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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Which of the following state is the largest producer of groundnuts in India?
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Punjab
  • c)
    Bihar
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In a boost to groundnut exports from eastern region, a consignment of 24 metric tonne (MT) of groundnuts was exported to Nepal from West Bengal.
  • According to the third advance estimates of oilseeds production by the ministry of agriculture and farmer welfare, the groundnut production in 2020-21 is estimated at 101.19 lakh tonne against 99.52 lakh tonne estimated in 2019-20.
  • Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnuts in the country, which is followed by Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Rajasthan.
  • The crop is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons. The Kharif season has a share of more than 75% of the total production.
  • Traditionally, Gujarat and Rajasthan have a major share in groundnut exports. The groundnut exports from West Bengal would boost exports potential of the crop from the eastern region.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements.
1. According to the Constitution of India, the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes.
2. The regional language can be adopted as an official language of India, if the Prime Minister deems that a large enough proportion of the population of India desires it.
3. The parliament enacted the Official Languages Act, 1963, which provided for the continued use of English for official purposes along with Hindi, even after 1965.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
According to the Constitution the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes. It also acknowledges the possibility of a regional language being adopted and becoming an official language of India, if the President deems that a large enough proportion of the population of India desires it.
The parliament enacted the Official Languages Act, 1963, which provided for the continued use of English for official purposes along with Hindi, even after 1965.

With reference to the Malayalam language, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of 22 scheduled languages of India.
2. Malayalam was designated a "Classical Language in India" in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

GIPMER, a Delhi government hospital recently banned its nursing staff from speaking in Malayalam in the hospital and warned of “serious action” if they do not talk in English or Hindi.
  • Malayalam is a Dravidian language spoken.
  • Malayalam has official language status in Kerala, Lakshadweep and Puducherry (Mahé)
  • It is one of 22 scheduled languages of India and is spoken by 2.88% of Indians.
  • Due to Malayali expatriates in the Persian Gulf, Malayalam is also widely spoken in the Gulf countries.
  • Malayalam was designated a "Classical Language in India" in 2013.
Script
  • The earliest script used to write Malayalam was the Vatteluttu script.
  • The current Malayalam script is based on the Vatteluttu script, which was extended with Grantha script letters to adopt Indo-Aryan loanwords.
  • It bears high similarity with the Tigalari script, a historical script that was used to write the Tulu language.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Jal Jeevan mission, consider the following statements:
1. In Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, every rural household will be provided with tap water connections by 2022, instead of by 2024.
2. 20 states in India has already achieved ‘Har Ghar Jal’ i.e. every rural household in these States/ UTs is having tap water supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pankaj Kumar answered
And Kashmir, and Uttarakhand, the mission aims to provide tap water connections to all rural households by 2024.
2. The mission is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
3. The mission aims to provide functional household tap connections to every rural household in India.

Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is:
A. 1 only

With reference to the green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
1. India had recently organised the two-day summit on green hydrogen involving BRICS nations, on their initiatives around the green fuel.
2. Green hydrogen gas is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using an electrolyzer that may be powered by electricity generated from renewable energy sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
India had organised the two-day summit on green hydrogen involving BRICS nations, on their initiatives around the green fuel. The summit started on 22 June and was organised by state-run NTPC Ltd.
  • India pitched for common international standards for green hydrogen at the BRICS Green Hydrogen Summit, to ensure safe transportation and storage of the new age emission-free fuel.
  • Green hydrogen gas is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using an electrolyzer that may be powered by electricity generated from renewable energy sources.
  • Leveraging India’s landmass and green energy sources for exporting green hydrogen is one of the steps for achieving energy sufficiency for the country, according to a draft proposal circulated by the ministry of new and renewable energy (MNRE), for the planned National Hydrogen Energy Mission.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Deep Sea Trawling.
1. Deep Sea Trawling is the Industrial way of fishing in which large nets are carted across the seafloor to lift out the marine animals.
2. The Union Government has given permission for foreign trawlers for deep sea fishing in the exclusive economic zone of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The Union Government had in 2017 withdrawn permission given for foreign trawlers for deep sea fishing in the exclusive economic zone of the country.
  • The EEZ of the country extends up to 370 km from the coastline.
What is Deep Sea Trawling?
The Deep Sea Trawling can be defined as the Industrial way or method fishing in which large nets with heavy weight are carted across the seafloor to lift out the catch marine animals such as fishes, shrimp, cod etc. It is considered as the most prominent method of fishing which is a practice across the world at large scale.
Impact of Deep Sea Trawling on Environment:
The gears of Deep Sea Trawling creates huge on the life of marine plants and animals as well as the seafloor by disrupting the sediment column structure, overturning boulders, re-suspending sediments and imprinting deep scars on muddy bottoms.

With reference to ‘Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. It aims to provide universal coverage of water supply to all households through functional taps in all statutory towns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Jain answered
Correct answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:

Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)
- Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is an initiative under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
- The mission aims to provide universal coverage of water supply to all households through functional taps in all statutory towns across the country.
Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as the initiative is not under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, while statement 2 is correct as it accurately reflects the objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban).

The 'Operation Pangea XIV' recently seen in the news is related to?
  • a)
    Joint military exercise between India and U.K.
  • b)
    Rescue operation conducted for stranded Indians in Arabian sea during cyclone.
  • c)
    Measures to contain insurgency in North-East India.
  • d)
    Effort to disrupt the sale of fake medicines and products online.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • Recently, the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol) through its Operation Pangea XIV targeted the sale of fake medicines and products online.
    • More than 1.10 lakh web links, including websites and online marketplaces, were taken down in the operation.
  • Operation Pangea, is a well-established international effort of Interpol to disrupt the online sale of counterfeit and illicit health products. Just as importantly, Pangea works to raise awareness of the risks associated with buying medicines from unregulated websites.
  • The first Operation Pangea was conducted in 2008.
  • The current operation (14th) involved the police, customs and health regulatory authorities of 92 countries. It was coordinated by Interpol. Indian agencies also participated in the operation.
  • Hence, option D is correct.

