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All questions of November 2020 for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Indian constitution.
2. It is established by the President of India.
3. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Statement 1 is not correct: The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The Council is formed to discuss or investigate policies, subjects of common interest, and disputes among states.
Statement 2 is correct: The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Article 263 empowers the President of India to set up an inter-state council to deal with federal issues.
Statement 3 is not correct: The council is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes six Union ministers and all chief ministers as members.

Which of the following are depositional landforms formed by Glaciers?
1. Eskers
2. Moraines
3. Hanging Valley
4. Drumlins
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1, 3 and 4 only
  • c)
    2, 3 and 4 only
  • d)
    1,2 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Geetika Bajaj answered
Depositional Landforms formed by Glaciers:

Glaciers are responsible for shaping the landscape by carving out valleys, creating lakes, and leaving behind deposits of rocks, sand, and gravel. The depositional landforms formed by glaciers include:

1. Moraines: Moraines are piles of rock and debris left behind by a glacier. They can be found along the edges of a glacier or in the center. There are different types of moraines, including lateral, medial, and terminal moraines.

2. Eskers: Eskers are long, winding ridges of sand and gravel that were deposited by meltwater streams flowing under a glacier. They can be found in areas where glaciers once existed.

3. Drumlins: Drumlins are elongated hills that were formed by the movement of a glacier. They are usually found in groups and are aligned in the direction of the glacier's flow.

4. Hanging Valley: A hanging valley is a valley that is elevated above the main valley floor, often with a waterfall or steep drop-off. They are formed when tributary glaciers flow into a larger glacier. As the larger glacier erodes the main valley, the tributary valley is left hanging above.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2, and 4 only - as moraines, eskers, and drumlins are depositional landforms formed by glaciers.

Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?
  • a)
    Regulation of consumer credit
  • b)
    Rationing of credit
  • c)
    Margin requirements
  • d)
    Variable cash reserve ratios
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

One of the instruments of selective credit control in India that is not mentioned in the list is the Variable Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).

The Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of total deposits that banks are required to keep with the central bank as a reserve. It is a tool used by the central bank to control the money supply in the economy. When the central bank increases the CRR, it reduces the amount of funds available for lending by commercial banks, thereby reducing the money supply. Conversely, when the central bank decreases the CRR, it increases the amount of funds available for lending, which stimulates economic growth.

The Variable Cash Reserve Ratio refers to the practice of adjusting the CRR as a tool of selective credit control. It allows the central bank to increase or decrease the CRR based on the prevailing economic conditions and monetary policy objectives. By varying the CRR, the central bank can influence the liquidity in the banking system and control inflation or stimulate economic growth.

The other options mentioned in the list are instruments of selective credit control in India:

a) Regulation of consumer credit: This refers to the central bank's ability to regulate the amount of credit that can be extended to consumers. By setting limits on consumer credit, the central bank can prevent excessive borrowing and control inflationary pressures.

b) Rationing of credit: This refers to the central bank's ability to allocate credit to different sectors of the economy based on their priority. By rationing credit, the central bank can ensure that essential sectors receive adequate funding while limiting credit to non-priority sectors.

c) Margin requirements: This refers to the central bank's ability to regulate the amount of collateral that borrowers need to provide when taking a loan. By increasing margin requirements, the central bank can reduce the amount of credit available for speculative purposes and control excessive risk-taking.

In summary, the Variable Cash Reserve Ratio is an instrument of selective credit control in India that allows the central bank to adjust the CRR based on economic conditions. The other options mentioned in the list are also instruments of selective credit control in India.

With reference to the Contempt of Court, consider the following statements:
1. The expression ‘contempt of court’ has been defined under Article 129 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Criminal contempt is willful disobedience to any judgment, writ or other processes of a court.
3. The Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of any court in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- Recently, Attorney General of India declined to consent to initiate contempt proceedings against Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister and his principal advisor.
Statement 1 & 2 are not correct: As per the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, contempt refers to the offence of showing disrespect to the dignity or authority of a court. It divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt. Civil contempt is the willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court. Criminal contempt is an act which may result in scandalising the court by lowering its authority, interference in the due course of a judicial proceeding, an obstruction in the administration of justice. However, the expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to Rs. 2,000 or with both. The Supreme Court in the year 1991 ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country. The High Courts have been given special powers to punish contempt of subordinate courts, as per Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.

With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act.
2. It can take any case suo-moto in the Union Territories but not in states.
3. Superintendence of CBI rests with CVC in all the corruption and administrative cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    2 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
In News- Recently the Kerala Government decided to withdraw the general consent accorded to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to probe cases in the state.
Statement 1 is not correct: CBI is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating to corruption and major criminal probes. It has its origin in Special Police Establishment set up in 1941 to probe bribery and corruption during World War II. Although the DSPE Act gives legal power to CBI, CBI is not a statutory body as the word ‘CBI’ is not mentioned in the DSPE act.
Statement 2 is correct: It can begin a probe under certain circumstances if a state government makes a request and the Union government agrees to it if the Supreme Court or any High Court order the CBI to take up such investigations. It can take a case suo-moto only in the Union Territories.
Statement 3 is not correct: Superintendence of CBI rests with CVC in corruption cases and with the Department of personnel and training in other matters. Presently it acts as an attached office under DOPT.

