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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Which of the following state is the largest producer of groundnuts in India?
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Punjab
  • c)
    Bihar
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In a boost to groundnut exports from eastern region, a consignment of 24 metric tonne (MT) of groundnuts was exported to Nepal from West Bengal.
  • According to the third advance estimates of oilseeds production by the ministry of agriculture and farmer welfare, the groundnut production in 2020-21 is estimated at 101.19 lakh tonne against 99.52 lakh tonne estimated in 2019-20.
  • Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnuts in the country, which is followed by Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Rajasthan.
  • The crop is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons. The Kharif season has a share of more than 75% of the total production.
  • Traditionally, Gujarat and Rajasthan have a major share in groundnut exports. The groundnut exports from West Bengal would boost exports potential of the crop from the eastern region.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
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With reference to the Malayalam language, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of 22 scheduled languages of India.
2. Malayalam was designated a "Classical Language in India" in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaushal Agrawal answered
GIPMER, a Delhi government hospital recently banned its nursing staff from speaking in Malayalam in the hospital and warned of “serious action” if they do not talk in English or Hindi.
  • Malayalam is a Dravidian language spoken.
  • Malayalam has official language status in Kerala, Lakshadweep and Puducherry (Mahé)
  • It is one of 22 scheduled languages of India and is spoken by 2.88% of Indians.
  • Due to Malayali expatriates in the Persian Gulf, Malayalam is also widely spoken in the Gulf countries.
  • Malayalam was designated a "Classical Language in India" in 2013.
Script
  • The earliest script used to write Malayalam was the Vatteluttu script.
  • The current Malayalam script is based on the Vatteluttu script, which was extended with Grantha script letters to adopt Indo-Aryan loanwords.
  • It bears high similarity with the Tigalari script, a historical script that was used to write the Tulu language.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. According to the Constitution of India, the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes.
2. The regional language can be adopted as an official language of India, if the Prime Minister deems that a large enough proportion of the population of India desires it.
3. The parliament enacted the Official Languages Act, 1963, which provided for the continued use of English for official purposes along with Hindi, even after 1965.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaushal Agrawal answered
According to the Constitution the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes. It also acknowledges the possibility of a regional language being adopted and becoming an official language of India, if the President deems that a large enough proportion of the population of India desires it.
The parliament enacted the Official Languages Act, 1963, which provided for the continued use of English for official purposes along with Hindi, even after 1965.