With reference to the ‘sea snot’ outbreak, consider the following statements:
1. It floats up on the surface of the sea like a brown phlegm.
2. Turkey’s Sea of Marmara, that connects the Black Sea to the Arabian Sea, has witnessed the largest outbreak of ‘sea snot’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Previous conversation, I would like to discuss the following points further:

1. Clarification on the timeline for project completion and any potential delays that may impact the deadline.
2. Budget allocation and any potential adjustments that may be required based on new information or changes in scope.
3. Roles and responsibilities of team members and any necessary adjustments to ensure a smooth workflow.
4. Communication plan to ensure all stakeholders are kept informed and involved in the project progress.
5. Risk management strategies and contingency plans in place to address any unforeseen challenges that may arise during the project implementation.

I believe addressing these points will help us stay on track and ensure successful completion of the project. Let me know if you have any additional concerns or suggestions to discuss.

An online tracking portal “Bal Swaraj (COVID-Care)” is an initiative of:
  • a)
    Chetna NGO
  • b)
    National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
  • c)
    Delhi council for child welfare
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
According to Bal Swaraj Portal, as of May 29, 2021, nearly 10,000 children in the country are in immediate need of care and protection. They include children aged between zero and 17 orphaned or abandoned during the COVID-19 pandemic since March 2020.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has created an online tracking portal “Bal Swaraj (COVID-Care)”
  • NCPCR has developed it in furtherance to its function as a monitoring authority under section 109 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 and in view of the growing problem related to children affected by COVID-19
  • Objective: This portal will do online tracking and real-time monitoring of Childrens who have lost both its parents or either of the parent during COVID-19 and are in need of care and protection under Section 2(14) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
  • Working: It will track children affected by COVID-19 right from the production of children before the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) to the restoration of the children to their parent/guardian/relative and its subsequent follow-up. The data will be filled in the portal by the District officers and State officers for each child.
  • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Umling La Pass, recently seen in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Ladakh
  • b)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • c)
    Sikkim
  • d)
    Uttarakhand
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
Raksha Mantri flagged off the first ever Solo Woman Motorcycle Expedition by Ms Kanchan Ugursandi to Umling La Pass, Ladakh and back.
  • Umling La Pass, located at an altitude of 19,300ft, has overtaken Khardung La Pass to become the highest motorable road in the world.
  • The construction of this road has been achieved by the BRO (Border Road Organization) as part of “Project Himank”
  • Umling La Pass, stretching to a distance of almost 86km, connects Chisumle and Demchok villages. Both these villages lie in close proximity to the Indo-China border in the eastern sector.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements.
1. The river originates in Varusanadu Hill, Western Ghats.
2. The river travels through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu.
3. The river empties into the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge.
4. The river finds a mention in Sangam literature.
Which of the following mentioned rivers is discussed in the above statements?
  • a)
    Vaigai River
  • b)
    Kaveri River
  • c)
    Bhavani River
  • d)
    Vellar River
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • Vaigai River originates in the Western Ghats (Varusanadu Hills).
    • It travels through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu.
    • Its main tributaries are Suruliyaru, Mullaiyaru, Varaganadhi, Manjalaru, Kottagudi, Kridhumaal and Upparu.
  • The Vaigai is 258 kms long and finally empties into the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge in Ramanathapuram district.
  • Heritage River: The Vaigai was the river that flowed through the noted city of Madurai, the capital (4th-11th century CE) of the ancient and prosperous Pandya kingdom located in southern Tamil Nadu.
    • The river finds a mention in Sangam literature dated to 300 before the Common Era.
  • Hence, option A is correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. Disinvestment involves Selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to public or private entity.
2. When the government sells minority shares in a public sector entity, that is strategic disinvestment.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:
Statement 1:
Disinvestment refers to the sale of shares of public sector enterprises by the government to the public or private entities. It can involve selling either minority or majority shares of the public enterprises. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as it states that disinvestment only involves selling minority shares.

Statement 2:
Strategic disinvestment refers to the sale of a significant portion of shares (more than 50%) of a public sector entity by the government to a private entity. This is done to transfer control and management of the entity to the private sector. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect as it states that strategic disinvestment is only when minority shares are sold.

Conclusion:
Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect as they do not provide accurate definitions of disinvestment and strategic disinvestment. Disinvestment can involve selling both minority and majority shares of public enterprises, while strategic disinvestment specifically refers to the sale of a significant portion of shares to transfer control and management to the private sector. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA), consider the following statements:
1. Migrants belonging to six non-Muslim minority communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who came to India on long term visa (LTV) before 2014 are eligible to apply online for citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955 from any part of the country.
2. For foreigners of non-Indian origin, a longer-term visa is classed as one that permits the holder to stay in India for longer than 180 days (six months) continuously.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Migrants belonging to six non-Muslim minority communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who came to India on long term visa (LTV) before 2014 are eligible to apply online for citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955 from any part of the country, Home Ministry said.
  • The six communities are Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Parsis.
  • Citizenship is a Home Ministry subject but it can delegate powers to States for specific objective.
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA)
  • The official asserted that this particular awareness drive was not related to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) that is intended to benefit undocumented (illegal migrants) from the six persecuted communities who entered India before December 31, 2014.
  • The CAA is yet to come into force as the rules that govern the law have not been notified by the Ministry yet.
Long term visa (LTV)
  • For foreigners of non-Indian origin, a longer-term visa is classed as one that permits the holder to stay in India for longer than 180 days (six months) continuously.
  • The main visas that provide this are the Employment, Entry and Student visas.
Hence both statements are correct.

