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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Regarding Shri Ramanujacharya, consider the following statements:
1. His theological foundations for devotionalism influenced the Bhakti movement.
2. Ramanuja is known as the founder of the Vishishtadvaita Vedanta subschool.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu paid tributes to the great philosopher, saint & social reformer, Shri Ramanujacharya Ji on his Jayanti.
  • Ramanuja or Ramanujacharya (c. 1017–1137 CE) was an Indian philosopher, Hindu theologian, social reformer, and one of the most important exponents of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition within Hinduism.
  • His philosophical foundations for devotionalism were influential to the Bhakti movement.
  • Ramanuja's guru was Yādava Prakāśa, a scholar who was a part of the more ancient Advaita Vedānta monastic tradition.
  • Sri Vaishnava tradition holds that Ramanuja disagreed with his guru and the non-dualistic Advaita Vedānta, and instead followed in the footsteps of Tamil Alvārs tradition, the scholars Nāthamuni and Yamunāchārya.
  • Ramanuja is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta, and his disciples were likely authors of texts such as the Shatyayaniya Upanishad.
  • Ramanuja himself wrote influential texts, such as bhāsya on the Brahma Sutras and the Bhagavad Gita, all in Sanskrit.
  • His Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism) philosophy has competed with the Dvaita (theistic dualism) philosophy of Madhvāchārya, and Advaita (non-dualism) philosophy of Ādi Shankara, together the three most influential Vedantic philosophies of the 2nd millennium.
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Consider the following statements regarding Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
1. Two spacecraft, Chandrayaan-1 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft, were successfully launched.
2. It is a launch vehicle of the second generation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is India's third generation launch vehicle. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
  • After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as the reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India with 39 consecutively successful missions by June 2017. During 1994-2017 period, the vehicle has launched 48 Indian satellites and 209 satellites for customers from abroad.
  • The vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 – that later travelled to Moon and Mars respectively.

Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal.
1. The National Green Tribunal is solely responsible for hearing environmental cases in the country.
2. Unless the parties file an appeal with the Supreme Court, the NGT's decision is final.
3. The NGT is unable to provide liability or damages to those who have been harmed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    1 and 3
  • c)
    2 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • The National Green Tribunal, established in 2010, as per the National Green Tribunal Act is a specialised judicial body equipped with expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country.
  • The Tribunal is tasked with providing effective and expeditious remedy in cases relating to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources and enforcement of any legal right relating to environment. The Tribunal’s orders are binding and it has power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons.
  • The Tribunal has a presence in five zones- North, Central, East, South and West. The Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
  • The Tribunal’s orders are enforceable as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.
  • The Tribunal is an open court and its proceedings can be attended in person.

Consider the following statements regarding coal gasification and its advantage.
1. Coal gasification is the method of turning coal into syngas, which includes hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide.
2. The coal gasification method cannot use low-grade coal.
3. It decreases reliance on liquefied natural gas imports.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2). The syngas can be used in various applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products, such as fertilisers.
  • According to the International Energy Agency’s Energy Technology Systems Analysis Programme (ETSAP), the coal gasification process holds good potential in the future, with coal being the most abundantly available fossil fuel across the world, and that even low-grade coal can be used in the process.

Consider the following statements regarding World Health Organisation funding (WHO).
1. WHO is funded by membership fees paid by Member States and voluntary donations from Member States and other stakeholders.
2. The United States was the most generous donor to the World Health Organization in the 2018/2019 biennium.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
  • WHO gets its funding from two main sources: Member States paying their assessed contributions (countries’ membership dues), and voluntary contributions from Member States and other partners.
  • Assessed contributions (AC) are a percentage of a country’s Gross Domestic Product (the UN General Assembly agrees the percentage). Member States approve them every two-years at the World Health Assembly. They cover less than 20% of the total budget.
  • The WHO Foundation was launched on 27 May 2020. It is legally separate from WHO and it will facilitate contributions from the general public, individual major donors and corporate partners to WHO and trusted partners to deliver on high-impact programmes.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Racism?
1. Discrimination towards members of a foreign group or country is known as Racism.
2. Discrimination based on race is prohibited under Article 24 of the Indian Constitution.
3. The International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination has been signed by India (ICERD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • The stark difference is Racism and Xenophobia is that Racism is discrimination based on physical characteristics whereas xenophobia is discrimination based on the perception that someone is foreign or originating from another community or nation. 
    • The word Xenophobia originates from the Greek word Xeno.
    • Xenophobia and Racism are often overlapped.
  • Article 15, Article 16 and Article 29 of India's Constitution prohibit discrimination on ground of "race". 
    • Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) also refers to "race".
    • Article 24 of the Indian Constitution deals with Prohibition of Child Labour.
  • India also ratified the International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD) in 1968.

Consider the following statements regarding Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR).
1. The incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR) describes the relationship between the amount of money invested in the economy and the rise in GDP that results (GDP).
2. The higher the ICOR, the higher the resource productivity.
3. In India, the ICOR has decreased significantly over the last ten years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
  • The Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR) is the ratio of investment to growth, which is equal to the reciprocal of capital's marginal product. 
  • The higher the ICOR, the lower the productivity of capital or the marginal efficiency of capital. The ICOR can be thought of as a measure of the inefficiency with which capital is used.