With reference to the green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
1. India had recently organised the two-day summit on green hydrogen involving BRICS nations, on their initiatives around the green fuel.
2. Green hydrogen gas is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using an electrolyzer that may be powered by electricity generated from renewable energy sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
India had organised the two-day summit on green hydrogen involving BRICS nations, on their initiatives around the green fuel. The summit started on 22 June and was organised by state-run NTPC Ltd.
  • India pitched for common international standards for green hydrogen at the BRICS Green Hydrogen Summit, to ensure safe transportation and storage of the new age emission-free fuel.
  • Green hydrogen gas is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using an electrolyzer that may be powered by electricity generated from renewable energy sources.
  • Leveraging India’s landmass and green energy sources for exporting green hydrogen is one of the steps for achieving energy sufficiency for the country, according to a draft proposal circulated by the ministry of new and renewable energy (MNRE), for the planned National Hydrogen Energy Mission.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA), consider the following statements:
1. Migrants belonging to six non-Muslim minority communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who came to India on long term visa (LTV) before 2014 are eligible to apply online for citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955 from any part of the country.
2. For foreigners of non-Indian origin, a longer-term visa is classed as one that permits the holder to stay in India for longer than 180 days (six months) continuously.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Migrants belonging to six non-Muslim minority communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who came to India on long term visa (LTV) before 2014 are eligible to apply online for citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955 from any part of the country, Home Ministry said.
  • The six communities are Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Parsis.
  • Citizenship is a Home Ministry subject but it can delegate powers to States for specific objective.
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA)
  • The official asserted that this particular awareness drive was not related to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) that is intended to benefit undocumented (illegal migrants) from the six persecuted communities who entered India before December 31, 2014.
  • The CAA is yet to come into force as the rules that govern the law have not been notified by the Ministry yet.
Long term visa (LTV)
  • For foreigners of non-Indian origin, a longer-term visa is classed as one that permits the holder to stay in India for longer than 180 days (six months) continuously.
  • The main visas that provide this are the Employment, Entry and Student visas.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the ‘sea snot’ outbreak, consider the following statements:
1. It floats up on the surface of the sea like a brown phlegm.
2. Turkey’s Sea of Marmara, that connects the Black Sea to the Arabian Sea, has witnessed the largest outbreak of ‘sea snot’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
Turkey’s Sea of Marmara, that connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea, has witnessed the largest outbreak of ‘sea snot’.
‘Sea snot’ is marine mucilage, which floats up on the surface of the sea like a brown phlegm. This thick slimy layer of organic matter looks like a viscous, brown and foamy substance.
It is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change. The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming. Water pollution adds to the problem. Overproduction of phytoplankton caused by climate change/rising temperatures and the uncontrolled dumping of household and industrial waste into the seas has led to the present crisis in turkey.
Impact
  • The growth of the mucilage is posing a severe threat to the marine ecosystem of the country. It has caused mass deaths among the fish population, and also killed other aquatic organisms such as corals and sponges.
  • Over a period of time, it could end up poisoning all aquatic life, including fishes, crabs, oysters, mussels and sea stars.
  • Besides aquatic life, the ‘sea snot’ outbreak has also affected the livelihoods of fishermen.
  • Some experts have also warned that the ‘sea snot’ can cause an outbreak of water-borne
  • diseases such as cholera in cities like Istanbul.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

An online tracking portal “Bal Swaraj (COVID-Care)” is an initiative of:
  • a)
    Chetna NGO
  • b)
    National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
  • c)
    Delhi council for child welfare
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
According to Bal Swaraj Portal, as of May 29, 2021, nearly 10,000 children in the country are in immediate need of care and protection. They include children aged between zero and 17 orphaned or abandoned during the COVID-19 pandemic since March 2020.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has created an online tracking portal “Bal Swaraj (COVID-Care)”
  • NCPCR has developed it in furtherance to its function as a monitoring authority under section 109 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 and in view of the growing problem related to children affected by COVID-19
  • Objective: This portal will do online tracking and real-time monitoring of Childrens who have lost both its parents or either of the parent during COVID-19 and are in need of care and protection under Section 2(14) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
  • Working: It will track children affected by COVID-19 right from the production of children before the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) to the restoration of the children to their parent/guardian/relative and its subsequent follow-up. The data will be filled in the portal by the District officers and State officers for each child.
  • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Deep Sea Trawling.
1. Deep Sea Trawling is the Industrial way of fishing in which large nets are carted across the seafloor to lift out the marine animals.
2. The Union Government has given permission for foreign trawlers for deep sea fishing in the exclusive economic zone of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The Union Government had in 2017 withdrawn permission given for foreign trawlers for deep sea fishing in the exclusive economic zone of the country.
  • The EEZ of the country extends up to 370 km from the coastline.
What is Deep Sea Trawling?
The Deep Sea Trawling can be defined as the Industrial way or method fishing in which large nets with heavy weight are carted across the seafloor to lift out the catch marine animals such as fishes, shrimp, cod etc. It is considered as the most prominent method of fishing which is a practice across the world at large scale.
Impact of Deep Sea Trawling on Environment:
The gears of Deep Sea Trawling creates huge on the life of marine plants and animals as well as the seafloor by disrupting the sediment column structure, overturning boulders, re-suspending sediments and imprinting deep scars on muddy bottoms.

With reference to the Jal Jeevan mission, consider the following statements:
1. In Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, every rural household will be provided with tap water connections by 2022, instead of by 2024.
2. 20 states in India has already achieved ‘Har Ghar Jal’ i.e. every rural household in these States/ UTs is having tap water supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pankaj Kumar answered
And Kashmir, and Uttarakhand, the mission aims to provide tap water connections to all rural households by 2024.
2. The mission is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
3. The mission aims to provide functional household tap connections to every rural household in India.

Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is:
A. 1 only

In which Indian state is the Raimona National Park located?
  • a)
    Meghalaya
  • b)
    Assam
  • c)
    West Bengal
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nclex Coaching Centre answered
According to Himanta Biswa Sarma, the Chief Minister of Assam, the Raimona reserve forest in Kokrajhar district has become the 6th national park of Assam. Raimona National Park: It is a part of a contiguous forest patch having an area of 422 km2. It comes under the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) across the border with Bhutan. It covers the northern part of Ripu Reserve Forest which is the westernmost buffer to Manas Tiger Reserve.

Consider the following statements.
1. The river originates in Varusanadu Hill, Western Ghats.
2. The river travels through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu.
3. The river empties into the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge.
4. The river finds a mention in Sangam literature.
Which of the following mentioned rivers is discussed in the above statements?
  • a)
    Vaigai River
  • b)
    Kaveri River
  • c)
    Bhavani River
  • d)
    Vellar River
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • Vaigai River originates in the Western Ghats (Varusanadu Hills).
    • It travels through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu.
    • Its main tributaries are Suruliyaru, Mullaiyaru, Varaganadhi, Manjalaru, Kottagudi, Kridhumaal and Upparu.
  • The Vaigai is 258 kms long and finally empties into the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge in Ramanathapuram district.
  • Heritage River: The Vaigai was the river that flowed through the noted city of Madurai, the capital (4th-11th century CE) of the ancient and prosperous Pandya kingdom located in southern Tamil Nadu.
    • The river finds a mention in Sangam literature dated to 300 before the Common Era.
  • Hence, option A is correct.

With reference to ‘Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. It aims to provide universal coverage of water supply to all households through functional taps in all statutory towns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Jain answered
Correct answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:

Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)
- Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is an initiative under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
- The mission aims to provide universal coverage of water supply to all households through functional taps in all statutory towns across the country.
Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as the initiative is not under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, while statement 2 is correct as it accurately reflects the objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban).

Umling La Pass, recently seen in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Ladakh
  • b)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • c)
    Sikkim
  • d)
    Uttarakhand
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
Raksha Mantri flagged off the first ever Solo Woman Motorcycle Expedition by Ms Kanchan Ugursandi to Umling La Pass, Ladakh and back.
  • Umling La Pass, located at an altitude of 19,300ft, has overtaken Khardung La Pass to become the highest motorable road in the world.
  • The construction of this road has been achieved by the BRO (Border Road Organization) as part of “Project Himank”
  • Umling La Pass, stretching to a distance of almost 86km, connects Chisumle and Demchok villages. Both these villages lie in close proximity to the Indo-China border in the eastern sector.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

The 'Operation Pangea XIV' recently seen in the news is related to?
  • a)
    Joint military exercise between India and U.K.
  • b)
    Rescue operation conducted for stranded Indians in Arabian sea during cyclone.
  • c)
    Measures to contain insurgency in North-East India.
  • d)
    Effort to disrupt the sale of fake medicines and products online.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • Recently, the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol) through its Operation Pangea XIV targeted the sale of fake medicines and products online.
    • More than 1.10 lakh web links, including websites and online marketplaces, were taken down in the operation.
  • Operation Pangea, is a well-established international effort of Interpol to disrupt the online sale of counterfeit and illicit health products. Just as importantly, Pangea works to raise awareness of the risks associated with buying medicines from unregulated websites.
  • The first Operation Pangea was conducted in 2008.
  • The current operation (14th) involved the police, customs and health regulatory authorities of 92 countries. It was coordinated by Interpol. Indian agencies also participated in the operation.
  • Hence, option D is correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. Disinvestment involves Selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to public or private entity.
2. When the government sells minority shares in a public sector entity, that is strategic disinvestment.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaushal Agrawal answered
What is strategic disinvestment or strategic sale?
When the government decides to transfer the ownership and control of a public sector entity to some other entity, either private or public, the process is called strategic disinvestment.
What is the difference between strategic disinvestment/sale and disinvestment
Selling minority shares of Public Enterprises, to another entity be it public or private is disinvestment. In this the government retains ownership of the enterprise. On the other hand, when the government sells majority shares in an enterprise, that is strategic disinvestment/sale. Here, the government gives up the ownership of the entity as well.