‘Yarkovsky effect’ was in the news recent time, consider the following statements in this regards:
1. It is a force acting on a rotating body in the space.
2. It is mostly seen in the Terrestrial planets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
In News- According to research, a large asteroid named Asteroid Apophis, which was expected to pass extremely close to Earth may now hit the blue planet in 2068 due to a phenomenon called Yarkovsky effect.
Option B is correct: The Asteroid Apophis was discovered in 2004 and since then it was revealed that the probability of a collision is almost negligible. It was earlier predicted to pass really close to Earth in 2068. But, according to the new calculations, the asteroid is drifting away from its original orbit now. The change in orbit is about 557 feet (170 metres) per year. The asteroid’s orbit has been disturbed by the heat it is taking from the Sun.
This phenomenon is called the Yarkovsky effect as it celestial object’s path changes due to heat energy being radiated asymmetrically. Basically, the heat that an asteroid radiates gives it a very tiny push. The warmer hemisphere [of the asteroid] would be pushing slightly more than the cooler hemisphere, and that causes the asteroid to drift away from what a purely gravitational orbit would predict.

With reference to the Aditya- L1 mission, consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first solar mission.
2. Under the mission, the study the Sun’s corona, solar emissions, solar winds and flares, and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are to be conducted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
Aditya - L1 First Indian mission to study the Sun. It was meant to observe only the solar corona.  The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona.  A Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/ eclipses

Which of the following country has recently approved the issuance of ‘Golden Card Visa’ for certain professions?
  • a)
    Japan
  • b)
    United Kingdom
  • c)
    United Arab Emirate
  • d)
    South Africa
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
In News- Recently, UAE has approved a 'golden' visa grant allowing 10-year residency for certain professions including specialised degree-holders and others.
Option C is correct: The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has approved the issuance of a 10-year golden card visa for more professionals, including PhD holders, physicians, engineers as well as graduates from certain universities. Golden Visa is citizenship by investment or residency by investment program. It is directed to wealthy foreign nationals who want to acquire residency in a certain country by investing a substantial amount of money or by purchasing a property. It is a long-term residency programme announced by the Prime Minister and Ruler of Dubai, in May 2019. 

With reference to the Arctic Council, consider the following statements:
1. It was established by the eight Arctic States through the Ottawa Declaration.
2. It is a treaty-based international legal entity for the allocation of resources to the member states.
3. India is one of the observer member states of the Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic Council was established by the eight Arctic States — the countries whose territories fall in the Arctic region — through the Ottawa Declaration of 1996. The eight Arctic States — Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States — are the only members of the Arctic Council.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Arctic Council is not a treaty-based international legal entity like the UN bodies or trade, military or regional groupings like WTO, NATO or ASEAN. It is only an intergovernmental ‘forum’ to promote cooperation in regulating the activities in the Arctic region. It is a much more informal grouping.
Statement 3 is correct: India was given the Observer status in 2013, along with five other countries — China, Italy, Japan, South Korea, and Singapore. Prior to this, only France, Germany, the Netherlands, Poland, Spain and the United Kingdom were granted Observer status. 

With reference to the “Samagra Shiksha” Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is an integrated scheme for imparting professional technical skills in higher education in the STEM fields.
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by Ministry of Skill Development And Entrepreneurship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Rane answered
Overview of the Samagra Shiksha Scheme
The "Samagra Shiksha" Scheme is a comprehensive initiative aimed at enhancing the quality of education in India. It focuses on the holistic development of children from preschool to higher secondary levels, rather than specifically targeting professional technical skills in higher education.
Key Features of the Scheme
- Integrated Approach: Samagra Shiksha integrates various aspects of education, including quality, access, and equity, but does not specifically cater to STEM fields or professional technical skills.
- Target Group: The scheme emphasizes the overall educational framework rather than focusing solely on higher education or skills in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics).
Funding and Implementation
- Centrally Sponsored Scheme: It is indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, but it is launched by the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
- Focus Areas: The scheme covers aspects such as teacher training, infrastructure development, and inclusive education, targeting improvements across all levels of school education.
Conclusion
Given this information, we can conclude:
- Statement 1 is incorrect as the scheme does not focus on imparting professional technical skills specifically in STEM fields.
- Statement 2 is also incorrect because it is the Ministry of Education that administers the scheme, not the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D': Neither statement 1 nor 2 is accurate.