Consider the following statements regarding Primary deficit.
1. The sum of the fiscal deficit and interest payments is the primary deficit.
2. It contains the debt from the past.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
  • The government's total borrowing requirement includes the interest commitments on accumulated debts.
  • Primary deficit reflects the extent to which such interest commitments have compelled the government to borrow in the current period.
  • It excludes the past debt burden and shows the net increase in the government's indebtedness due to the current year's fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government's efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.

Artificial Intelligence is beneficial in which of the following areas?
1. Personalized online Shopping
2. Credit card frauds prevention
3. GPS mapping technology
4. Identify nutrient deficiencies in the soil
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
AI's exponential growth
It is embedded in the recommendations we get on our favourite streaming or shopping site; in GPS mapping technology, in the predictive text that completes our sentences when we try to send an email or complete a web search.
AI in E-Commerce
Personalized Shopping
Artificial Intelligence technology is used to create recommendation engines to engage better with your customers.
Fraud Prevention
Credit card frauds and fake reviews are two of the most significant issues that E-Commerce companies deal with. By considering the usage patterns, AI can help reduce the possibility of credit card frauds taking place.
AI in Agriculture
Artificial Intelligence is used to identify defects and nutrient deficiencies in the soil. This is done using computer vision, robotics, and machine learning. AI can analyze where weeds are growing.
AI in Automobiles
Artificial Intelligence is used to build self-driving vehicles. AI can be used along with the vehicle's camera, radar, cloud services, GPS, and control signals to operate the vehicle.

Consider the following statements:
1. The rivers Ken and Betwa are tributaries of the Yamuna.
2. The Ken Betwa Connection Project aims to transfer excess water from the Betwa River in Uttar Pradesh to the Ken River in MP.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Das answered
1. The rivers Ken and Betwa are tributaries of the Yamuna.

This statement is incorrect. The rivers Ken and Betwa are not tributaries of the Yamuna. The Ken River is a tributary of the Yamuna River, but the Betwa River is not. The Betwa River is a tributary of the Yamuna River. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. The Ken Betwa Connection Project aims to transfer excess water from the Betwa River in Uttar Pradesh to the Ken River in MP.

This statement is correct. The Ken Betwa Connection Project is a proposed river interlinking project in India. It aims to transfer excess water from the Ken River in Uttar Pradesh to the Betwa River in Madhya Pradesh. The project involves the construction of a dam on the Ken River near the village of Daudhan in Uttar Pradesh. This dam will create a reservoir that will store water during the monsoon season. The stored water will then be transferred to the Betwa River through a canal system. The project aims to provide irrigation water to drought-prone areas in both Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh and to generate hydroelectric power.

Conclusion:

Based on the above analysis, we can conclude that statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option A - 2 only.

Regarding the new emission norms for coal fired power plants, consider the following statements:
1. The federal government recently delayed the 2017 deadline for thermal power plants to instal sulphur dioxide-reducing Flue Gas Desulphurization (FGD) units.
2. the Central Pollution Control Board will constitute a task force to categorise plants in three categories “based on their location to comply with the emission norms”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
According to a notice, the government has pushed back deadlines for coal-fired power plants to adopt new emission norms by up to three years and allowed utilities that miss the new target to continue operating after paying a penalty.
  • India had initially set a 2017 deadline for thermal power plants to install Flue Gas Desulphurization (FGD) units that cut emissions of sulphur dioxides. But that was postponed to varying deadlines for different regions, ending in 2022.
  • The new order dated April 1 from the environment Ministry said plants near populous regions and the capital New Delhi will have to comply by 2022, while utilities in less polluting areas have up to 2025 to comply or retire units.
  • Operators of coal-fired utilities have long been lobbying for dilution of the pollution standards, citing high compliance costs.
  • The Central Pollution Control Board will constitute a task force to categorise plants in three categories “on the basis of their location to comply with the emission norms”.
  • In case of non-compliance, a penalty of up to ₹0.20 will be levied for every unit of electricity produced.

Consider the following statements regarding Arctic Council.
1. Arctic Council is an intergovernmental forum that addresses the Arctic governments' issues and the indigenous people of the Arctic.
2. Russia, Canada, United Kingdom and Norway are the Arctic Council members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

G.K Academy answered
  • The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses the Arctic governments' issues and the indigenous people of the Arctic.
  • The eight countries with sovereignty over the lands within the Arctic Circle constitute the council members: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United States.
  • Observer status is open to non-Arctic states approved by the Council at the Ministerial Meetings that occur once every two years. Observers have no voting rights in the Council. As of May 2019, thirteen non-Arctic states have Observer status. India has the Observer status in Arctic Council.

Consider the following statements about Odia language:
1. It is the mother of the eastern Indo-Aryan languages.
2. Sanskrit is the language from which it is derived.
3. Mahabharata was written in Odia by Adikabi Sarala Das.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    2 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
  • Odia is the oldest language of the eastern group of the Indo-Aryan family. 
  • It is derived from Ardha Magadhi Prakrit. 
  • Odia is one of the six languages that got Classical Status in India.
  • It is one of the officially “scheduled” languages of the Indian constitution.
  • It is also the main official language of the Indian state of Odisha.
  • Adikabi Sarala Das was one of the great scholars of Odia literature and the first one to write his works in Odia in 15th century A.D.
    • He was best known for three Odia books, Mahabharata, Vilanka Ramayana and Chandi Purana. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • He also wrote the book Laxmi Narayana Vachanika.