Consider the following statements regarding Icebergs.
1. An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floating freely in open water.
2. The ocean currents influence the movement of icebergs.
3. Icebergs carry dust which completely destroys ocean plankton.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floating freely in open (salt) water.
The giant iceberg A68, the biggest block of free-floating ice from Antarctica with an area of about 5,800 sq. km, has been drifting in the Atlantic Ocean since 2017.
This year, due to an ocean current, the iceberg was propelled into the South Atlantic Ocean and since then it has been drifting towards the remote sub-Antarctic island of South Georgia, prompting fears about the impact the iceberg could have on the island’s abundant wildlife.
Icebergs travel with ocean currents and either get caught up in shallow waters or ground themselves.
On the other hand, there are some positives of an iceberg being stuck in the open ocean, since icebergs carry dust which fertilises ocean plankton, which draws up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Consider the following statements:
1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is a legally binding international agreement.
2. The Great Green Wall initiative is focused on fighting against land degradation in the Sahel region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994, the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Great Green Wall initiative by Global Environment Facility (GEF), where eleven countries in Sahel-Saharan Africa have focused efforts to fight against land degradation and revive native plant life to the landscape. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) was promoted by the World Trade Organization in 1995 for uniform global IPR rules.
2. TRIPS does not have a provision to enable governments to enforce ‘compulsory licensing’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Kulkarni answered
Intellectual property rights through legal measures.

Both statements are false.

1. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) was indeed promoted by the World Trade Organization in 1995 to establish global standards for intellectual property rights. However, the aim of TRIPS was not to create uniform rules, but rather to strike a balance between protecting intellectual property rights and ensuring access to knowledge and technology.

2. TRIPS does have provisions to enable governments to enforce intellectual property rights through legal measures. It sets out minimum standards and obligations that member countries must adhere to in terms of intellectual property protection, enforcement, and remedies. It also allows countries to adopt measures necessary to protect public health and promote access to medicines.

In summary, TRIPS was meant to establish global standards for intellectual property rights, and it does provide provisions for governments to enforce these rights through legal measures.

Which of the following comprises of India’s foreign exchange reserves?
1. Foreign currency assets (FCAs)
2. Gold and Silver
3. SDR (special drawing rights) in IMF
4. RTP (reserve tranche position) in IMF
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 4 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Varun Singh answered
India comprises of the following:

1. States: India is divided into 28 states including Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal.

2. Union Territories: India also has 8 Union Territories including Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Delhi, Puducherry, Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir.

These states and union territories together form the Republic of India.

United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is led by
  • a)
    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • b)
    Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
  • c)
    Both a and b
  • d)
    Neither a nor b
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Athul Saini answered

United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration

The United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is led by both the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). This global initiative aims to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems worldwide.

United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- UNEP plays a key role in leading the Decade on Ecosystem Restoration.
- It focuses on promoting sustainable environmental practices and policies to protect ecosystems.

Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
- FAO is another key leader of the Decade on Ecosystem Restoration.
- It works to ensure food security and improve agriculture practices while restoring ecosystems.

Both a and b
- The correct answer is option C, as both UNEP and FAO are leading the United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration.
- They work together to promote sustainable practices and policies for the restoration of ecosystems globally.

In conclusion, the United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is a crucial initiative led by both UNEP and FAO to address the urgent need to restore and protect ecosystems for a sustainable future.