With reference to the Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
2. The commission works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. The retired Supreme Court judge or chief justice of a high court head the Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
Option B is correct: The Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. The Government of India established the First Law Commission of Independent India in 1955 for a three-year term. The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay. The commission works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Usually, a retired Supreme Court judge or chief justice of a high court head the Commission.

With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, consider the following statements:
1. Under the act, both individuals and organisations are required to register themselves every five years for accepting funds from foreign.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- The MHA notified new rules under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 2010 thereby amending the FCRA Rules, 2011.
Option B is correct: Individuals are permitted to accept foreign contributions without permission of MHA. However, the monetary limit for acceptance of such foreign contributions shall be less than Rs. 25,000 and organisations are required to register themselves every five years. The act is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

“Param Siddhi” was in the news recently, it is a type of -
  • a)
    Celestial Telescope made by ISRO
  • b)
    Newly discovered Star
  • c)
    Super Computer
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
In News- Param Siddhi bags 63rd rank in the list of most powerful supercomputers in the world.
Option C is correct: Param Siddhi, the supercomputer established under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), has achieved 63rd rank in the list of 500 most powerful supercomputers in the world. India has one of the largest supercomputer infrastructures in the world.

Which of the following is/are the favourable conditions for the formation of cyclones?
1. Presence of the Coriolis force
2. Calm sea surface
3. High Temperature
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Patel answered
Favourable Conditions for the Formation of Cyclones:

Cyclones are large-scale weather systems characterized by low atmospheric pressure at the center and strong winds circulating around it. They typically form over warm ocean waters near the equator and can cause significant damage and destruction when they make landfall. The formation of cyclones is influenced by several factors, and the favourable conditions for their formation are as follows:

1. Presence of the Coriolis force:
The Coriolis force is an apparent force that acts on moving objects due to the rotation of the Earth. It causes the deflection of moving air and water masses to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The Coriolis force is essential for the formation and development of cyclones as it provides the necessary rotation for the system. Without the Coriolis force, cyclones would not be able to develop their characteristic rotation. Therefore, the presence of the Coriolis force is a crucial factor for the formation of cyclones.

2. Warm sea surface:
Cyclones draw their energy from the warm sea surface, specifically from the heat and moisture content of the ocean. The warm sea surface provides the necessary fuel for the cyclone to intensify and maintain its strength. As the warm air rises from the ocean surface, it creates low pressure at the center, which in turn draws in more warm air from the surrounding areas. This process creates a continuous supply of warm, moist air that fuels the cyclone's growth. Therefore, a calm and warm sea surface is another favourable condition for the formation of cyclones.

3. High temperature:
High atmospheric temperatures contribute to the formation of cyclones by creating a conducive environment for the development of thunderstorms. Thunderstorms are often the initial stage in the formation of cyclones, and they require warm, moist air to form. High temperatures provide the necessary energy to fuel the convective activity in the atmosphere, leading to the formation of thunderstorms. These thunderstorms can then evolve into cyclones under the right conditions. Therefore, high temperatures are also favourable for the formation of cyclones.

In conclusion, the formation of cyclones requires the presence of the Coriolis force, a calm and warm sea surface, and high temperatures. These factors work together to create the necessary conditions for the development and intensification of cyclones.

With reference to the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT), consider the following statements:
1. It is an international project of NASA for deep exploration into space.
2. It is installed at Maunakea in Hawaii.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Sarkar answered
Statement 1: The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) is an international project of NASA for deep exploration into space.

This statement is incorrect. The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) is not a project of NASA. It is a collaborative project between various international partners, including the United States, Canada, Japan, India, and China. The TMT aims to construct one of the world's largest and most powerful telescopes to explore the universe and study celestial objects in great detail. While NASA may collaborate with the TMT project, it is not solely an initiative of NASA.

Statement 2: The TMT is installed at Maunakea in Hawaii.

This statement is correct. The TMT is planned to be installed at Maunakea, a dormant volcano on the Big Island of Hawaii. Maunakea is considered an ideal location for astronomical observations due to its high elevation, clear skies, and minimal light pollution. The TMT project has faced significant controversies and opposition from some Native Hawaiian groups and environmentalists who have raised concerns about the impact on the sacred lands and the ecosystem of Maunakea.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the given statements, it can be concluded that statement 1 is incorrect as the TMT is not an international project of NASA. However, statement 2 is correct as the TMT is planned to be installed at Maunakea in Hawaii. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to the Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the direct investment of money from individual/institutional investors in infrastructure.
2. They are regulated and oversight by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved monetisation of assets of POWERGRID through the Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) model.
Statement 1 is correct: An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is like a mutual fund, which enables direct investment of small amounts of money from possible individual/institutional investors in infrastructure to earn a small portion of the income as a return. InvITs work like mutual funds or real estate investment trusts (REITs) in features. InvITs can be treated as the modified version of REITs designed to suit the specific circumstances of the infrastructure sector.
Statement 2 is not correct: They are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India. Their units are listed on different trading platforms like stock exchanges and are a wholesome combination of both equity and debt instruments. InvITs can be established as a trust and registered with Sebi. An InvIT consists of four elements: 1) Trustee, 2) Sponsor(s), 3) Investment Manager and 4) Project Manager.