Consider the following statements about Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
1. The Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934 created it.
2. The chairman of the committee is India'sIndia's Finance Secretary.
3. The MPC is in charge of deciding on the inflation target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, for maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. 
  • The Governor of RBI is ex-officio Chairman of the committee. 
  • The MPC determines the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target (4%).
    • It is the Central Government of India that determines the Inflation Target. 
  • An RBI-appointed committee led by the then deputy governor Urjit Patel in 2014 recommended establishing the Monetary Policy Committee.

Punjab Raunak and Punjab Bharpoor are two anthocyanin-rich varieties of:
  • a)
    Brinjal
  • b)
    Cotton
  • c)
    Mustard
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
Punjab has come up with offerings of a bouquet of improved crop and vegetable varieties which are rich in nutrients.
  • 'PAU 1 Chapatti' with low polyphenols and outstanding processing qualities has been shortlisted for commercialization whereas wheat candidate varieties having high grain protein, high zinc, low phytates and high carotenoids have been developed.
  • Besides this, Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has offered to growers two carotene rich cherry tomato varieties called Punjab Sona and Punjab Kesar and two anthocyanin rich brinjal varieties called Punjab Raunak and Punjab Bharpoor with antioxidant properties.
  • The varieties and genetic stocks have been developed by the Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) with support from the Promotion of University Research and Scientific Excellence (PURSE) grant provided by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India.

Kuka Revolt of Punjab is aimed at
  • a)
    Achieve justice for the martyrs of Punjab in the 1857 Revolt
  • b)
    Freeing the Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt Mahants
  • c)
    Making Sikh land independent from British control
  • d)
    Reforming the Sikh religion by removing all the abuses, superstitions and ill-practices
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • The Kuka Movement was founded in 1840 by Bhagat Jawahar Mal (also called Sian Saheb) in western Punjab. A major leader of the movement after him was Baba Ram Singh. (He founded the Namdhari Sikh sect.) 
  • After the British took Punjab, the movement got transformed from a religious purification campaign to a political campaign. Its basic tenets were abolition of caste and similar discriminations among Sikhs, discouraging the consumption of meat and alcohol and drugs, permission for intermarriages, widow remarriage, and encouraging women to step out of seclusion.

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of CSR is governed by Corporate Social Responsibility Act, 2013.
2. The CSR provisions are applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 1,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
     1 only
  • b)
     2 only
  • c)
     Both 1 and 2
  • d)
     Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • The term "Corporate Social Responsibility" in general can be referred to as a corporate initiative to assess and take responsibility for the company's effects on the environment and impact on social welfare.
  • In India, the concept of CSR is governed by clause 135 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • India is the first country in the world to mandate CSR spending along with a framework to identify potential CSR activities.
  • The CSR provisions within the Act is applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 1,000 crore and more, or a net worth of Rs. 500 crore and more, or a net profit of Rs. 5 crore and more. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Regarding Lingayats, consider the following statements:
1. Basavanna, a social reformer and philosopher, founded the sect during the Vedic period.
2. The Lingayats are strict monotheists who believe in only one god, Vishnu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Surbhi Rane answered
Lingayats:

Lingayats are a religious community in India, primarily found in Karnataka, who follow the teachings of 12th-century social reformer and philosopher Basavanna. They reject the caste system and emphasize equality and social justice.

Statement 1:

The statement is incorrect. Basavanna founded the Lingayat sect in the 12th century AD, which is after the Vedic period. He rebelled against the Brahminical orthodoxy of his time and sought to create a new religion that was more egalitarian and inclusive.

Statement 2:

The statement is incorrect. Lingayats are not strict monotheists who believe in only one god, Vishnu. They believe in a formless god, referred to as Shiva or Basavanna, who is seen as a universal force that permeates all of creation. They reject the traditional Hindu concept of multiple gods and goddesses and do not believe in idol worship.

Conclusion:

Therefore, both statements given in the question are incorrect, and the correct answer is option 'D' (Neither 1 nor 2).

Consider the following statements regarding Ocean Energy.
1. Various forms of ocean energy include tidal, wave and ocean thermal energy.
2. Ocean Energy is considered as renewable energy and is eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).
3. In India, Ocean Energy capacity is installed in Khambat & Kutch regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Naroj Boda answered
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has declared Ocean Energy as renewable energy.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has clarified to all the stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave, ocean thermal energy conversion among others shall be considered as renewable energy and shall be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).
As of date, there is not any installed Ocean Energy capacity in India.
According to MNRE, the total identified potential of tidal energy is about 12,455 MW, with potential locations identified at Khambat & Kutch regions, and large backwaters, where barrage technology could be used. The total theoretical potential of wave energy in India along the country’s coast is estimated to be about 40,000 MW – these are preliminary estimates. This energy is however less intensive than what is available in more northern and southern latitudes. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) has a theoretical potential of 180,000 MW in India subject to suitable technological evolution.