Consider the following:
1. Genetically Modified crops
2. Quarantine system
3. Germ warfare
Which of the above methods can be deployed as the Pest Controlling Methods?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • The most popular methods of containing the pest include the use of Genetically Modified (GM) crops and pesticides.
  • Natural approaches, including breeding predators such as wasps, to be released into fields when necessary, as well as developing a “germ warfare” that isolates diseases to which the caterpillar (armyworm) is prone, are being explored by the scientists.
  • A quarantine system, under which imports of grains and plants that can host such insects are inspected at shipping ports, airports and land border crossings is the first line of defence taken by the countries across the world. Hence, option D is correct.
    • The quarantine system in India is governed by the Plant Quarantine (Regulation of Import into India) Order of 2003, which is notified under the Destructive Insects and Pests Act of 1914.

Recently seen in news, ‘I-Familia’, new global database launched by:
  • a)
    Central Bureau of Investigation
  • b)
    Interpol
  • c)
    National Investigation Agency
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaushal Agrawal answered
The Interpol has launched a new global database named ‘I-Familia’. It will identify missing persons or unidentified human remains around the world through DNA of relatives.
  • The International Police Organisation is commonly known as Interpol.
  • It is an international organization facilitating international police cooperation against cross-border terrorism, trafficking, and other crime.
  • Membership: INTERPOL has 194 member countries, making us the world's largest police organization. State of Palestine is its member.
  • Governance: All decisions regarding the activities of INTERPOL are made by the General Assembly which is it’s ’s supreme governing body which meets annually.
  • It is ‘NOT’ a unit or part of united nation system. It is an independent international organization.
  • HQ: Lyon in France.
  • Founded in: 1923.
  • Each country hosts an INTERPOL National Central Bureau (NCB), which links national police with our global network. in India, CBI is the NCB.
  • Interpol notices: These are international alert/requests circulated by Interpol allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information. There are eight types of notices, seven of which are colour-coded by their function. An eighth Special Notice is issued at the request of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL) portal, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. It is a separate online portal to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act and smooth implementation of the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
On the occasion of World Day Against Child Labour, Union MCD minister appealed to Citizens to report the instances of Child Labour on PENCIL Portal or by calling on Childline-1098.
World Day Against Child Labour
  • The World Day Against Child Labour is observed on 12thJune every year around the world.
  • The International Labour Organization (ILO) launched the World Day Against Child Labour in 2002 to focus attention on the global extent of child labour and the action and efforts needed to eliminate it.
  • The 2021 World Day Against Child Labour focuses on action taken for the 2021 International Year for the Elimination of Child Labour. It is the first World Day since the universal ratification of the ILO’s Convention No. 182 on the Worst Forms of Child Labour.
  • Target 8.7 of the Sustainable Development Goals calls for ending child labour in all its forms by 2025.
PENCIL PORTAL
  • Full Name: Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL).
  • Launched in: 2017.
  • Launched by: The Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • Objective: It is a separate online portal to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act and smooth implementation of the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme.
  • Components: The PENCIL Portal (pencil.gov.in) has various components, namely Child Tracking System, Complaint Corner, State Government, National Child Labour Project and Convergence.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Geographical Indication tags are typically given for
1. Foodstuffs
2. Industrial products
3. Handicrafts
4. Wines and spirit drinks
5. Agricultural products
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3, 5 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 
  • d)
    1, 2, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
The World Intellectual Property Organisation defines a GI as “a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin”.
GIs are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, handicrafts, industrial products, wines and spirit drinks. Darjeeling tea, Kullu shawl, Mysore agarbathi, champagne (France), Swiss watches etc are some of its examples.
Internationally, GIs are covered as an element of intellectual property rights under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. They are also covered under the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.