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS is a global navigation system.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- India has become the fourth country in the world to have its independent regional navigation satellite system recognised by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) as a part of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS).
Option A is correct: The IRNSS system consists of a constellation of seven satellites and a supporting ground segment. Three of the satellites in the constellation will be placed in a geostationary orbit and the remaining four in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29º relative to the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio visibility with Indian control stations. It will cover the entire country and an area extending about 1,500 sq. km beyond its border, with a position accuracy better than 20m in all weather conditions. IRNSS is a regional and not a global navigation system. With the recognition as a component of the WWRNS, the Indian navigation system is similarly placed as Global Positioning System (GPS - USA), most commonly used by marine shipping vessels across the world or the Russian Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS).

“16 Psyche” was in the news recently, it is a
  • a)
    Software used in Dark Web
  • b)
    Newly discovered Exoplanet
  • c)
    Rare metallic asteroid
  • d)
    Mission to study Venus planet
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- The National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (Nasa) Hubble Space Telescope discovered a metal-rich asteroid '16 Psyche'.
Option C is correct: It is one of the most massive objects in the solar system's main asteroid belt. It orbits between Mars and Jupiter, could be made entirely of metal and is worth an estimated $10,000 quadrillion which is more than the entire economy of Earth. It is located roughly 370 million kilometres (230 million miles) from the Earth and measures 226 kilometres across (140 miles). It was first discovered on March 17, 1853, by the Italian astronomer Annibale de Gasparis and was named after the ancient Greek goddess of the soul, Psyche. It is one of the most massive objects in the asteroid belt in our solar system. Psyche is a dense and largely metallic object thought to be the core of an earlier planet that failed in formation.

With respect to Artemis Accords, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It outlines the principles of future exploration of the Moon and beyond.
2. India is a founding member in the space coalition under Artemis Accords.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Patel answered
Artemis Accords:
The Artemis Accords is a set of guidelines and principles established by NASA in 2020 to govern international cooperation and ensure peaceful and sustainable exploration of the Moon and beyond. It aims to create a framework for collaboration among nations that participate in space exploration missions.

Statement 1: It outlines the principles of future exploration of the Moon and beyond.
This statement is correct. The Artemis Accords indeed outline a set of principles that will guide future exploration activities on the Moon and in space. These principles include peaceful exploration, transparency, interoperability, sustainable use of space resources, and the protection of heritage sites and artifacts. By establishing these principles, the Accords aim to ensure safe and responsible space exploration for all participating countries.

Statement 2: India is a founding member in the space coalition under Artemis Accords.
This statement is incorrect. India is not a founding member of the space coalition under the Artemis Accords. The founding members of the Accords are primarily countries that are part of the Artemis program led by NASA, which aims to return humans to the Moon. As of now, the founding members include the United States, Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom. India, despite being an active participant in space exploration, is not among the founding members.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the Artemis Accords outline the principles of future exploration of the Moon and beyond. However, statement 2 is incorrect as India is not a founding member in the space coalition under the Artemis Accords.

Consider the following statements:
1. Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental body on preservation of on Wetlands.
2. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance.
3. Lonar Lake is under the Ramsar sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
In News- Recently, the Meteor lake at Lonar of Maharashtra and the Soor Sarovar at Agra have been declared Ramsar sites.
Option D is correct: Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty adopted in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar, on the southern shore of the Caspian Sea.
It came into force for India on 1st February, 1982. Those wetlands which are of international importance are declared as Ramsar sites. The Convention’s mission is “the conservation and wise use of all wetlands through local and national actions and international cooperation, as a contribution towards achieving sustainable development throughout the world. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. At present, two wetlands of India are in Montreux Recordthat are- Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur).

Consider the following statements:
1. News Broadcasting Standards Authority (NBSA) is a statutory body for the regulation of television news.
2. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is the executive body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- The government has brought video streaming over-the-top (OTT) platforms such as Netflix, Amazon’s Prime Video, Hotstar, and others under the ambit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Option B is correct:  It is not a statutory body. The News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the private television news & current affairs broadcasters. It is the collective voice of the news & current affairs broadcasters in India. It is an organization funded entirely by its members. The NBA has presently 26 leading news and current affairs broadcasters (comprising 70 news and current affairs channels) as its members. The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory film-certification body in the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting of the Government of India.