Consider the following statements regarding the Classical dances of India:
1. Kerala's Kathakali and Mohiniattam are among India's eight classical dances.
2. Kalladikodan shailee is a common Mohiniyattam dance style.
3. Bharatnatyam dancer Guru Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair was a well-known figure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
  • There are eight Classical Dances of India: Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (North India), Kathakali (Kerala), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odisha), Sattriya (Assam) and Manipuri (Manipur). 
  • The Kalladikodan shailee is one among the three major styles of Kathakali. The other two are Vettathu and Kaplingadu. 
    • The Kalladikodan style gives equal importance to the three aspects of nritta (the dance movements in their basic form), nritya (expressional component i.e. mudras or gestures) and natya (the dramatic element of the dance i.e. the imitation of characters).
  • Guru Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair was a Kathakali maestro. 
    • He studied at Kalladikkodan school of Kathakali and was specialised in the "Kalladikodan" style.

Consider the following statements regarding Chipko and Appiko Movements.
1. The Chipko Movement was a forest conservation movement in North India, while the Appiko Movement was an anti-tree-felling and anti-deforestation movement in South India. Both movements occurred at the same time.
2. Women played an important role in both movements.
3. The Chipko Movement's chief, Sunderlal Bahuguna, was recognised.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    3 only
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
  • On September 8, 1983, around 70 villagers from the Salkani village of Uttara Kannada district stood hugging the trees of the Kalse forests to prevent them from being felled by state authorities. 
  • Founded and led by environmental activist Panduranga Hegde, the movement christened Appiko ("hug" in Kannada, symbolizing protection for the tree) became south India's first large-scale ecological movement.
  • Inspired by the tree-hugging Chipko forest conservation movement in the North, the Appiko movement continues its fight against tree-felling and deforestation in Uttara Kannada and other hill districts in Karnataka and Kerala.
  • The significant participation of women is another common feature of both movements. While Sunderlal Bahuguna is acknowledged as the leader of Chipko, the contributions of women such as Gaura Devi, president of the Mahila Mangala Dal, are not to be forgotten either.
Chipko began in 1973 in Uttarakhand, then a part of Uttar Pradesh (at the Himalayas' foothills).

Consider the following statements regarding Sambhar Lake.
1. In Gujarat, India's largest inland salt lake, Sambhar Lake, is situated.
2. The Aravali hills surround the lake on all sides.
3. Since it is a key wintering place for tens of thousands of pink flamingos and other birds, it has been designated as a Ramsar site.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
  • The Sambhar Salt Lake, India’s largest inland Salt Lake, is located in Rajasthan.
  • The lake receives water from five rivers: Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh, Khari, and Khandela.
  • It is surrounded by the Aravali hills on all sides.
  • Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because the wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of pink flamingos and other birds that migrate from northern Asia and Siberia. The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water colours and support the lake ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl.

Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of Varahamihira.
1. Varahamihira improved the accuracy of Aryabhata's sine tables.
2. Varahamihira's most popular work is Pacasiddhntik, which contains five moral principles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • Varahamihira improved the accuracy of the sine tables of Aryabhata.
  • Varahamihira's main work is the book Pañcasiddhāntikā ("[Treatise] on the Five [Astronomical] Canons"), which gives us information about older Indian texts which are now lost. The work is a treatise on mathematical astronomy and it summarises five earlier astronomical treatises by five authors, namely the Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta.

Regarding the Finance Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Cabinet has approved the Government's amendments to the Finance Bill 2021 ex post facto.
2. The Government's amendments to the Finance Bill 2021 are tax reforms that will produce timely revenue for the government while also streamlining existing provisions by resolving taxpayer grievances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
The Union Cabinet has given ex-post facto approval for the Government amendments to the Finance Bill, 2021 (enacted on 28th March, 2021 as the Finance Act, 2021).
  • The amendments were essential to clarify and rationalise the proposals further and address stakeholders concerns arising out of amendments proposed in the Finance Bill.
  • The Government amendments to the Finance Bill, 2021 shall provide equity and inclusiveness to all the taxpayers by addressing stakeholders concerns arising out of amendments proposed in the Bill.
  • The Government amendments to the Finance Bill, 2021 are tax proposals which shall generate timely revenue for the Government and streamline existing provisions by addressing grievances of the taxpayers.

Consider the following statements:
1. India ratified the 1951 United Nations Convention on the Status of Refugees and its 1967 Protocol.
2. India does not have its own refugee policy or legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Last week, the Supreme Court appeared to accept the Centre's contention that the Rohingya people in India are illegal immigrants. Most of them are in a detention camp in Jammu, and others in Delhi. It said they should be deported according to procedures under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
  • Under the 1951 UN Convention on the Status of Refugees and the subsequent 1967 Protocol, the word refugee pertains to any person who is outside their country of origin and unable or unwilling to return owing to well-founded fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.
  • Stateless persons may also be refugees in this sense, where country of origin (citizenship) is understood as 'country of former habitual residence'.
India & UN convention
  • India has welcomed refugees in the past, and on date, nearly 300,000 people here are categorised as refugees.
  • But India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention on the Status of Refugees and the subsequent 1967 Protocol.
  • Nor does India have a refugee policy or a refugee law of its own.
  • In recent years, the closest India has come to a refugee policy is the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, which discriminates between refugees based on religion in offering them Indian citizenship.