In which Indian state is the Raimona National Park located?
  • a)
    Meghalaya
  • b)
    Assam
  • c)
    West Bengal
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Menon answered
Raimona National Park Overview
Raimona National Park is a stunning natural reserve located in the state of Assam, India. Established in 2021, it is part of the larger Bodo Territorial Region and is situated in the Baksa district.

Geographical Significance
- The park is nestled in the Himalayan foothills, characterized by lush greenery and diverse ecosystems.
- It covers an area of approximately 422 square kilometers, making it a significant habitat for a variety of flora and fauna.

Biodiversity
- Raimona National Park is home to several endangered species, including the Assam roofed turtle and the golden langur.
- The park's rich biodiversity includes over 300 species of birds, numerous mammals, reptiles, and a wide array of plant species.

Conservation Efforts
- The establishment of Raimona National Park is a crucial step towards the conservation of wildlife and natural resources in Assam.
- It aims to protect the region's unique ecosystem while promoting sustainable tourism and ecological balance.

Accessibility
- Located near the Bodoland Territorial Region, the park is accessible from major cities in Assam, making it an attractive destination for nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
- The park offers opportunities for trekking, birdwatching, and exploring the diverse landscapes.
In summary, Raimona National Park stands out as a vital ecological zone in Assam, celebrating the natural heritage of India while fostering conservation and tourism.

With reference to the Central Civil Service (Pension) Rules, 1972., consider the following statements:
1. Central Civil Services (Pension) Amendment Rules, 2020 prohibiting retired officials of security and intelligence organisations from publishing anything pertaining to the organisation they worked in.
2. Rule 80-A of the Central Civil Service (Pension) Rules, 1972 provided for payment of provisional family pension and also provisional death gratuity, without waiting for forwarding of the family pension case to Pay & Accounts Office (PAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Union government has written to all Ministries relaxing the norms for disbursing pension to families of deceased employees considering their urgent need of funds for their livelihood during covid-19.
  • The authorities have been told to disburse the provisional family pension immediately after receiving the claim with a death certificate.
  • Stating that the completion of the process for sanction of family pension and its disbursement through the bank could take some time, the department cited provisions under Rule 80-A of the Central Civil Service (Pension) Rules, 1972.
  • This rule provided for payment of provisional family pension and also provisional death gratuity, without waiting for forwarding of the family pension case to Pay & Accounts Office (PAO).
Hence both statements are correct.

Which of the following countries has launched the first bullet train in Tibet?
  • a)
    China
  • b)
    India
  • c)
    Bhutan
  • d)
    Bangladesh
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
China has operationalised its 1st fully electrified bullet train in the remote Himalayan region of Tibet. It links the provincial capital Lhasa and Nyingchi, a strategically located Tibetan border town close to Arunachal Pradesh. This line is a section of the Sichuan-Tibet Railway. The rail line crosses the Brahmaputra river locally called Yarlung Zangbo 16 times.

What is INS Sandhayak, recently seen in news?
  • a)
    Indian Navy's oldest Hydrographic Survey Vessel
  • b)
    Nuclear-powered submarine
  • c)
    Stealth destroyer
  • d)
    Nuclear powered icebreaker
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Saanvi Reddy answered
INS Sandhayak: Indian Navy's oldest Hydrographic Survey Vessel

Introduction:
INS Sandhayak is the Indian Navy's oldest Hydrographic Survey Vessel. It has been in service for over 40 years and has played a crucial role in mapping the sea beds and collecting data for nautical charts. The vessel is equipped with advanced surveying and mapping equipment, making it an essential asset for the Indian Navy's hydrographic operations.

Hydrographic Surveying:
Hydrographic surveying is the science of measuring and describing the physical features of the navigable portion of the Earth's surface and adjacent coastal areas. It involves collecting data about the depths, tides, currents, and other features of the ocean floor. This information is crucial for safe navigation, maritime security, and the development of coastal infrastructure.

Role and Capabilities of INS Sandhayak:
1. Hydrographic Surveys: INS Sandhayak is primarily involved in conducting hydrographic surveys in Indian waters. It uses advanced sonar systems, echo sounders, and other specialized equipment to map the sea beds accurately. This data is then used to update nautical charts, which are essential for safe navigation.

2. Coastal Mapping: The vessel is also responsible for mapping the coastal areas to identify potential navigational hazards and to ensure the safety of maritime traffic. It collects data on shoreline changes, bathymetry, and other coastal features.

3. Search and Rescue Operations: INS Sandhayak has the capability to assist in search and rescue operations. Its advanced equipment and experienced crew can locate and assist distressed vessels or individuals in distress at sea.

4. Training Platform: The vessel also serves as a training platform for naval officers and sailors in hydrographic surveying techniques. It provides hands-on experience in conducting surveys and analyzing data, thereby enhancing the skills of personnel in this specialized field.

Importance:
The hydrographic surveys conducted by INS Sandhayak are crucial for maintaining the safety of maritime navigation in Indian waters. Accurate and up-to-date nautical charts are essential for commercial shipping, naval operations, and coastal infrastructure development. By ensuring that the sea beds are accurately mapped, the vessel contributes significantly to the overall maritime security and safety of the country.