With reference to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), consider the following statements:
1. It was the first tribunal established by the executive resolution.
2. It is known as ‘Mother Tribunal’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
In News- Recently, Prime Minister virtually inaugurated the Office-cum-Residential Complex of Cuttack Bench of Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in Odisha to provide modern tax services.
Option B is correct: Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) is a statutory body in the field of direct taxes and its orders are accepted as final. Statutory bodies are established by acts which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass. ITAT was the first Tribunal to be created on 25th January 1941 and is also known as ‘Mother Tribunal’.

‘Char-Chaporis culture’ was in the news recently, it is related to which of the following states?
  • a)
    Orissa
  • b)
    Nagaland
  • c)
    Assam
  • d)
    West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
In News- A proposed “Miya museum” reflecting the “culture and heritage of the people living in char-chaporis” has stirred up a controversy in Assam.
Option C is correct: Recently, a proposed Miya museum reflecting the culture and heritage of the people living in char-chaporis has stirred up a controversy in Assam. The ‘Miya’ community comprises descendants of Muslim migrants from East Bengal (now Bangladesh) to Assam. They came to be referred to as ‘Miyas’, often in a derogatory manner. The community migrated in several waves — starting with the British annexation of Assam in 1826, and continuing into Partition and the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War. Their Migration has resulted in changes in the demographic composition of the region. Years of discontent among the indigenous people led to the six-year-long (1979-85) anti-foreigner Assam Agitation to weed out the “illegal immigrant”, who was perceived as trying to take over jobs, language and culture of the indigenous population.

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the BrahMos missile?
1. It is jointly developed by the DRDO and NPOM, an aerospace enterprise of Russia.
2. It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant engine in the first stage and a liquid ramjet in the second.
3. It can be launched from land, water and air.  
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- Recently, India has successfully test-fired a land-attack version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile from the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 1 is correct:  BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile which is jointly developed by the DRDO and NPOM, a leading aerospace enterprise of Russia. Brahmos is named after the rivers Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
Statement 2 is correct: BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase.
Statement 3 is correct: It can be launched from submarines, warships, fighter jets or land.

Which of the following Tiger Reserves receives the first TX2 International Award for doubling the Tiger population?
  • a)
    Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
  • b)
    Pilibhit Tiger Reserve
  • c)
    Corbett Reserve
  • d)
    Bor Tiger Reserve
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
In News- Recently, Pilibhit Tiger Reserve receives first TX2 International Award for doubling its population.
Option B is correct: The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) has bagged international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. The number of tigers in the reserve area has gone up to 65 from 25 in the period of just four years. The target was set by the partners of the award in 2010. The partners are Global Tiger Forum, United Nations Development Programme, Conservation Tiger Standards and Lion’s Share.The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve was chosen based on the Tiger Census conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority in 2018.

With reference to the Negative-Yield Bonds, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. These are debt instruments that offer to pay the investor a maturity amount lower than the purchase price of the bond.
2. These are issued by the World Bank to the member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- Recently, China sold negative-yield debt for the first time, and this saw high demand from investors across the globe.
Option A is correct: A negative bond yield is when an investor receives less money at the bond's maturity than the original purchase price for the bond. A negative bond yield is an unusual situation in which issuers of debt are paid to borrow. These are generally issued by central banks or governments, and investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them. 

With reference to the ‘Willow Warbler’, recently in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the longest migrating small bird.
2. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
3. The Vellayani-Punchakkari paddy fields are the hotspot of these birds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- Willow Warbler (Phylloscopus trochilus), one of the longest migrating small birds that breed throughout northern and temperate Europe and the Palearctic.
Option C is correct: Willow Warbler (Phylloscopus trochilus), one of the longest migrating small birds that breeds throughout northern and temperate Europe and the Palearctic. The bird weighs around 10 g, it’s long wing feathers that help fly long distances makes it peculiar. Usually seen in European and the Palearctic regions, the birds migrate to sub-Saharan Africa during early winter. The Vellayani-Punchakkari paddy fields are a birding hotspot on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram.

Which of the following falls under the term ‘Capital Account’?
1. Portfolio investment
2. External Assistance
3. Transfer payments
4. Commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    2, 3 and 4 only
  • c)
    1, 2 and 4 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
The balance of payments (BoP) records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year. There are two main accounts in the BoP - the current account and the capital account. Capital Account Includes: External Assistance, Commercial Borrowings, Foreign Investment, Portfolio, FII, Non-Resident Deposits, Banking Capital. The current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.