Consider the following statements regarding Government securities, or G-secs.
1. Government securities are debt instruments that the government issues to borrow funds.
2. Treasury bills are long-term investments with maturities ranging from 5 to 40 years.
3. Dated securities are short-term investments that expire in less than a year.
4. G-secs are not tax-free like bank fixed deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    1, 4
  • c)
    1, 2, 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently said that it will give small investors direct access to its government securities trading platform.
What are government securities, or g-secs?
These are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money. The two key categories are treasury bills – short-term instruments that mature in 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and dated securities – long-term instruments that mature anywhere between 5 years and 40 years.
But can't retail investors already invest in g-secs?
Small investors can invest indirectly in g-secs by buying mutual funds or certain life insurance firms' policies.
So what is the need for the current proposal, then?
The g-sec market is dominated by institutional investors such as banks, mutual funds, and insurance companies. These entities trade in lot sizes of Rs 5 crore or more.
So, there is no liquidity in the secondary market for small investors who would want to trade in smaller lot sizes.
Like bank fixed deposits, g-secs are not tax-free.
They are generally considered the safest form of investment because the government backs them. So, the risk of default is almost nil.
However, they are not completely risk free, since they are subject to fluctuations in interest rates.

In which of the following fields is DNA profiling used?
1. Criminal investigations
2. Parentage testing
3. Genealogical research
4. Study of animal and plant populations
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    1, 3, 4
  • c)
    2, 3, 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
  • DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting) is the process of determining an individual’s DNA characteristics.
  • DNA profiling is a forensic technique in criminal investigations, comparing criminal suspects’ profiles to DNA evidence to assess the likelihood of their involvement in the crime. 
  • It is also used in parentage testing to establish immigration eligibility and genealogical and medical research. DNA profiling has also been used in the study of animal and plant populations in zoology, botany, and agriculture.

Concerning the "Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)", consider the following statements:
1. The Empowered Group of Secretaries, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, will oversee the scheme at the middle.
2. A Project Management Agency will be in charge of implementing the scheme (PMA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
The Union Cabinet has approved the Central Sector Scheme - "Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI)" with an outlay of Rs. 10900 crore.
  • The objectives of the Scheme are to support food manufacturing entities with stipulated minimum Sales and willing to make minimum stipulated investment for expansion of processing capacity and Branding abroad to incentivise emergence of strong Indian brands.
  • The scheme will be rolled out on All India basis.
  • The scheme shall be implemented through a Project Management Agency (PMA). The Scheme would be monitored at Centre by the Empowered Group of Secretaries chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
  • The duration of the scheme will be six years i.e., 2021-22 to 2026-27. The incentive under the scheme would be paid for six years ending 2026-27.
  • The scheme is "fund-limited", i.e., cost shall be restricted to the approved amount.

About Net-Zero Emissions, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to the goal of achieving net carbon neutrality in the atmosphere.
2. By 2050, India has committed to achieving net-zero emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
  • 'Net zero emissions' refers to achieving an overall balance between greenhouse gas emissions produced and greenhouse gas emissions are taken out of the atmosphere. 
  • There is global pressure on India to commit net-zero emissions by 2050. However, India has not yet committed to it. 

Consider the following statements:
1. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India (CJI) under Article 124 of the Constitution.
2. The Supreme Court collegium recommends the appointment of the Chief Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Rane answered
Explanation:
Statement 1: The President appoints the Chief Justice of India (CJI) under Article 124 of the Constitution.
- This statement is incorrect. The appointment of the Chief Justice of India is not made by the President but by the President on the recommendation of the outgoing CJI and in consultation with the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court as per the Memorandum of Procedure.
- Article 124 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of judges in the Supreme Court. The CJI is appointed by the President based on the recommendation of the collegium system rather than a direct appointment by the President.
Statement 2: The Supreme Court collegium recommends the appointment of the Chief Justice.
- This statement is correct. The collegium system, which consists of the CJI and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, recommends the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court, including the appointment of the Chief Justice of India.
- The collegium system was established through judicial interpretation and is not mentioned in the Constitution. It has been criticized for lacking transparency and accountability, but it remains the prevailing method of judicial appointments in India.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only, as the President does not directly appoint the Chief Justice of India under Article 124 of the Constitution, but rather does so based on the recommendation of the Supreme Court collegium.

Consider the following statements regarding Eravikulam National Park.
1. Eravikulam National Park is situated in Tamil Nadu, along the Western Ghats.
2. The landscape is made up of sholas and high-altitude grasslands.
3. The highest point in south India, Anamudi, is situated here.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
Eravikulam National Park is located along the Western Ghats in the Idukki district of Kerala.
  • The terrain consists of high-altitude grasslands interspersed with sholas. Anamudi, 2,695 meters, the highest peak in south India is inside this park.
The Grasshopper Specialist Group of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is initiating the Red List Assessment of grasshoppers in India for the first time.
The assessment will include a new grasshopper species discovered recently in the Eravikulam National Park in Kerala's Idukki district.
None of the Indian grasshopper species have been listed in the Red Data Book. The Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory of biological species' global conservation status.

Regarding Gravitational Waves, consider the following statements:
1. Only when two black holes collide will gravitational waves be formed.
2. They can fly at the speed of light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Bajaj answered
Statement 1: Only when two black holes collide will gravitational waves be formed.
Statement 2: Gravitational waves can fly at the speed of light.