With reference to ‘Ethanol Blending', consider the following statements:
1. Government of India targets 20% ethanol blending in petrol by 2025.
2. Increased use of ethanol can help reduce the oil import bill.
3. It results in increasing the emissions of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • The Government of India has advanced the target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol (also called E20) to 2025 from 2030. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Currently, 8.5% of ethanol is blended with petrol in India.
  • Objectives of Ethanol Blending:
    • Increased use of ethanol can help reduce the oil import bill. India’s net import cost stands at USD 551 billion in 2020-21.
      • The E20 program can save the country USD 4 billion (Rs 30,000 crore) per annum. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Use of ethanol-blended petrol decreases emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), hydrocarbons (HC) and nitrogen oxides (NOx). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Recently, The central government has released an expert committee report on the Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India by 2025.
    • The roadmap proposes a gradual rollout of ethanol-blended fuel to achieve E10 fuel supply by April 2022 and phased rollout of E20 from April 2023 to April 2025

The initiative DARPAN, sometimes seen in news is related to
  • a)
    Improve the quality and governance of school education 
  • b)
    Platform for all voluntary organisations/NGOs engaged in development activities. 
  • c)
    Disaster preparedness, and responses during health emergencies 
  • d)
    Expand immunization coverage across the country.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Menon answered
Introduction to DARPAN
DARPAN is an initiative aimed at creating a comprehensive platform for voluntary organizations and NGOs that are actively involved in various developmental activities across India.
Key Aspects of DARPAN
  • Centralized Platform: DARPAN serves as a centralized repository where NGOs can register and showcase their projects, initiatives, and achievements.
  • Collaboration and Networking: The platform facilitates collaboration among NGOs, enabling them to share resources, knowledge, and best practices.
  • Transparent Operations: By providing a structured framework, DARPAN enhances transparency and accountability within the NGO sector.
  • Government Support: The initiative is backed by the government, promoting recognition and support for NGOs contributing to social welfare.
  • Capacity Building: DARPAN also focuses on capacity building for NGOs, offering training and resources to improve their effectiveness.

Importance of the Initiative
  • Empowers NGOs: DARPAN empowers NGOs by providing them with visibility and recognition, which can lead to increased funding and support.
  • Enhances Impact: By connecting organizations, DARPAN helps amplify their impact on community development and social issues.
  • Facilitates Monitoring: The platform allows for better monitoring and evaluation of NGO activities, ensuring that they align with national development goals.

Conclusion
In summary, DARPAN plays a crucial role in improving the operational framework of NGOs in India, thereby enhancing their effectiveness in contributing to socio-economic development.

DAVINCI+ and VERITAS missions, recently seen in news are related to
  • a)
    Build commercial spacecrafts powered by biofuel 
  • b)
    Take tourists to space successfully 
  • c)
    Study Venus’ composition 
  • d)
    large-scale survey of exoplanets
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
NASA has selected two missions to the planet Venus, Earth’s nearest neighbour. The missions called DAVINCI+ and VERITAS have been selected based on their potential for scientific value and the feasibility of their development plans.
Both missions are part of the space agency’s Discovery Program, which began in 1992 to give scientists the chance to launch some missions that use fewer resources and have shorter developmental times.
DAVINCI+ is short for ‘Deep Atmosphere Venus Investigation of Noble gases, Chemistry, and Imaging’ and is the first US-led mission to the planet’s atmosphere since 1978.
VERITAS is short for ‘Venus Emissivity, Radio Science, InSAR, Topography, and Spectroscopy’ and will map the planet’s surface to determine its geologic history and understand the reasons why it developed so differently from Earth.