Conclusion:
INS Sandhayak, as the Indian Navy's oldest Hydrographic Survey Vessel, plays a vital role in mapping the sea beds and collecting data for nautical charts. Its advanced surveying and mapping capabilities, along with its role in search and rescue operations and training, make it an indispensable asset for the Indian Navy. The vessel's contributions are crucial for maintaining safe navigation, maritime security, and the overall development of coastal infrastructure.

Recently seen in news, Simhachalam Hill Range is located in:
  • a)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • b)
    Kerala
  • c)
    Tamil Nadu
  • d)
    Telangana
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Sarkar answered
Overview of Simhachalam Hill Range
The Simhachalam Hill Range is a prominent geographical feature located in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is known for its biodiversity, scenic beauty, and cultural significance.
Geographical Location
- The Simhachalam Hills are situated near the city of Visakhapatnam.
- This range is part of the Eastern Ghats, a series of low mountain ranges along the eastern coast of India.
Cultural Significance
- The hills are home to the famous Simhachalam temple, dedicated to Lord Narasimha, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
- The temple attracts numerous pilgrims and tourists, especially during festivals.
Biodiversity
- The region boasts a rich variety of flora and fauna, making it an important ecological zone.
- It serves as a habitat for various species, some of which are endemic to the area.
Tourism
- The scenic landscapes of the Simhachalam Hill Range are popular among tourists seeking nature and adventure.
- Activities such as trekking and wildlife observation are common attractions.
Conclusion
In summary, the Simhachalam Hill Range is a notable geographical and cultural landmark in Andhra Pradesh, making it a significant location within the region. Its rich biodiversity and historical significance contribute to its popularity as a tourist destination.

The initiative DARPAN, sometimes seen in news is related to
  • a)
    Improve the quality and governance of school education 
  • b)
    Platform for all voluntary organisations/NGOs engaged in development activities. 
  • c)
    Disaster preparedness, and responses during health emergencies 
  • d)
    Expand immunization coverage across the country.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Menon answered
Introduction to DARPAN
DARPAN is an initiative aimed at creating a comprehensive platform for voluntary organizations and NGOs that are actively involved in various developmental activities across India.
Key Aspects of DARPAN
  • Centralized Platform: DARPAN serves as a centralized repository where NGOs can register and showcase their projects, initiatives, and achievements.
  • Collaboration and Networking: The platform facilitates collaboration among NGOs, enabling them to share resources, knowledge, and best practices.
  • Transparent Operations: By providing a structured framework, DARPAN enhances transparency and accountability within the NGO sector.
  • Government Support: The initiative is backed by the government, promoting recognition and support for NGOs contributing to social welfare.
  • Capacity Building: DARPAN also focuses on capacity building for NGOs, offering training and resources to improve their effectiveness.

Importance of the Initiative
  • Empowers NGOs: DARPAN empowers NGOs by providing them with visibility and recognition, which can lead to increased funding and support.
  • Enhances Impact: By connecting organizations, DARPAN helps amplify their impact on community development and social issues.
  • Facilitates Monitoring: The platform allows for better monitoring and evaluation of NGO activities, ensuring that they align with national development goals.

Conclusion
In summary, DARPAN plays a crucial role in improving the operational framework of NGOs in India, thereby enhancing their effectiveness in contributing to socio-economic development.

Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost.
1. Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen for at least two years.
2. They are located only in high latitudes around the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
3. There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. True. Permafrost is defined as any ground that remains at or below 0°C (32°F) for at least two consecutive years.

2. False. Permafrost is not limited to high latitudes around the Arctic and Antarctic regions. It can also be found in mountainous regions and in some parts of the boreal forest.

3. True. It is estimated that there is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth's atmosphere. This carbon is stored in the form of organic matter that has been frozen for thousands of years.

Consider the following statements.
1. Urea forms more than two-third of the total nitrogenous fertilisers consumed in India.
2. More than 90% of the nitrogen from urea is utilised by plants and very less gets wasted due to leaching, volatilization and run off.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
It may be noted that urea forms 82 per cent of the total nitrogenous fertilisers consumed in India and it has recorded exponential increase in consumption over the years.
Around 30-50 per cent of nitrogen from urea is utilised by plants and the rest gets wasted due to quick chemical transformation as a result of leaching, volatilization and run off, thereby low use efficiency.

Consider the following statements:
1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is a legally binding international agreement.
2. The Great Green Wall initiative is focused on fighting against land degradation in the Sahel region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994, the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Great Green Wall initiative by Global Environment Facility (GEF), where eleven countries in Sahel-Saharan Africa have focused efforts to fight against land degradation and revive native plant life to the landscape. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an investigating agency
2. The commission members shall be appointed by the President of India on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson) and the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has laid down a defined procedure to be followed by government organisations for getting vigilance clearance before employing a ‘retired’ official on a contractual or consultancy basis.
  • Before offering employment to retired All India Services and Group A officers of the Central government or their equivalent in other organisations owned or controlled by the Centre, vigilance clearance from the employer organisation, from which the officer has retired, should be obtained.
  • In case a retired officer served in more than one organisation, clearance has to be obtained from all of them where the person was posted in the 10 years prior to retirement.
  • Simultaneously, a communication seeking clearance should also be sent to the CVC.
  • If no reply is received from the erstwhile employer (s) within 21 days of sending the communication by speed post, vigilance clearance should be deemed to have been given.
  • Later, if the employee is found involved in any vigilance-related matter or not cleared from the vigilance point of view, the erstwhile employer organisation would be responsible for all consequential actions.
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
  • Mandate:
    1. it is an apex Indian governmental statutory body to address governmental corruption.
    2. The CVC is not an investigating agency: the only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government.
  • History:
    1. it was set up by the Government in 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam.
    2. Consequent upon promulgation of an Ordinance by the President, the CVC has been made a multi member Commission with "statutory status" with effect from 25th August,1998.
    3. Later on the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 was enacted which governs it.
  • The Commission shall consist of –
    1. A Central Vigilance Commissioner - Chairperson;
    2. Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners - Members;
  • Nittoor Srinivasa Rau, was selected as the first Chief Vigilance Commissioner of India.
  • Appointment: The commission members shall be appointed by the President of India on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of home affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha.
Hence both statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding statues of Walking Buddha.
1. The statues of Walking Buddha depicts either beginning his journey toward enlightenment or returning after giving a sermon.
2. This is the most common of the Buddha postures and is seen mainly in south-east Asia.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Sarkar answered
Statement 1: The statues of Walking Buddha depicts either beginning his journey toward enlightenment or returning after giving a sermon.
The statement is correct. The statues of Walking Buddha do depict either the beginning of his journey toward enlightenment or his return after giving a sermon. This posture is known as the "Walking Buddha" or "Walking Meditation Buddha" and is often seen in Buddhist art.

