge will be laid down over the Brahmaputra It will be India’s longest bridge over a river that connects Dhubri in Assam and Phulbari in Meghalaya, to be constructed at the cost of Rs 5,000 crore.
Exercise Desert Flag VI, recently seen in the news, is hosted by?- a)United Arab Emirates
- b)Egypt
- c)Oman
- d)Jordan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Exercise Desert Flag VI, recently seen in the news, is hosted by?
a)
United Arab Emirates
b)
Egypt
c)
Oman
d)
Jordan
|
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
Exercise Desert Flag VI is an annual multinational large force employment warfare exercise hosted by the United Arab Emirates’ Air Force. In 2021, the Indian Air Force is participating in it for the first time along with air forces of the UAE, US, France, Saudi Arabia, South Korea and Bahrain.
Which of the following falls under the term ‘Capital Account’?1. Portfolio investment
2. External Assistance
3. Transfer payments
4. Commercial borrowingsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2, 3 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following falls under the term ‘Capital Account’?
1. Portfolio investment
2. External Assistance
3. Transfer payments
4. Commercial borrowings
2. External Assistance
3. Transfer payments
4. Commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2, 3 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Mira Sharma answered |
The balance of payments (BoP) records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year. There are two main accounts in the BoP - the current account and the capital account. Capital Account Includes: External Assistance, Commercial Borrowings, Foreign Investment, Portfolio, FII, Non-Resident Deposits, Banking Capital. The current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.
The bridge ‘Maitri Setu’ was recently seen in the news. It is built on which of the following rivers?- a)Muhuri River
- b)Padma River
- c)Feni River
- d)Teesta River
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The bridge ‘Maitri Setu’ was recently seen in the news. It is built on which of the following rivers?
a)
Muhuri River
b)
Padma River
c)
Feni River
d)
Teesta River
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
Recently, the Prime Minister of India has inaugurated the ‘Maitri Setu’ Bridge between India and Bangladesh. The bridge has been built over the Feni river which is a trans-boundary river in Tripura, India. It will give a boost to trade and people to people movement between India and Bangladesh.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of Diatom Test?- a)Weather forecasting in drought prone areas
- b)Diagnosing death caused by drowning.
- c)Checking adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
- d)Checking the global warming
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of Diatom Test?
a)
Weather forecasting in drought prone areas
b)
Diagnosing death caused by drowning.
c)
Checking adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d)
Checking the global warming
|
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
Diagnosis of death by drowning is deemed as a difficult task in forensic pathology. A number of tests have been developed to confirm the cause of such deaths with the diatom test emerging as one of the most important tests. Diatom analysis is considered positive only when the number of diatoms recovered from the body is more than a minimal established limit. Forensic experts also correlate the diatoms extracted from the body and the samples obtained from the water body where the drowning took place to ascertain the place of drowning.
Which of the following best defines the Autocratic Form of Government?- a)Rule of a group of Elites.
- b)Hereditary Ruler.
- c)Unrestricted Ruler.
- d)Oppressive Ruler.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following best defines the Autocratic Form of Government?
a)
Rule of a group of Elites.
b)
Hereditary Ruler.
c)
Unrestricted Ruler.
d)
Oppressive Ruler.
|
|
Kiran Reddy answered |
In News: VDem, a Sweden Based firm has released a report grading the quality of liberal democracies across the world. According to this data, India is an Elected Autocracy.
Option C is correct. When a group of Elites rule, it is Oligarchy or Aristocracy (Although both have minor differences). Hereditary Rulers are monarchs. Oppressive Ruler is the Dictator and rule is called Dictatorship. The autocracy is defined by unrestricted powers in the hands of one person.
Option C is correct. When a group of Elites rule, it is Oligarchy or Aristocracy (Although both have minor differences). Hereditary Rulers are monarchs. Oppressive Ruler is the Dictator and rule is called Dictatorship. The autocracy is defined by unrestricted powers in the hands of one person.