With reference to the National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It was established in 1978.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaushal Agrawal answered
National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) is collaborating with the Science Museum Group, London for an international travelling exhibition ‘Hunt for the Vaccine’. The exhibition will tell the story of the global effort to find new ways to develop vaccines and look at vaccinations more broadly with a historical and contemporary view.
  • National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) is a premiere institution in the field of science communication.
  • It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India.
  • It is Headquartered in Kolkata.
  • It was established in 1978.
  • It is primarily engaged in popularizing Science and Technology through a network of science centres and Mobile Science Exhibitions (MSE) units that visit rural schools.
  • Presently NCSM administers and manages 25 science museums/centres spread across the country and is the “world’s largest network of science centres and museums that functions under a single administrative umbrella” with an annual reach to about 15 million people.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following are the common methods of treatment and disposal of bio-medical waste?
1. Incineration for Yellow Category waste
2. Autoclaving for Red Category waste
3. Sterilization and shredding for White Category sharps waste
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
The report titled, “State of India's Environment 2021,” released by the Centre for Science and Environment, said 2,03,000 kg of COVID-19 biomedical waste was produced daily in May this year and it was roughly 33% of India's non-COVID biomedical waste.
As per Bio-medical Waste Management Rules, 2016, Bio-medical waste is required to be segregated in 4 colour coded waste categories, and the same is treated and disposed as per the methods prescribed under Schedule I of the Rules.
Common methods of treatment and disposal of bio-medical waste are by
  • incineration/plasma pyrolysis/deep-burial for Yellow Category waste;
    • washing, disinfection followed by recycling for Blue Category glass waste.
    • sterilization and shredding, disinfection followed by burial in concrete pit/recycling through foundry/encapsulation for White Category sharps waste; and
    • autoclaving/microwaving/chemical disinfection for Red Category waste;
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Lamu port, often mentioned in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Kenya
  • b)
    South Africa
  • c)
    Algeria
  • d)
    Russia
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Kenya recently launched its newest mega infrastructure project, the Lamu port, which is a part of an ambitious transport corridor between Lamu (a small archipelago north of Mombasa in Kenya), South Sudan and Ethiopia.
  • The Lamu port is going to be Kenya’s second deep-water port after Mombasa.
  • The port is part of the wider US $23 billion Lamu Port South Sudan-Ethiopia Transport (LAPSSET) corridor and has been constructed by China Communications Construction Company, with the first three of the planned 32 berths coming at a cost of US $367 million.
  • This transport corridor is touted to comprise a standard gauge railway line; an oil pipeline and refinery; road network; international airports at Isiolo, Lamu, Lokichogio; the port of Lamu at Manda Bay; and resort cities.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the H10N3, consider the following statements:
1. It is a subtype of the Influenza A virus which is commonly known as the bird flu virus.
2. It can spread through respiratory droplets in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • Recently, China has reported the first case of human infection with the H10N3 strain of bird flu in Jiangsu province.
  • H10N3 is a subtype of the Influenza A virus which is commonly known as the bird flu virus. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It is a low pathogenic, or relatively less severe, strain of the virus in poultry and the risk of it spreading on a large scale is very low.
    • Among animals, it can spread through respiratory droplets, similar to flu and Covid-19. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. Venus appears bright because of its thick cloud cover that reflects and scatters light.
2. Venus is called the Earth’s twin because of their similar sizes.
3. Venus does have a moon and also rings around it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Saha answered
1. **Venus appears bright because of its thick cloud cover**
Venus is known for its thick cloud cover made up of sulfuric acid that reflects and scatters sunlight, making the planet appear very bright in the sky. This cloud cover is so dense that it reflects about 70% of the sunlight that reaches it, contributing to its luminosity.
2. **Venus is called the Earth's twin because of their similar sizes**
Venus is often referred to as Earth's twin because of their similar sizes. Venus has a diameter that is about 95% of Earth's, making them almost the same size. However, despite their size similarity, Venus is a very different planet compared to Earth, with extreme temperatures and a toxic atmosphere.
Therefore, the correct statements are:
a) 1, 2
Statement 3 is incorrect as Venus does not have any moons or rings around it. Venus is one of the only two planets in our solar system (the other being Mercury) that do not have any natural satellites or rings.