The Walking Buddha posture represents the Buddha taking steps on his path towards enlightenment or returning from his journey to share his teachings with others. It symbolizes the continuous effort and progress on the spiritual path.

Statement 2: This is the most common of the Buddha postures and is seen mainly in south-east Asia.
The statement is incorrect. The Walking Buddha posture is not the most common of the Buddha postures. The most common and iconic posture of the Buddha is the sitting or meditating posture, known as the "Lotus position" or "Buddha in meditation." This posture is widely recognized and seen in various Buddhist traditions and regions.

While the Walking Buddha posture is indeed seen in southeast Asia, it is not the most prevalent or widespread posture. The Walking Buddha statues can be found in countries like Thailand, Cambodia, Laos, and Myanmar, but they are not as commonly depicted as the sitting Buddha statues.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the statues of Walking Buddha do represent either the beginning or the end of his journey towards enlightenment. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the Walking Buddha posture is not the most common among Buddha postures and is not seen as widely as the sitting or meditating Buddha posture. Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that only statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the Global Liveability Ranking, consider the following statements:
1. It is an annual assessment published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU).
2. In 2021, Auckland rose to the top of the ranking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • The Global Liveability Ranking is an annual assessment published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The index takes into account more than 30 qualitative and quantitative factors spanning five broad categories: stability (25%), healthcare (20%), culture and environment (25%), education (10%), and infrastructure (20%).
  • Due to the pandemic, the EIU added new indicators such as stress on health-care resources as well as restrictions around local sporting events, theatres, music concerts, restaurants and schools.
    • Each factor in a city is rated as acceptable, tolerable, uncomfortable, undesirable or intolerable.
  • Austria's Vienna, number one in both 2018 and 2019, has completely dropped out of the top 10 after being heavily affected by Covid-19, and now ranks 12.
  • Auckland rose to the top of the ranking owing to its successful approach in containing the Covid-19 pandemic, which allowed its society to remain open and the city to score strongly on a number of metrics including education, culture and environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Damascus remains the world's least liveable city, as the effects of the civil war in Syria continue to take their toll.

Consider the following statements regarding Icebergs.
1. An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floating freely in open water.
2. The ocean currents influence the movement of icebergs.
3. Icebergs carry dust which completely destroys ocean plankton.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floating freely in open (salt) water.
The giant iceberg A68, the biggest block of free-floating ice from Antarctica with an area of about 5,800 sq. km, has been drifting in the Atlantic Ocean since 2017.
This year, due to an ocean current, the iceberg was propelled into the South Atlantic Ocean and since then it has been drifting towards the remote sub-Antarctic island of South Georgia, prompting fears about the impact the iceberg could have on the island’s abundant wildlife.
Icebergs travel with ocean currents and either get caught up in shallow waters or ground themselves.
On the other hand, there are some positives of an iceberg being stuck in the open ocean, since icebergs carry dust which fertilises ocean plankton, which draws up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Consider the following statements regarding International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
1. It is the international body that brings together the world’s securities regulators.
2. It is recognized as the global standard setter for the securities sector.
3. Securities andExchange Board of India (SEBI) is the Associate Member of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has become an Associate Member of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
About IOSCO:
  • It is the international body that brings together the world’s securities regulators and is recognized as the global standard setter for the securities sector.
  • IOSCO develops, implements and promotes adherence to internationally recognized standards for securities regulation.
  • It works intensively with the G20 and the Financial Stability Board (FSB) on the global regulatory reform agenda.

Consider the following statements regarding Wetlands.
1. In India, Wetlands are regulated under the Environment(Protection) Rules, 1986.
2. Wetlands International is sub-branch of UN Environment, that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Wetlands are regulated under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. The 2010 version of the Rules provided for a Central Wetland Regulatory Authority; the 2017 Rules replace it with state-level bodies and created a National Wetland Committee, which functions in an advisory role.
Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.

Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO).
2. The IHO has recognised the Southern Ocean as the world’s fifth ocean since 1953.
3. The Southern Ocean is the only ocean that touches the Pacific, Indian and Atlantic Oceans.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

's fifth ocean.

Both statements are true.

1. India is a member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO). The IHO is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the development of hydrography and nautical charting. India joined the IHO in 1961 and actively participates in its activities.

2. The IHO has recognized the Southern Ocean as the world's fifth ocean. In June 2021, the IHO officially recognized the Southern Ocean as a distinct body of water, separate from the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans. This decision was made to highlight the unique physical and ecological characteristics of the Southern Ocean, particularly its distinct currents and ecosystems.