Explanation:
Gravitational Waves:
Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by the acceleration of massive objects. They were first predicted by Albert Einstein in his general theory of relativity in 1916 and were finally detected in 2015.

Statement 1: Only when two black holes collide will gravitational waves be formed.
This statement is correct. Gravitational waves are generated when massive objects undergo certain violent events, such as the collision of two black holes or the merger of two neutron stars. These events cause the spacetime fabric to ripple, emitting gravitational waves that propagate through space.

Statement 2: Gravitational waves can fly at the speed of light.
This statement is correct. According to the theory of general relativity, gravitational waves travel at the speed of light in a vacuum. This means that they propagate through space at a speed of approximately 299,792 kilometers per second. The speed of light is considered to be the ultimate speed limit in the universe, and gravitational waves obey this limit.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, both statements are correct. Gravitational waves are formed when two black holes collide or during other violent cosmic events, and they propagate through space at the speed of light. The discovery of gravitational waves has opened up a new window into the study of the universe and has provided scientists with valuable insights into the nature of spacetime and the behavior of massive objects.

Consider the following statements regarding Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index(CPI).
1. WPI pertains to only goods, not services.
2. WPI captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator.
3. WPI has a higher weight of manufactured goods and the CPI has a greater constitution of food items.
4. RBI considers WPI as the main metric for the purpose of setting monetary policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
While the Consumer Price Index-based retail inflation — the more widely tracked policy tool — looks at the price at which the consumer buys goods, the WPI tracks prices at the wholesale, or factory gate/mandi levels. Between the wholesale price and the retail price, the difference essentially is the former only tracks basic prices devoid of transportation cost, taxes and the retail margin etc. And that WPI pertains to only goods, not services.
So, the WPI basically captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator (the ratio of the value of goods an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year).
In recent years, the WPI and CPI have shown a degree of dissonance, given that the WPI has a higher weight of manufactured goods and the CPI has a greater constitution of food items. 
WPI numbers are not the RBI’s main metric for the purpose of setting monetary policy.

Concerning the National climate vulnerability assessment report, consider the following statements:
1. Jharkhand, Mizoram, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Assam, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, and West Bengal have been listed as particularly vulnerable states to climate change.
2. As part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) has been implementing the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and the National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The National climate vulnerability assessment report released today has identified Jharkhand, Mizoram, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Assam, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, and West Bengal as states highly vulnerable to climate change.
  • In the eastern part of the country, these states require prioritization of adaptation interventions, the report pointed out.
  • The report titled ‘Climate Vulnerability Assessment for Adaptation Planning in India Using a Common Framework’, which identifies the most vulnerable states and districts in India with respect to current climate risk and key drivers of vulnerability, was released by Department of Science & Technology (DST).
  • A total of 94 representatives from 24 states and 2 Union Territories participated in the nation-wide exercise jointly supported by the DST and the Swiss Agency for Development & Cooperation (SDC).
  • DST has been implementing 2 national missions as part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change. These are National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC).

Depreciation in the rupee would negatively impact Indian in which of the following areas?
1. Foreign education
2. Foreign Travel
3. Investments abroad
4. NRI sending money back home
5. Crude import
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 5 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3, 5 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Depreciation in the rupee impacts all expenditure in dollar terms— imports, foreign education, travel, investments abroad, medical treatment etc. On the other hand, if you are an exporter or an NRI sending money back home, depreciation would fetch you more rupees per dollar.
A depreciating rupee increases the cost of crude import, which accounts for almost 20% of India’s imports. A rise in cost of crude raises fuel prices and inflation. That, in turn, leads to a rise in interest rates, which increases our borrowing cost.

With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
1. They are positive rights that bind the state to positive obligations.
2. The DPSPs are not legally enforceable.
3. The values outlined in DPSPs are critical to good governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Raksha Khanna answered



Explanation:

1. Positive rights and obligations:
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are positive rights that bind the state to positive obligations.
- These principles provide guidelines for the government to establish a social and economic framework that promotes the welfare of the people.

2. Legal enforceability:
- While the DPSPs are not legally enforceable in a court of law, they serve as a moral and political obligation for the government to strive towards achieving the goals outlined in them.
- Although not enforceable, they are still considered significant in shaping the policies and laws of the country.

3. Values critical to good governance:
- The values outlined in the DPSPs are indeed critical to good governance as they emphasize the importance of social justice, equality, and the overall well-being of the citizens.
- By adhering to these principles, the government can ensure a more just and equitable society for all.
Therefore, all of the statements given in the question are correct:
- Statement 1: The DPSPs are indeed positive rights that bind the state to positive obligations.
- Statement 2: DPSPs are not legally enforceable.
- Statement 3: The values outlined in DPSPs are critical to good governance.

Jordan is bordered by which of the following countries?
1. Saudi Arabia
2. Iraq
3. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
In a marked flare-up in tensions within Jordan’s royal household, Prince Hamzah bin Al Hussein, the former crown prince and half-brother of ruling monarch Abdullah, has reportedly been placed under house arrest as part of a crackdown on critics.
  • Jordan is an Arab country in Western Asia's Levant region, on the East Bank of the Jordan River.
  • Jordan is bordered by Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Syria, Israel and Palestine (West Bank).
  • The Dead Sea is located along its western borders and the country has a 26-kilometre coastline on the Red Sea in its extreme south-west.
  • Its capital city is Amman.
  • The sovereign state is a constitutional monarchy, but the king holds wide executive and legislative powers.
  • Sunni Islam, practised by around 95% of the population, is the dominant religion and coexists with an indigenous Christian minority.