With reference to the Sarna tribals, consider the following statements:
1. They pray to the trees and hills and believe in protecting the forest areas.
2. They are included in separate religious code for tribals of Census 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
In News- The Jharkhand government convened a special Assembly session to pass a resolution to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021.
Option A is correct: Tribal groups have long demanded that followers of their 'Sarna' religion be listed separately as they worship nature and have a distinct tradition and culture. Currently, the census classifies people under six religions - Hindu, Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Jain, and Buddhist -while those who do not subscribe to these are clubbed under the 'Other' category. Jharkhand has 32 tribal groups of which eight are from Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

With reference to the SITMEX-20 defence exercise, consider the following statements:
1. It is a naval exercise between the Quad members for enhancing maritime security in the IndoPacific region.
2. It was announced in Shangri-La Dialogue in June 2018 and conducted annually thereof.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Recently, 2nd edition of SITMEX-20 Naval exercise concluded in the Andaman Sea.
Option B is correct: Indian Navy participated in the 2nd edition of India, Singapore and Thailand Trilateral Maritime Exercise SITMEX-20, which was concluded recently in the Andaman Sea. The Prime Minister of India, during his keynote address at Shangri-La Dialogue in June 2018 announced the conduct of a trilateral naval exercise between India, Singapore and Thailand.  The first edition of Singapore-India-Thailand Maritime Exercise (SITMEX), hosted by Indian Navy, was conducted off Port Blair in September 2019. SITMEX is conducted annually. It will enhance mutual interoperability and imbibing best practices between Indian Navy, Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) and Royal Thai Navy (RTN).

Consider the following statements:
1. Price to book value (P/BV) ratio concept is widely used in detecting the Non-Performing Assets of the Banks.
2. It is a relationship between the market capitalisation of an organisation and the value of assets it possesses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Option C is correct: The price to book value (P/BV) ratio is a valuation parameter used for valuing stocks. In essence, the P/B ratio draws a relationship between the market capitalisation of an organisation and the value of assets it possesses. P/BV is arrived at by dividing the market price of a share with the respective company's book value per share. Book value (BV) is equal to the shareholder's equity (share capital plus reserves and surplus). BV can also be derived by subtracting current and non-current liabilities from total assets. For the banking and finance companies, book value is calculated as 'share capital plus reserves minus miscellaneous assets not written off. This formula then takes care of the bank's NPAs (non performing assets) and gives a correct picture.

Consider the following statements:
1. “Patient Zero” is the first human who will get the world’s first human trial of a vaccine of newly emerged disease.
2. Herd immunity is when a large number of people are vaccinated against a disease and lowering the chances of others being infected by it.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
Statement 1 is not correct: The “patient zero” is a term used to describe the first human infected by a viral or bacterial disease in an outbreak.
Statement 2 is correct: Herd immunity is when a large number of people are vaccinated against a disease, lowering the chances of others being infected by it. When a sufficient percentage of a population is vaccinated, it slows the spread of disease. It is also referred to as community immunity or herd protection.

Recently, India has procured ‘MQ-9B Sea Guardian UAV’ from which of the following countries?
  • a)
    Israel
  • b)
    Russia
  • c)
    France
  • d)
    USA
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- The Indian Navy has leased a pair of MQ-9B SeaGuardian unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) from the United States.
Option D is correct: The Indian Navy has inducted two MQ-9B Sea Guardian unarmed drones procured from the U.S. on lease. The drones are on lease for one year. This will boost India’s intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance capabilities, in the midst of a border row with China in the Ladakh theatre and increased Chinese activity in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). The Defence Acquisition Procedure-2020, which came into effect on October 1, permits the leasing of military hardware to cut down on costs associated with buying equipment.

Which of the following countries borders Syria?
1. Turkey
2. Iran
3. Jordan
4. Saudi Arabia
5. Lebanon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 and 5
  • c)
    1, 3 and 5
  • d)
    3, 4 and 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
Option C is correct: It is a map-based question. As, Syria is located in Western Asia, north of the Arabian Peninsula and at the eastern end of the Mediterranean Sea. It is bordered by Turkey to the north, Lebanon and Israel to the west and southwest, Iraq to the east, and Jordan to the south.

With reference to the Gorumara National Park, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the Eastern Himalayas' submontane Terai belt in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It is located on the flood plains of the Murti River and Raidak River.
3. The park is rich in large herbivores including Indian Rhinoceros and Indian gaur.
Which of the statements given is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, Indian bison killed for aphrodisiac in Gorumara National Park. The park is located in the Eastern Himalayas’ submontane Terai belt. This region has rolling forests and riverine grasslands and is known as the Dooars in West Bengal.
Statement 2 is correct: The park is located on the floodplains of the Murti River and Raidak River. The major river of the park is the Jaldhaka River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra river system. In this regard, Gorumara is a significant watershed area between the Ganges and Brahmaputra river systems.

Energy Technology Perspectives 2020 was released recently by which of the following organisations?
  • a)
    Bureau of Energy Efficiency
  • b)
    International Energy Agency
  • c)
    International Atomic Energy Agency
  • d)
    United Nations Development Programme
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
Option B is correct: Recently, the Environment, Forest and Climate Change Minister Prakash Javadekar addressed at the International Energy Agency's Energy Technology Perspectives 2020 about India’s contribution in compliant in keeping with the Nationally Determined Contributions presented in Paris. Global Energy Review 2020 report is released by the International Energy Agency.