Which of the following are the common methods of treatment and disposal of bio-medical waste?
1. Incineration for Yellow Category waste
2. Autoclaving for Red Category waste
3. Sterilization and shredding for White Category sharps waste
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The report titled, “State of India's Environment 2021,” released by the Centre for Science and Environment, said 2,03,000 kg of COVID-19 biomedical waste was produced daily in May this year and it was roughly 33% of India's non-COVID biomedical waste.
As per Bio-medical Waste Management Rules, 2016, Bio-medical waste is required to be segregated in 4 colour coded waste categories, and the same is treated and disposed as per the methods prescribed under Schedule I of the Rules.
Common methods of treatment and disposal of bio-medical waste are by
  • incineration/plasma pyrolysis/deep-burial for Yellow Category waste;
    • washing, disinfection followed by recycling for Blue Category glass waste.
    • sterilization and shredding, disinfection followed by burial in concrete pit/recycling through foundry/encapsulation for White Category sharps waste; and
    • autoclaving/microwaving/chemical disinfection for Red Category waste;
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements.
1. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) was promoted by the World Trade Organization in 1995 for uniform global IPR rules.
2. TRIPS does not have a provision to enable governments to enforce ‘compulsory licensing’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) regime was promoted by the World Trade Organization in 1995 for uniform global IPR rules. TRIPS is founded on the principle of “product patents”.
TRIPS does have a provision to enable governments to enforce ‘compulsory licensing’. They can demand that an innovator company must allow domestic, lower cost, producers to increase the supply of the drug in an emergency, with compensation to the inventor of course.

Consider the following statements regarding National Security Guard:
1. It is a counter-terrorism unit which came into existence by an act of the Parliament.
2. The idea behind the establishment of the unit came in the aftermath of Operation Nistar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Ahuja answered
National Security Guard (NSG):
The National Security Guard (NSG) is a specialized counter-terrorism unit of India, which was established by an act of the Parliament. It is responsible for handling various security-related issues, including counter-terrorism operations, bomb disposal, hostage rescue, and VIP protection. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Statement 1: It is a counter-terrorism unit which came into existence by an act of the Parliament.
This statement is correct. The NSG was created in 1984 through the National Security Guard Act, which was passed by the Parliament of India. The act provides a legal framework for the establishment, organization, and functioning of the NSG as a specialized force to combat terrorism and protect the nation.

Statement 2: The idea behind the establishment of the unit came in the aftermath of Operation Nistar.
This statement is incorrect. The idea for the formation of the NSG did not come in the aftermath of Operation Nistar. Operation Nistar was a military operation carried out by the Indian Army in 1984 to flush out militants from the Golden Temple in Amritsar. However, the NSG was not specifically formed as a response to this operation.

The NSG was primarily established due to the increasing threat of terrorism in India. The 1984 anti-Sikh riots and the assassination of the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in the same year highlighted the need for a specialized force capable of handling such incidents effectively. As a result, the NSG was formed, drawing inspiration from international counter-terrorism units like Germany's GSG-9 and the UK's SAS.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only Statement 1 is correct. The NSG is a counter-terrorism unit that was established by an act of the Parliament, but its formation was not directly linked to Operation Nistar. The NSG remains an important entity in India's security apparatus and plays a crucial role in safeguarding the nation from terrorist threats.

Consider the following statements regarding Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act).
1. The Act is gender neutral.
2. The Act defines a child as any person below fourteen years of age.
3. Police should contact Child Welfare Committee (CWC) within 24 hours of report of abuse.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
The Act is gender neutral and regards the best interests and welfare of the child as a matter of paramount importance at every stage so as to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age, and regards the best interests and well-being of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child.
To provide for relief and rehabilitation of the child, as soon as the complaint is made to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or local police, these will make immediate arrangements to give the child, care and protection such as admitting the child into shelter home or to the nearest hospital within twenty-four hours of the report. The SJPU or the local police are also required to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee within 24 hours of recording the complaint, for long term rehabilitation of the child.

Consider the following statements:
1. Venus and Uranus are the only planets of the solar system that spin anticlockwise about their own axis.
2. The rotation period of Venus is the longest for any planet of the solar system.
3. Venera and Vegas are the robotic missions of NASA to Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Venus is the second brightest natural object in the night sky after the Moon, probably that is the reason why it was the first planet to have its motions plotted across the sky, as early as the second millennium BC.
    • Unlike the other planets in our solar system, Venus and Uranus spin clockwise on their axis. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • A day on Venus is longer than a year. It takes Venus longer to rotate once on its axis than to complete one orbit of the Sun.
    • That’s 243 Earth days to rotate once - the longest rotation of any planet in the Solar System - and only 224.7 Earth days to complete one orbit of the Sun. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced two new robotic missions to Venus.
    • The two sister missions named DaVinci Plus and Veritas are aimed at understanding how Venus became an inferno-like world capable of melting lead at the surface.
    • DaVinci Plus:
      • It will be the first of the two, it will analyze the thick, cloudy Venusian atmosphere in an attempt to determine whether the inferno planet ever had an ocean and was possibly habitable. A small craft will plunge through the atmosphere to measure the gases.
    • Veritas:
      • It will be the second one seeking a geologic history by mapping the rocky planet’s surface.
    • Venera and Vegas were the previous Venusian missions of Russia. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

With reference to the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an apex advisory body for the development of the Maritime sector and aims to ensure integrated development of Major and non-Major Ports.
2. It was constituted in 1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Manasa Menon answered
Understanding the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC)
The Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) plays a crucial role in the development of India's maritime sector. Here’s a breakdown of the statements regarding the MSDC:
Statement 1: Apex Advisory Body
- The MSDC serves as an apex advisory body dedicated to the integrated development of both Major and non-Major Ports.
- Its primary goal is to foster a coherent approach towards enhancing the maritime infrastructure and ensuring efficient port operations.
- By promoting collaboration among various stakeholders, the MSDC aims to boost maritime trade and logistics.
Statement 2: Year of Constitution
- The MSDC was constituted in 1997, not in 1955.
- This is a significant detail as it highlights the relatively recent establishment of the council in terms of maritime governance in India.
Conclusion
- Considering the analysis above, only the first statement is correct.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.
This distinction is essential for understanding the council's role and timeline in the context of maritime development in India.

