All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Negev Light Machine Guns (LMG)

Introduction:
The Negev Light Machine Gun (LMG) is an Israeli firearm that was developed by Israel Military Industries (IMI) and Israel Weapon Industries (IWI). It is a family of 5.56×45mm NATO and 7.62×51mm NATO gas-operated firearms designed to be lightweight and adaptable to a variety of battle scenarios.

Statement Analysis:

1. Russia developed it.
This statement is incorrect. The Negev LMG was not developed by Russia but by Israel Military Industries (IMI) and Israel Weapon Industries (IWI).

2. The contracted Negev 7.62X51 mm LMG is a combat proven weapon currently used by several countries worldwide.
This statement is correct. The Negev 7.62x51mm LMG has been contracted by several countries and is a combat-proven weapon. It is currently used by several countries, including the Israeli Defense Forces, Indian Armed Forces, and Singapore Armed Forces.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, option (B) is the correct answer as statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct. The Negev LMG is an Israeli firearm developed by Israel Military Industries (IMI) and Israel Weapon Industries (IWI). The Negev 7.62x51mm LMG is a combat-proven weapon currently used by several countries worldwide.

's most important waterways, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
2. It was constructed in the mid-19th century and has since played a crucial role in global trade.
3. The Suez Canal is managed and operated by the Suez Canal Authority, which is an Egyptian government agency.
4. The canal has undergone several expansions and improvements over the years to accommodate larger ships.
5. The Suez Canal has faced various challenges throughout its history, including conflicts and blockades.

All of these statements are true.

1. The Suez Canal is indeed one of the world's most important waterways, providing a direct shipping route between Europe and Asia. It greatly reduces the travel distance and time for ships, making it a crucial passage for global trade.

2. The canal was constructed between 1859 and 1869, under the supervision of the French engineer Ferdinand de Lesseps. Since its completion, it has been a vital route for maritime transportation, allowing ships to avoid the long and treacherous journey around the Cape of Good Hope in Africa.

3. The Suez Canal is managed and operated by the Suez Canal Authority (SCA), which is an Egyptian government agency. The authority is responsible for overseeing the canal's operations, maintenance, and security.

4. Throughout its history, the Suez Canal has undergone multiple expansions and improvements to accommodate larger ships and increase its capacity. Notable expansions include the widening and deepening of the canal to allow for the passage of bigger vessels.

5. The Suez Canal has faced several challenges over the years, including conflicts and blockades. For example, during the Suez Crisis in 1956, the canal was temporarily closed due to military tensions between Egypt, Israel, France, and the United Kingdom. More recently, in March 2021, the canal experienced a major disruption when the container ship Ever Given ran aground, blocking the canal for six days.

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Explanation:
1) The first statement is incorrect. A carbon credit is not an electronic and serialized unit containing 1 kg of CO2. Instead, a carbon credit represents a unit of measurement that is used to quantify the reduction, prevention, or sequestration of one metric ton (1000 kg) of carbon dioxide or its equivalent greenhouse gases. Carbon credits are typically used in carbon trading systems to incentivize and reward projects that reduce emissions.

2) The second statement is correct. Decarbonization refers to the process of reducing the carbon intensity of the economic system or individual carbon-emitting organizations. It involves decreasing the emissions of greenhouse gases, particularly carbon dioxide, over time. This can be achieved by adopting cleaner and more sustainable energy sources, improving energy efficiency, and implementing measures to reduce carbon emissions throughout the value chain.

In summary, only the second statement is correct. The first statement is incorrect as it does not accurately describe what a carbon credit represents.

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Statement 1: It is an initiative by National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).
The Bhartiya Jnana Parampara (Indian Knowledge Tradition) courses are indeed an initiative by the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS). The NIOS is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India. It is responsible for providing education through open and distance learning mode, catering to various categories of learners.

Statement 2: The New Education Policy-2020 emphasizes the creation of a sense of pride towards Indianness in the learners inner self and the establishment of our ancient knowledge, skills, and values.
The New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which was approved by the Union Cabinet of India, does emphasize the creation of a sense of pride towards Indianness in learners and the establishment of ancient knowledge, skills, and values. The NEP aims to provide a holistic education that focuses on the overall development of learners, including their knowledge, skills, values, and pride in their cultural heritage. It recognizes the importance of integrating traditional knowledge systems and practices into the education system and encourages the study of Indian knowledge traditions.

Therefore, both statements are correct. The Bhartiya Jnana Parampara courses are an initiative by the NIOS, and the NEP-2020 emphasizes the creation of a sense of pride towards Indianness and the establishment of ancient knowledge, skills, and values.