‘90:90:90 Strategy’ is an ambitious treatment that targets to help in ending which of the following diseases?
  • a)
    Tuberculosis (Tb)
  • b)
    Citrus leprosy (CL)
  • c)
    Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
  • d)
    Cancer
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Recently, the Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally addressed the Ministerial meeting of the Global Prevention Coalition (GPC) for Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Prevention.
Option C is correct: In order to fight the war against HIV Aids, the government has launched this ‘90:90:90 Strategy’. It is a new HIV treatment that lays the groundwork to end the AIDS epidemic. 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status (90% diagnosed). 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained antiretroviral therapy (90% on HIV treatment). 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have viral suppression (90% suppressed)

With reference to the ‘Gurdwara Kartarpur Sahib’, consider the following statements:
1. It is located on the bank of the river Chenab.
2. It is the final resting place of Sikh faith’s founder Guru Nanak Dev.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
In News- Recently, Pakistan transferred the management of the Kartarpur Sahib gurudwara from a Sikh body to a separate trust.
Option B is correct: The corridor was built to commemorate 550th birth anniversary celebrations of Guru Nanak Dev in 2019. It is the final resting place of Sikh faith’s founder Guru Nanak Dev, who had spent the last 18 years of his life in Kartarpur until his death in 1539.
The Kartarpur Sahib corridor was first proposed in 1999 when Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee took a bus ride to Lahore. It connects the Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Narowal district of Pakistan with the Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Gurdaspur district in India’s Punjab province.
The gurdwara in Kartarpur is located on the bank of river Ravi in Pakistan. The Kartarpur corridor was thrown open amid heightened tension between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir issue. The corridor was shut in March given the coronavirus pandemic.

‘Anakkayam Hydel Project’ was often seen in the news, it is proposed by which of the following states?
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Karnataka
  • d)
    Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
In News- Recently, Environmentalists and tribal communities have come together to protest against the Anakkayam Small Hydro Electric Project in Kerala.
Option A is correct: In June 2020, the Kerala government approved the Athirapally Hydro Electric Project (AHEP) on the Chalakudy river in Thrissur district of Kerala. Chalakudy River originates in the Anamalai region of Tamil Nadu and is joined by its major tributaries Parambikulam, Kuriyarkutti, Sholayar, Karapara and Anakayam in Kerala. It flows through Palakkad, Thrissur and Ernakulam districts of Kerala.

With reference to the National infrastructure investment fund (NIIF), consider the following statements:
1. It is the first sovereign wealth fund of India.
2. It was established to increase investment in Greenfield and Brownfield projects.
3. It currently manages three funds which are registered as Alternative Investment Fund with the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- Recently, the Union Cabinet approved Rs 6,000 crores of capital infusion into the National Infrastructure Investment Fund as a part of the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
Option A is correct: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors, anchored by the Government of India. The objective behind creating this fund was to maximize economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects, both Greenfield and Brownfield. NIIF currently manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The three funds are- Master Fund is an infrastructure fund with the objective of primarily investing in operating assets in the core infrastructure sectors such as roads, ports, airports, power etc. Fund of Funds is managed by fund managers who have good track records in infrastructure and associated sectors in India. Some of the sectors of focus include Green Infrastructure, Mid-Income & Affordable Housing, Infrastructure services and allied sectors. Strategic Investment Fund is registered as an Alternative Investment Fund II under SEBI in India. The objective is to invest largely in equity and equity-linked instruments. It will focus on greenfield and brownfield investments in the core infrastructure sectors.

Consider the following statements:
1. Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty related to wetland protection.
2. India has the highest Ramsar sites in the South Asia region.
3. Mansar Lake and Asan Conservation Reserve are the Ramsar sites.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
In News- In a move to increase tourism in the Jammu & Kashmir, the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region inaugurated the Mansar Lake Development Plan. Mansar Lake is Ramsar designated site.
All the statements are correct: The Ramsar Convention was signed on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar and it is also called Convention on Wetlands of International Importance. It is the only global treaty to focus on a single ecosystem. It is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord signed by members countries to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance. The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and maintain an international network of wetlands which are important for the conservation of global biological diversity and for sustaining human life through the maintenance of their ecosystem components, processes and benefits. Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are protected under strict guidelines of the convention. India has a total of 39 Ramsar sites, highest in South Asia. Recently, Kabartal Wetland (Bihar) and Asan Conservation Reserve (Uttrakhand) have been designated as Ramsar sites.
Causes of Degradation of Wetlands- Major changes in land use for agriculture and grazing, water diversion for dams and canals and infrastructure development are considered to be some of the main causes of loss and degradation of wetlands.