The term “Sub Urbanisation” refers to
  • a)
    Movement of population from urban areas to rural areas
  • b)
    Movement of people from central urban area to satellite communities
  • c)
    Population shift from rural areas into suburbs
  • d)
    Reduction of population in lower tier cities
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Hrishikesh Iyer answered
"the term" is a phrase that is often used to refer to a specific word or concept that is being discussed or defined. It is used to highlight that the following information pertains to the specific term or word being referred to.

Consider the following statements regarding Environment Impact Assessment (EIA).
1. The Environment Impact Assessment Act of 1986 establishes a regulatory framework for India's environmental impact assessment.
2. It identifies a project's natural, social, and economic impacts before deciding whether to implement it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Naroj Boda answered
  • Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is a formal process used to predict any development project's environmental consequences. Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutory backed by the Environment Protection Act in 1986, which contains various EIA methodology and process provisions.
Rationale behind EIA: EIA looks into various problems, conflicts and natural resource constraints which may not only affect the viability of a project but also predict if a project might harm to the people, their land, livelihoods and environment. Once these potential harmful impacts are predicted, the EIA process identifies the measures to minimize those impacts.
  • The EIA's objective is to: Identify the environmental, social and economic impacts of a project prior to deciding on its implementation. Mitigation of harmful impacts and maximizes the beneficial effects.
  • Once the assessment is complete, the EIA findings are communicated to all stakeholders viz. developers, investors, regulators, planners, politicians, affected communities etc. Based on the conclusion of EIA process, the government can decide if a project should be given environment clearance or not. The developers and investors can also shape the project so that its harms can be mitigated and benefits can be maximized.

Concerning the INS Viraat, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Navy's Viraat was a Centaur-class aircraft carrier. 
2. The Royal Navy's HMS Hermes was completed and commissioned in 1959, and it was decommissioned in 1984.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
INS Viraat, the Navy's decommissioned aircraft carrier, has become the "private property" of a ship-breaker who has already torn down 40% of its body, chiefly for scrap, the Supreme Court told a private company, that wants to turn the vessel into a maritime museum-cum-adventure center.
  • On February 10, the court had ordered a stay in the process of dismantling the ship.
  • The carrier was bought by the Gujarat-based Shree Ram Group, a ship-breaking firm, in a bid. The 67-year-old iconic warship was towed to the breaking yard after over three decades' service in the Navy.
  • INS Viraat was a Centaur-class aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy.
  • INS Viraat was the flagship of the Indian Navy before INS Vikramaditya was commissioned in 2013.
  • The ship was completed and commissioned in 1959 as the Royal Navy's HMS Hermes, and decommissioned in 1984. It was sold to India in 1987. INS Viraat was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1987 until 2016 when it was decommissioned.

Find the following points about the Light Weight Bullet Proof Jacket:
1. The Defence Materials and Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE) in Kanpur is responsible for its development.
2. It weighs 9 kg and meets the Indian Army's quality specifications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has congratulated DRDO and DMSRDE Kanpur for developing a Light Weight Bullet Proof Jacket.
  • Defence Materials and Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur, a DRDO laboratory has developed a Light Weight Bullet Proof Jacket weighing 9 kg meeting the qualitative requirements of Indian Army.
  • The Front Hard Armour Panel jacket was tested successfully at TBRL Chandigarh and met relevant BIS standards.

Consider the following statements about Project RE-HAB:
1. It was set up to prevent elephant attacks in human settlements.
2. It is one of the National Honey Mission's sub-missions.
3. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission will carry out the project (KVIC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    All of above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • Project RE-HAB (Reducing Elephant-Human Attacks using Bees) has been recently launched in Karnataka which entails installing bee boxes along the forest periphery and the villages to mitigate human-elephant conflict.
  • It is intended to create "bee fences" to thwart elephant attacks in human habitations using honeybees. 
    • The bee boxes will dissuade elephants without causing any harm to them.
    • It is extremely cost-effective compared to various other measures such as digging trenches or erecting fences.
  • These spots are located on the periphery of Nagarahole National Park and Tiger Reserve, which is a known conflict zone.
  • The Project is an initiative of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
  • It is a sub-mission of KVIC's National Honey Mission. 

Regarding the Terai Arc Landscape (TAL), consider the following statements:
1. It runs between the Yamuna River in the west and the Bagmati River in the east.
2. Only the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are affected.
3. This area includes the Corbett Tiger Reserve and the Valmiki Tiger Reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river Bagmati. The Bagmati River is a river in south-central Nepal and northern Bihar state. Comprises the Shivalik hills, the adjoining bhabhar areas and the Terai flood plains. The bhabhar is that part of the Indian Northern Plains where the rivers, after descending from the mountains, deposit pebbles. It is a narrow belt, having a width of about 8 to 16 km and lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks. All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt. South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet, swampy and marshy region known as terai. It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and Nepal's low lying hills. It boasts of some of India’s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas such as Corbett Tiger Reserve (Uttarakhand), Rajaji National Park (Uttarakhand), Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (Uttar Pradesh), Valmiki Tiger Reserve (Bihar). In total, the landscape has 13 Protected Areas, 9 in India and 4 in Nepal, covering a total area of 49,500 km2, of which 30,000 km2 lies in India. The forests are home to three flagship species, the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris), the greater one horned rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) and the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus).