Under the National Health Mission (NHM), several new initiatives have been launched to address various health issues in India. These initiatives aim to improve healthcare services, reduce maternal and child mortality rates, and enhance overall public health. Among these initiatives, the following have been launched:

1. Social Awareness and Actions to Neutralize Pneumonia Successfully (SAANS) initiative:
The SAANS initiative aims to reduce childhood mortality due to pneumonia, one of the leading causes of death among children under five in India. It focuses on raising awareness about pneumonia prevention, early recognition of symptoms, and timely treatment. The initiative promotes the importance of exclusive breastfeeding, vaccination, proper nutrition, and hygiene practices to prevent pneumonia.

2. Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) initiative:
The SUMAN initiative aims to improve maternal and newborn healthcare services in India. It focuses on providing quality antenatal care, safe delivery, and postnatal care services to pregnant women and newborns. Under this initiative, pregnant women are provided with free and cashless services for childbirth, including free transport, drugs, diagnostics, and nutritional support. The initiative also aims to promote respectful maternity care and reduce maternal and neonatal mortality rates.

3. School Health and Wellness Ambassadors Initiative:
The School Health and Wellness Ambassadors Initiative is a comprehensive program that aims to promote the health and well-being of school-going children. It involves the appointment of student ambassadors who are trained to act as health advocates and educators within their schools and communities. These ambassadors are responsible for spreading awareness about important health issues, such as hygiene, nutrition, mental health, and prevention of substance abuse. They also facilitate the implementation of various health-related activities and programs in schools.

These initiatives under the National Health Mission (NHM) reflect the government's commitment to improving healthcare services and addressing key health challenges in India. By focusing on areas such as pneumonia prevention, maternal and newborn healthcare, and school health, these initiatives aim to make a significant impact on public health outcomes in the country.

Understanding the National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special Provisions) Second (Amendment) Bill, 2021
The National Capital Territory of Delhi Laws (Special Provisions) Second (Amendment) Bill, 2021, aims to address the issue of unauthorized colonies in Delhi. Let’s break down the statements provided:
Statement 1 Analysis
- The 2011 Act did indeed focus on the regularization of unauthorized colonies that existed by 31st March 2002.
- It allowed constructions to continue until 1st June 2014.
This statement is correct.
Statement 2 Analysis
- The legislation states that unauthorized colonies existing as of 1st June 2014 and having 50 percent development by 1st January 2015 are eligible for regularization.
This statement is also correct.
Conclusion
- Since both statements accurately reflect the provisions of the Bill, the correct answer is option 'C', indicating that both statements are correct.
Key Takeaways
- Regularization Criteria:
- Existence by 31st March 2002 for the 2011 Act.
- Construction allowed until 1st June 2014.
- Eligibility for Regularization:
- Must exist as of 1st June 2014.
- Minimum 50% development by 1st January 2015.
This legislative framework aims to provide a structured approach to managing unauthorized colonies, ensuring that residents can secure legal recognition and access to essential services.

Statement 1: The Ministry of Finance created the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), which is an Apex-Export Trade Promotion Active government body.

Statement 2: The Agriculture and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act of 1985 created it in 1986.

Explanation:
- The correct answer is option B, i.e., only statement 2 is correct.
- APEDA was established by the Government of India under the APEDA Act, 1985 (no. 2 of 1986).
- The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Finance, is responsible for the creation and functioning of APEDA.
- APEDA is an Apex-Export Trade Promotion Active government body that promotes the export of agricultural and processed food products from India.
- It provides various services and support to exporters, such as market intelligence, quality control, certification, and infrastructure development.
- APEDA also plays a crucial role in the development and promotion of specific products and regions for export.
- Its activities cover a wide range of agricultural and processed food products, including fruits, vegetables, meat, poultry, dairy products, honey, cereals, spices, and many more.
- APEDA works closely with various stakeholders, including farmers, exporters, government agencies, and international buyers, to facilitate the growth of India's agricultural exports.
- It also assists exporters in meeting the quality and sanitary requirements of different importing countries.
- APEDA has been instrumental in promoting the "Brand India" image globally and enhancing the competitiveness of Indian agricultural and processed food products in international markets.
- Overall, APEDA plays a vital role in boosting India's agricultural exports and contributing to the country's economy.
- Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Finance, created APEDA.

Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal was indeed a prominent figure in South Indian and Kerala's social revolution. His teachings had a significant impact on society, inspiring various social reforms and movements. Let's analyze each statement individually:

1. He was a forerunner among South Indian and Keralas social revolutionaries.
- This statement is correct. Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal was a social reformer who emerged as a forerunner among South Indian and Kerala's social revolutionaries. He challenged social inequalities and worked towards the upliftment of the marginalized communities. His ideas and actions paved the way for significant changes in society.

2. His teachings inspired many social reforms in southern India, spawning a series of social and self-respect movements such as the Upper cloth agitation and Temple entry agitation.
- This statement is also correct. Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal's teachings had a profound impact on society, leading to the emergence of various social reform movements. One such movement was the Upper cloth agitation, which aimed to abolish the discriminatory practice of forbidding lower caste individuals from wearing upper garments. This movement played a crucial role in challenging caste-based discrimination. Another significant movement inspired by Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal's teachings was the Temple entry agitation. This movement fought for the rights of lower caste individuals to enter temples and participate in religious practices. It aimed to dismantle the centuries-old caste-based restrictions imposed by the orthodox society.

By analyzing both statements, we can conclude that both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal's contributions and teachings had a significant impact on society, inspiring various social reforms and movements in southern India, including the Upper cloth agitation and Temple entry agitation.

Answer should be a), the explanation given also says that itis a cebtrally sponsored scheme

This is wrong..they r asking correct..not

- 3
b)2 - 4 - 1 - 3
c)1 - 2 - 4 - 3
d)3 - 2 - 1 - 4

The correct chronological sequence of the events is:

c) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3

Statement 1: An SPAC, or a blank-cheque company, is an entity specifically set up to acquire a firm in a particular sector.

Statement 2: This SPAC aims to raise money in an initial public offering (IPO), and at this point, it does not have any operations or revenues.

To determine which statements are correct, let's analyze each one individually:

Statement 1: An SPAC, or a blank-cheque company, is an entity specifically set up to acquire a firm in a particular sector.

This statement is correct. A special purpose acquisition company (SPAC) is a type of company that is formed with the sole purpose of acquiring or merging with another company. SPACs are typically created by investors, also known as sponsors, who have expertise in a specific industry or sector. The SPAC is established as a "shell" company, meaning it has no operations or business activities other than its intent to acquire another company. Once the SPAC raises funds through an initial public offering (IPO), it uses those funds to identify and acquire a target company within a specific sector.

Statement 2: This SPAC aims to raise money in an initial public offering (IPO), and at this point, it does not have any operations or revenues.

This statement is also correct. SPACs raise money through an IPO, where they offer shares to the public. The funds raised during the IPO are held in a trust or escrow account until the SPAC identifies a target company to acquire. As the SPAC does not have any operations or revenues initially, the IPO serves as a means to raise capital that will be used for the future acquisition. The funds raised through the IPO are typically invested in low-risk assets such as government securities or money market funds until a suitable target is found.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. SPACs are formed to acquire firms in specific sectors, and they raise money through an IPO without having any operations or revenues initially. SPACs provide an alternative route for companies to go public and raise capital, bypassing the traditional IPO process.

The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime, also known as the Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime, is an international treaty that addresses both cybercrime and electronic evidence. It was adopted in Budapest, Hungary in 2001 and came into force in 2004. The convention is considered to be the first international treaty on crimes committed via the internet and other computer networks.

The Budapest Convention is related to option 'B' - Cyber Security. It aims to harmonize national laws, improve investigative techniques, and enhance international cooperation in combating cybercrime. The convention provides a framework for countries to develop their own legislation and establish effective mechanisms for investigating and prosecuting cybercriminals.

Below are the key features and provisions of the Budapest Convention:

1. Definitions and Scope:
- The convention defines various forms of cybercrime, including offenses related to computer systems, data, and content.
- It covers a wide range of cybercrimes, such as illegal access, interception of data, system interference, computer-related fraud, child pornography, and copyright infringement.

2. Substantive Criminal Law:
- The convention requires participating countries to establish criminal offenses and penalties for cybercrimes in their domestic legislation.
- It promotes cooperation in combating cybercrimes by ensuring that certain offenses are recognized as criminal acts in all participating countries.

3. Procedural Law:
- The convention addresses procedural aspects of investigating and prosecuting cybercrimes.
- It includes provisions on search and seizure of computer data, collection and preservation of electronic evidence, and the protection of privacy and personal data.

4. International Cooperation:
- The convention emphasizes the importance of international cooperation in combating cybercrime.
- It establishes mechanisms for countries to cooperate through mutual legal assistance, extradition, and joint investigations.