Which of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked?
  • a)
    Royal haemophilia
  • b)
    Tay- Sachs disease
  • c)
    Cystic fibrosis
  • d)
    Hypertension
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Option A is correct: Royal haemophilia is a sex-linked disease. Clotting of blood is abnormally delayed even small cut will result in non-stop bleeding in the affected individual. Queen Victoria was a carrier of this disease and produced haemophilic descendants.

With reference to Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL), consider the following statements:
1. It is the statutory body for establishing the freight corridors under the Freight Corridor Act of 2016.
2. It is administered by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Option D is correct: Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India (DFCCIL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle set up under the administrative control of Ministry of Railways to undertake planning & development, mobilization of financial resources and construction, maintenance and operation of the Dedicated Freight Corridors. DFCCIL has been set up with 100% equity by Ministry of Railways.  The Ministry of Railways, under the direction of the Indian Government, had taken up the dedicated freight corridor (DFC) project. The project involves the construction of six freight corridors traversing the entire country. The purpose of the project is to provide a safe and efficient freight transportation system.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Saffron flowers cultivation is done throughout the year across the Karewa region of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It is referred to as ‘Bahukam’ in ancient Sanskrit literature.
3. Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir is a Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) recognised sites in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
In News- A pilot project has yielded successful results in Yangyang village of South Sikkim, which produced its first crop of saffron this September.
Statement 1 is not correct: The cultivation of saffron flowers is not done throughout the year. In Jammu and Kashmir, saffron is normally sown in August and till the 15th of September. The flowers are plucked in October and November. During harvesting or plucking of flowers, the atmosphere must not be hot.
Statement 2 is correct: Saffron cultivation is believed to have been introduced in Kashmir by Central Asian immigrants around the 1st Century BCE. In ancient Sanskrit literature, saffron is referred to as ‘bahukam’. The saffron available in Kashmir is of three types — ‘Lachha Saffron’, with stigmas just separated from the flowers and dried without further processing; ‘Mongra Saffron’, in which stigmas are detached from the flower, dried in the sun and processed traditionally; and ‘Guchhi Saffron’, which is the same as Lachha, except that the latter’s dried stigmas are packed loosely in air-tight containers while the former has stigmas joined together in a bundle tied with a cloth thread.
Statement 3 is correct: Saffron cultivation has long been restricted to a limited geographical area in J&K, mainly Pampore, followed by Budgam, Srinagar and Kishtwar districts. Pampore is called Saffron bowl of Kashmir, it is one of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) recognised sites in India. Recently, the Kashmir saffron got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag status.

Consider the following statements:
1. Warli art is a traditional painting art form that belongs to the Warli Tribes of Maharashtra.
2. The figures in this art are created out of geometrical shapes like two triangles, stick-like hands etc.
3. The theme of the art depicts mythological characters as well as the social life of tribals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
In News: Artists in the city of Hyderabad are using the traditional Warli art form to not just beautify the city but also to create awareness on important issues.
Option A is correct: The art is a traditional art form and originally belongs to the Warli Tribes of Maharashtra. It was first discovered in the early seventies. While there are no records of the exact origins of this art, its roots may be traced to as early as the 10th century A.D. The art is the vivid expression of daily and social events of the Warli tribe of Maharashtra. Simplicity is the key in Warli and the figures are created out of geometrical shapes like two triangles, stick-like hands and legs, a circle (representing face), a smaller circle (only for female form to indicate a hair bun) and square. These paintings do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but they depict social life. Images of human beings and animals, along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings and they are painted on an austere mud base using one colour, white, with occasional dots in red and yellow. This colour is obtained from grounding rice into a white powder.

Consider the following statements:
1. Army Aviation Corps (AAC) is the oldest Corps of the Indian Army.
2. The Corps draws its officers and men from all arms of the defence forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- Recently, Army Aviation Corps (AAC) celebrated its 35th Corps Day on November 1.
Both the statements are not correct: The Army Aviation Corps (AAC) celebrated its 35th Corps Day on November 1. It is the youngest corps of the Indian Army. Its origin can be traced back to the Army Aviation wing of the Royal Air Force raised in India in 1942, and the formation of the first Indian Air Observation Post in August 1947. It was raised as a separate formation on November 1 in 1986. It draws officers and men from all arms of the Army and includes a significant number from the artillery. It plays a cardinal role in reconnaissance, observation, casualty evacuation, essential load drops, combat search and rescue. It also participates in Humanitarian Aid and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations in peace times.

With reference to the Indian Polity, consider the following statements:
1. The expression “office of profit” has been defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 but not in the Constitution.
2. Article 102 of the Constitution deals with the office of profit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- The Joint Parliamentary Committee on Office of Profit is deliberating on whether an MP can continue to teach at a university and if this draws the provisions of “Office of Profit” rules.
Option B is correct: If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”. Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature. The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 not in the Constitution.

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