Consider the following statements:
1. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a United Nations specialist agency.
2. India is a member of the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Srestha Bajaj answered
Answer:

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shipping and maritime activities worldwide. It was established in 1948 and has its headquarters in London, United Kingdom. The IMO's primary purpose is to promote safe, secure, and environmentally friendly shipping.

Statement 1: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a United Nations specialist agency.

This statement is correct. The IMO is indeed a specialized agency of the United Nations. It works closely with other UN agencies and organizations to achieve its goals and objectives. The IMO's work is guided by various international treaties and conventions, including the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

Statement 2: India is a member of the International Maritime Organization (IMO).

This statement is also correct. India is a member of the IMO and actively participates in its activities. As a member, India has the opportunity to contribute to the development and implementation of international maritime regulations and standards. India's membership allows it to have a voice in shaping global maritime policies and ensure its interests are represented.

India's membership in the IMO is crucial as it is one of the largest maritime nations in the world. The country has a long coastline and extensive maritime trade, making it important for India to actively engage with international maritime organizations to ensure the safety and security of its maritime activities.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations, and India is a member of the IMO.

Tax buoyancy refers to tax revenue growth's responsiveness to changes in GDP. If there is an output growth and the tax buoyancy is not proportional, then it can imply
  • a)
    There is tax evasion
  • b)
    Growth in the non-taxed part of GDP
  • c)
    Both a and b
  • d)
    Neither a nor b
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
  • Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between Government's tax revenue growth and GDP changes. It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to GDP changes when a tax is buoyant. Its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
  • If the output grows and the tax buoyancy is not commensurate, it means one of the following or both: There is tax evasion or growth in the non-taxed part of GDP (Eg: agriculture)

Consider the following statements regarding the Immunisation Agenda 2030 (IA2030):
1. The G20 countries have launched the IA2030 for vaccination and immunization for the decade 2021-30.
2. It follows a top-down approach i.e. giving priority to the population that is currently reachable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
     1 only
  • b)
     2 only
  • c)
     Both 1 and 2
  • d)
     Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Sarkar answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: The G20 countries have not specifically launched the Immunisation Agenda 2030 (IA2030). The IA2030 is actually a global strategy developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) and its partners to extend the reach and impact of immunization by 2030.

Statement 2: The Immunisation Agenda 2030 (IA2030) does not follow a top-down approach. Instead, it aims to ensure that everyone, everywhere, at every age, fully benefits from vaccines. This includes reaching populations that may not currently have access to immunization services.
Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Regarding the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), consider the following statements:
1. International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) is a United Nations specialized agency.
2. IFAD works with poor rural populations in developing countries to eliminate poverty, hunger, and malnutrition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) founded in 1977, IFAD focuses on rural poverty reduction, working with poor rural populations in developing countries to eliminate poverty, hunger, and malnutrition. 
  • It is a specialized agency of the United Nations and was one of the major outcomes of the 1974 World Food Conference.

With reference to Supply Chain Resilience Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience.
2. It aims to attain strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the Indo-Pacific region.
3. The initiative has formally been launched jointly by India, Japan, USA and Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Hiral Singh answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: It aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience.
The first statement is correct. The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative aims to enhance the resilience of supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region. By strengthening supply chains, the initiative aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing resilience, which can help countries better withstand disruptions and challenges.

Statement 2: It aims to attain strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the Indo-Pacific region.
The second statement is also correct. One of the main objectives of the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative is to achieve strong, sustainable, balanced, and inclusive growth in the Indo-Pacific region. By improving the resilience of supply chains, countries in the region can promote economic growth that benefits all stakeholders.

Statement 3: The initiative has formally been launched jointly by India, Japan, USA and Australia.
The third statement is incorrect. The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative has not been formally launched by India, Japan, USA, and Australia. However, these countries have been actively discussing and collaborating on the initiative to enhance regional supply chain resilience.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only.

With reference to the Python-5 Missile, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fifth generation air-to-air missile.
2. It is developed by the Israeli defence company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhargavi Dey answered
Statement 1: It is a fifth generation air-to-air missile.
Statement 2: It is developed by the Israeli defence company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

Python-5 Missile:
The Python-5 Missile is an advanced air-to-air missile developed by the Israeli defense company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems. It is a fifth-generation missile that is used by various air forces around the world.

Statement 1: It is a fifth-generation air-to-air missile.
The Python-5 Missile is indeed a fifth-generation air-to-air missile. The term "fifth generation" refers to the advanced capabilities and technologies incorporated into the missile. Fifth-generation missiles typically have improved range, accuracy, guidance systems, and countermeasures compared to earlier generations.

Statement 2: It is developed by the Israeli defense company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.
The Python-5 Missile is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems, an Israeli defense company. Rafael is known for its expertise in developing advanced defense systems, including missiles, weapon systems, and other military technologies. They have a strong track record in delivering high-quality and reliable defense solutions to various countries.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Python-5 Missile is a fifth-generation air-to-air missile developed by the Israeli defense company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.

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