5. Cybercrime Prevention:
- The convention encourages countries to enhance their efforts in preventing cybercrime by promoting awareness, education, and capacity-building initiatives.
- It emphasizes the importance of public-private partnerships and international cooperation in developing effective preventive measures.

In conclusion, the Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is a significant international treaty that addresses cybercrime and electronic evidence. It plays a crucial role in enhancing global cooperation and harmonizing laws to combat cyber threats.

The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Explanation:
1. The Cape of Good Hope is a rocky headland on the Atlantic coast of the Cape Peninsula in South Africa.
This statement is correct. The Cape of Good Hope is indeed a rocky headland located on the Atlantic coast of the Cape Peninsula in South Africa. It is part of the Table Mountain National Park and is a popular tourist destination due to its scenic beauty.

2. Cape of Good Hope is the southern tip of Africa.
This statement is incorrect. While the Cape of Good Hope is often mistakenly thought to be the southernmost point of Africa, it is not. The southernmost point of Africa is actually Cape Agulhas, which is located approximately 150 kilometers southeast of the Cape of Good Hope. Cape Agulhas is the point where the Atlantic Ocean and the Indian Ocean meet.

In summary, statement 1 is correct as the Cape of Good Hope is a rocky headland on the Atlantic coast of the Cape Peninsula in South Africa. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the Cape of Good Hope is not the southern tip of Africa.

Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL)
The Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) is an institution under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which is the nodal national agency responsible for administering customs, GST, and central excise in India. CRCL is primarily responsible for testing and analyzing various goods and commodities to determine their composition, quality, and authenticity. It plays a crucial role in supporting the customs administration and enforcement activities in the country.

Statement 1: Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL), New Delhi was recognized as a Regional Customs Laboratory (RCL) of the World Customs Organisation (WCO) for Asia-Pacific Region.
Explanation:
The World Customs Organisation (WCO) is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. It is responsible for promoting and enhancing customs cooperation and facilitation among its member countries. The WCO also provides technical assistance and guidance to its members in areas related to customs administration and enforcement.

The WCO has a program called Regional Customs Laboratory (RCL) Programme, which aims to enhance the technical capability of customs laboratories and promote international harmonization of customs laboratory procedures. The RCLs are recognized by the WCO as reference laboratories within their respective regions.

The statement is correct. The Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) in New Delhi has been recognized as a Regional Customs Laboratory (RCL) of the WCO for the Asia-Pacific region. This recognition signifies that CRCL meets the highest international standards in terms of infrastructure, equipment, expertise, and quality assurance systems. It also allows CRCL to collaborate with other customs laboratories in the region, share best practices, and contribute to the development of international customs laboratory standards.

Statement 2: It was established in 1939.
Explanation:
The statement is correct. The Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) was established in 1939. It has a long and prestigious history of providing analytical support to the Indian customs administration. Over the years, CRCL has expanded its testing capabilities and infrastructure to keep pace with the changing trade dynamics and evolving regulatory requirements.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. The Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) in New Delhi was recognized as a Regional Customs Laboratory (RCL) of the World Customs Organisation (WCO) for the Asia-Pacific region. It was established in 1939 and has been playing a vital role in supporting customs administration and enforcement activities in India.

Incorrect Statements:
1. Cases under the UAPA are investigated only by the National Investigation Agency (NIA).
2. Under the UAPA, getting bail is rare and the investigating agency has up to 365 days to file a charge sheet.

Explanation:
1. Cases under the UAPA are investigated only by the National Investigation Agency (NIA):
This statement is incorrect. While the NIA does have the authority to investigate cases under the UAPA, it is not the sole agency responsible for such investigations. The UAPA allows both the NIA and state police forces to investigate cases related to unlawful activities. The central government can direct the NIA to take over an investigation if it deems it necessary. However, the state police can also initiate and conduct investigations under the UAPA.

2. Under the UAPA, getting bail is rare and the investigating agency has up to 365 days to file a charge sheet:
This statement is correct. Under the UAPA, bail is indeed difficult to obtain. The Act imposes stringent conditions for granting bail, including the requirement that the court must be satisfied that the accusations against the person are prima facie true. This makes it challenging for individuals to secure bail. Additionally, the UAPA allows the investigating agency up to 180 days to file a charge sheet, which can be extended up to 365 days with the approval of the court. This provision gives the investigating agency a longer timeframe compared to other laws, which can impact the duration of pretrial detention for the accused.

In conclusion, both statements are incorrect. While the NIA does have the authority to investigate UAPA cases, it is not the exclusive agency responsible for such investigations. Additionally, under the UAPA, getting bail is difficult, and the investigating agency has up to 365 days to file a charge sheet.