Consider the following statements regarding the formation of Hailstones.
1. Hail is produced by cumulonimbus clouds, which are generally large and dark.
2. Hailstones are formed when winds blow up the water droplets to heights where they freeze into ice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Saini answered
Formation of Hailstones
Hailstones are a fascinating meteorological phenomenon, and understanding their formation involves examining specific atmospheric conditions. Both statements regarding hailstones provided in the question are accurate.

1. Cumulonimbus Clouds
- Hail is primarily produced by **cumulonimbus clouds**, which are towering clouds associated with thunderstorms.
- These clouds are characterized by their **large size and dark appearance**, indicating heavy moisture and strong updrafts.
- The vertical extent of cumulonimbus clouds allows for the necessary conditions for hail formation, including significant temperature variations.

2. Formation Process of Hailstones
- Hailstones form when **updrafts within these clouds** carry water droplets to great heights.
- At these high altitudes, temperatures are cold enough for the droplets to **freeze into ice**.
- The process involves the repeated cycling of these ice particles within the cloud, accumulating layers of ice until they become too heavy for the updrafts to support, resulting in their fall to the ground as hail.

Conclusion
- Both statements accurately describe the conditions and processes involved in hail formation.
- Therefore, the correct answer is indeed **option 'C' (Both 1 and 2)**, confirming the role of cumulonimbus clouds and the mechanics of hailstone development.

Ajit Mishra expert group, recently seen in news, is related to:
  • a)
    Provide technical inputs and recommendations on fixation of Minimum Wages and National Floor Wages to the Government.
  • b)
    Financing Infrastructure through PPP model
  • c)
    Simplification of Transfer Rules in Security Markets
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
The Central Government has constituted an Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Professor Ajit Mishra, a renowned economist.
  • Its mandate is to provide technical inputs and recommendations on fixation of Minimum Wages and National Floor Wages to the Government.
  • The tenure of the Expert Group is three years.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Anoop Satpathy committee, recently seen in news, is related to:
  • a)
    Privatization of Banks
  • b)
    Minimum Wages and National Floor Minimum Wages
  • c)
    Data Privacy
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anoop Satpathy Committee: Minimum Wages and National Floor Minimum Wages

The Anoop Satpathy Committee, which has recently been in the news, is related to the issue of minimum wages and the concept of National Floor Minimum Wages in India. The committee was constituted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to provide recommendations on various aspects of minimum wages in the country.

Background:
Minimum wages are the lowest wages that employers are legally required to pay to their workers. These wages are set by the government to ensure fair remuneration for workers and to prevent exploitation. The concept of minimum wages aims to provide workers with decent living conditions and protect them from being paid unreasonably low wages.

Key Recommendations:
The Anoop Satpathy Committee has made several key recommendations regarding minimum wages and the establishment of a National Floor Minimum Wage in India. Some of these recommendations include:

1. Regional Variation: The committee has suggested that minimum wages should be region-specific, taking into consideration the cost of living and other relevant factors. This would ensure that workers are paid wages that are appropriate for their specific region.

2. Decentralization: The committee has recommended that the process of fixing and revising minimum wages should be decentralized. It suggests that the responsibility for determining minimum wages should be given to state-level authorities, as they are more familiar with the local conditions and requirements.

3. Uniform Criteria: The committee has proposed the adoption of a uniform criteria for fixing minimum wages across different sectors and regions. This would help in ensuring consistency and fairness in wage determination.

4. National Floor Minimum Wage: The committee has recommended the establishment of a National Floor Minimum Wage, which would serve as a benchmark for minimum wages across the country. This would ensure that no worker is paid below a certain minimum wage, regardless of the region or sector they work in.

5. Periodic Review: The committee has emphasized the importance of regular review and revision of minimum wages to keep up with inflation and changing economic conditions. It suggests that minimum wages should be revised at least once every three years.

Conclusion:
The Anoop Satpathy Committee's recommendations on minimum wages and the concept of National Floor Minimum Wages aim to address the issue of wage disparity and ensure fair wages for all workers in India. These recommendations, if implemented, have the potential to improve the living conditions of workers and protect them from exploitation.

DAVINCI+ and VERITAS missions, recently seen in news are related to
  • a)
    Build commercial spacecrafts powered by biofuel 
  • b)
    Take tourists to space successfully 
  • c)
    Study Venus’ composition 
  • d)
    large-scale survey of exoplanets
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
NASA has selected two missions to the planet Venus, Earth’s nearest neighbour. The missions called DAVINCI+ and VERITAS have been selected based on their potential for scientific value and the feasibility of their development plans.
Both missions are part of the space agency’s Discovery Program, which began in 1992 to give scientists the chance to launch some missions that use fewer resources and have shorter developmental times.
DAVINCI+ is short for ‘Deep Atmosphere Venus Investigation of Noble gases, Chemistry, and Imaging’ and is the first US-led mission to the planet’s atmosphere since 1978.
VERITAS is short for ‘Venus Emissivity, Radio Science, InSAR, Topography, and Spectroscopy’ and will map the planet’s surface to determine its geologic history and understand the reasons why it developed so differently from Earth.