With reference to the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, consider the following statements:1. It declared that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it was on 15th August 1947.
2. Places of worship which are archaeological sites, are exempted from the provisions of this Act.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, consider the following statements:
1. It declared that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it was on 15th August 1947.
2. Places of worship which are archaeological sites, are exempted from the provisions of this Act.
2. Places of worship which are archaeological sites, are exempted from the provisions of this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
In News: Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has asked the Centre to respond to a plea challenging the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991.
Statement 1 is correct. Sections 3 and 4 of the Act declared that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it was on 15th August 1947 and that no person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into one of a different denomination or section.
Statement 2 is correct. Any place of worship that is an ancient and historical monument or an archaeological site, or is covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 stand exempted from the provision of the Act. Apart from these, Ram Janma Bhumi Babri Masjid, already settled/disposed of suits, and places which had been converted before the Act have been exempted too.
Statement 1 is correct. Sections 3 and 4 of the Act declared that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it was on 15th August 1947 and that no person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into one of a different denomination or section.
Statement 2 is correct. Any place of worship that is an ancient and historical monument or an archaeological site, or is covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 stand exempted from the provision of the Act. Apart from these, Ram Janma Bhumi Babri Masjid, already settled/disposed of suits, and places which had been converted before the Act have been exempted too.
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists caracals as a species- a)Near Threatened (NT)
- b)Vulnerable (VU)
- c)Endangered (EN)
- d)Least Concern (LC)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists caracals as a species
a)
Near Threatened (NT)
b)
Vulnerable (VU)
c)
Endangered (EN)
d)
Least Concern (LC)
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists caracals as a species of ‘least concern’ and in India, now they are critically endangered species.
The term ‘‘Rule Curve’’ was recently mentioned in the news, it is associated with- a)Naxal Corridor
- b)Dam Reservoir Management
- c)Road Alignment
- d)Perseverance Landing
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The term ‘‘Rule Curve’’ was recently mentioned in the news, it is associated with
a)
Naxal Corridor
b)
Dam Reservoir Management
c)
Road Alignment
d)
Perseverance Landing
|
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
In News: The Supreme Court made the Tamil Nadu Chief Secretary “personally responsible” for developing Rule Curve for 123 years old Mullaperiyar Dam. * “Appropriate action” will be taken on failure to give information on the rule curve for Mullaperiyar dam to the Supreme Court-appointed Supervisory Committee.
Option B is correct. The rule curve divides the storage volume of a reservoir in zones where different strategies for demand supply will be applied. Rule curve in a dam decides the fluctuating storage levels in a reservoir. The gate opening schedule of a dam is based on the rule curve. It is part of the “core safety” mechanism in a dam. The limits of each zone may vary seasonally or remain constant during the whole year.Such tools may be used for flood control or water conservation during long dry spells.
Option B is correct. The rule curve divides the storage volume of a reservoir in zones where different strategies for demand supply will be applied. Rule curve in a dam decides the fluctuating storage levels in a reservoir. The gate opening schedule of a dam is based on the rule curve. It is part of the “core safety” mechanism in a dam. The limits of each zone may vary seasonally or remain constant during the whole year.Such tools may be used for flood control or water conservation during long dry spells.
Sugamya Bharat App, recently seen in the news, has been launched by?- a)Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- b)Ministry of Science and Technology
- c)Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- d)Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Sugamya Bharat App, recently seen in the news, has been launched by?
a)
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
b)
Ministry of Science and Technology
c)
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
d)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
|
Lalit Yadav answered |
Recently, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched “Sugamya Bharat App” and a handbook titled “Access: The Photo Digest”. It is a crowdsourcing mobile application that has been developed as a means to sensitise and enhance the accessibility.
Chapter doubts & questions for March 2021 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of March 2021 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021 in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam.
Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.
Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021
908 docs|467 tests
|
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!
Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
|
Signup to see your scores
go up within 7 days!
Access 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos and Tests
Takes less than 10 seconds to signup