With reference to the National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It was established in 1978.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) is collaborating with the Science Museum Group, London for an international travelling exhibition ‘Hunt for the Vaccine’. The exhibition will tell the story of the global effort to find new ways to develop vaccines and look at vaccinations more broadly with a historical and contemporary view.
  • National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) is a premiere institution in the field of science communication.
  • It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India.
  • It is Headquartered in Kolkata.
  • It was established in 1978.
  • It is primarily engaged in popularizing Science and Technology through a network of science centres and Mobile Science Exhibitions (MSE) units that visit rural schools.
  • Presently NCSM administers and manages 25 science museums/centres spread across the country and is the “world’s largest network of science centres and museums that functions under a single administrative umbrella” with an annual reach to about 15 million people.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the H10N3, consider the following statements:
1. It is a subtype of the Influenza A virus which is commonly known as the bird flu virus.
2. It can spread through respiratory droplets in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • Recently, China has reported the first case of human infection with the H10N3 strain of bird flu in Jiangsu province.
  • H10N3 is a subtype of the Influenza A virus which is commonly known as the bird flu virus. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It is a low pathogenic, or relatively less severe, strain of the virus in poultry and the risk of it spreading on a large scale is very low.
    • Among animals, it can spread through respiratory droplets, similar to flu and Covid-19. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following has commercially launched the 1st-ever yellow watermelon variety called “Yellow Gold 48” in India under the Seminis brand?
  • a)
    Bharat Crop Sciences India Pvt Ltd
  • b)
    German Agrochemicals Major Bayer
  • c)
    Cripple Creek Sweet Watermelon DBA
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
German Agrochemicals Major Bayer has commercially launched the 1st-ever yellow watermelon variety called “Yellow Gold 48” in India under the Seminis brand. Yellow Watermelon: Yellow watermelon variety has been commercially introduced in India after 2 years of local trials. It has been developed from superior germplasm under Bayer’s global research and development efforts. It has enhanced yield potential, better disease & pest tolerance and higher returns which can benefit watermelon growers.

Which of the following languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Dogri
2. Maithili
3. Bhojpuri 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Various organisations initiated a Twitter campaign demanding official language status to Tulu in Karnataka and Kerala and include it in the eighth schedule to the Constitution.
Constitutional provisions relating to Eighth Schedule
  • The Constitutional provisions relating to the Eighth Schedule occur in article 344(1) and 351 of the Constitution.
  • Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years from such commencement.
  • Article 351 of the Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all by assimilating without interfering with its genius, the forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the Eighth Schedule.
List of languages in the Eighth Schedule
  • The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:- (1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
  • Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
    • Sindhi language was added in 1967.
    • Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992.
    • Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Sea Snot.
1. Sea snot is a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the sea.
2. It is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change.
3. If unchecked, it can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to the marine ecosystem.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
There has been growing environmental concern in Turkey over the accumulation of ‘sea snot’, a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the country’s seas, which can cause considerable damage to the marine ecosystem.
‘Sea snot’ is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change. The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming. Water pollution adds to the problem.
Environmental experts have said that overproduction of phytoplankton caused by climate change and the uncontrolled dumping of household and industrial waste into the seas has led to the present crisis.
The growth of the mucilage, which floats up on the surface of the sea like a brown phlegm, is posing a severe threat to the marine ecosystem of the country.
The mucilage is now covering the surface of the sea and has also spread to 80-100 feet below the surface. If unchecked, this can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to the marine ecosystem.
Over a period of time, it could end up poisoning all aquatic life, including fishes, crabs, oysters, mussels and sea stars.

Consider the following statements regarding Greater one-horned rhinoceros.
1. Greater one-horned rhinoceros is native to the Indian subcontinent.
2. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3. Kaziranga National Park has the highest density of Greater one-horned rhinos in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Greater one-horned rhinoceros is a rhinoceros species native to the Indian subcontinent. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List
Pobitora is known for the highest density of Indian one-horned rhinos in the world along with Kaziranga National Park, the shelter for two thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinos.

Namibia shares land borders with which of the following countries?
1. Angola
2. South Africa
3. Zambia
4. Zimbabwe
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Namibia shares land borders with Zambia and Angola to the north, Botswana to the east and South Africa to the south and east. Although it does not border Zimbabwe, less than 200 metres of the Zambezi River separates the two countries.

Consider the following statements regarding Innovations for Defence Excellence:
1. It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace.
2. It is funded and managed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) initiative was launched by the Prime Minister in April 2018.
  • It aims to achieve self - reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • iDEX is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO), and functions as the executive arm of DIO. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), consider the following statements:
1. It was constituted by a Government of India Resolution in 1997.
2. It is as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
3. The headquarters is located in Chennai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
COVID pandemic has resulted in recent volatility in Maximum Retail Prices (MRP) of Oxygen Concentrators. Margin at the level of distributor currently ranges up to 198%. Thus, the Government has decided to step-in to regulate the price of Oxygen Concentrators.
  • By invoking extraordinary powers under Para 19 of the DPCO, 2013, NPPA has capped the Trade Margin up to 70% on Price to Distributor (PTD) level on Oxygen Concentrators.
  • Earlier, in February 2019 NPPA had successfully capped the Trade Margin on Anti-cancer Drugs.
NPPA
  • Mandate: It is an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.
  • History: It was constituted by a Government of India Resolution in 1997.
  • Parent Ministry: It is as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
  • DPCO: The NPPA regularly publishes lists of medicines and their maximum ceiling prices under the Drug Price Control Orders (DPCO).
  • Headquarters: New Delhi.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

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