With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an investigating agency
2. The commission members shall be appointed by the President of India on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson) and the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has laid down a defined procedure to be followed by government organisations for getting vigilance clearance before employing a ‘retired’ official on a contractual or consultancy basis.
  • Before offering employment to retired All India Services and Group A officers of the Central government or their equivalent in other organisations owned or controlled by the Centre, vigilance clearance from the employer organisation, from which the officer has retired, should be obtained.
  • In case a retired officer served in more than one organisation, clearance has to be obtained from all of them where the person was posted in the 10 years prior to retirement.
  • Simultaneously, a communication seeking clearance should also be sent to the CVC.
  • If no reply is received from the erstwhile employer (s) within 21 days of sending the communication by speed post, vigilance clearance should be deemed to have been given.
  • Later, if the employee is found involved in any vigilance-related matter or not cleared from the vigilance point of view, the erstwhile employer organisation would be responsible for all consequential actions.
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
  • Mandate:
    1. it is an apex Indian governmental statutory body to address governmental corruption.
    2. The CVC is not an investigating agency: the only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government.
  • History:
    1. it was set up by the Government in 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam.
    2. Consequent upon promulgation of an Ordinance by the President, the CVC has been made a multi member Commission with "statutory status" with effect from 25th August,1998.
    3. Later on the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 was enacted which governs it.
  • The Commission shall consist of –
    1. A Central Vigilance Commissioner - Chairperson;
    2. Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners - Members;
  • Nittoor Srinivasa Rau, was selected as the first Chief Vigilance Commissioner of India.
  • Appointment: The commission members shall be appointed by the President of India on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of home affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha.
Hence both statements are incorrect.

Who has become the 1st Indian woman to be appointed as a member of the International Boxing Association(AIBA) coaches committee?
  • a)
    Dr. Tadang Minu
  • b)
    Mary Kom
  • c)
    Gitika
  • d)
    Babyrojisana Chanu
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amruta Ingle answered
Arunachal Pradesh woman, Dr Tadang Minu, becomes the first in the state and the second Indian woman in the country to be appointed as a member of the Coaches Committee of the International Boxing Association (AIBA). She has been appointed by AIBA for her enormous knowledge and experience in the field of boxing.

Consider the following statements:
1. Venus and Uranus are the only planets of the solar system that spin anticlockwise about their own axis.
2. The rotation period of Venus is the longest for any planet of the solar system.
3. Venera and Vegas are the robotic missions of NASA to Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Venus is the second brightest natural object in the night sky after the Moon, probably that is the reason why it was the first planet to have its motions plotted across the sky, as early as the second millennium BC.
    • Unlike the other planets in our solar system, Venus and Uranus spin clockwise on their axis. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • A day on Venus is longer than a year. It takes Venus longer to rotate once on its axis than to complete one orbit of the Sun.
    • That’s 243 Earth days to rotate once - the longest rotation of any planet in the Solar System - and only 224.7 Earth days to complete one orbit of the Sun. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced two new robotic missions to Venus.
    • The two sister missions named DaVinci Plus and Veritas are aimed at understanding how Venus became an inferno-like world capable of melting lead at the surface.
    • DaVinci Plus:
      • It will be the first of the two, it will analyze the thick, cloudy Venusian atmosphere in an attempt to determine whether the inferno planet ever had an ocean and was possibly habitable. A small craft will plunge through the atmosphere to measure the gases.
    • Veritas:
      • It will be the second one seeking a geologic history by mapping the rocky planet’s surface.
    • Venera and Vegas were the previous Venusian missions of Russia. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

With reference to the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an apex advisory body for the development of the Maritime sector and aims to ensure integrated development of Major and non-Major Ports.
2. It was constituted in 1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Union Minister of State (I/C) for Port, Shipping and Waterways Shri Mansukh Mandaviya chaired the 18th meeting of the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) today through a video conference organized by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  • MSDC is an apex advisory body for the development of the Maritime sector and aims to ensure integrated development of Major and non-Major Ports.
  • The MSDC was constituted in May 1997 to assess in consultation with State Governments, the future development of existing and new Minor Ports by the respective Maritime States either directly or through captive users and private participation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides the tribals the freedom to exercise legislative and executive powers through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
2. Each ADC is allowed to have not more than 45 members, all of which are directly elected.
3. The State laws may/ may not be applicable in the Sixth Scheduled areas depending upon the approval of the Governor of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rithika Basak answered
Explanation:

1. Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It allows tribals to exercise legislative and executive powers through the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in these areas.

2. Composition of ADCs:
Each ADC is allowed to have not more than 45 members, all of whom are directly elected by the people living in the autonomous district. The members of the ADCs have the power to make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, and local customs.

3. Applicability of State laws:
In the Sixth Scheduled areas, the State laws may or may not be applicable, depending upon the approval of the Governor of the state. The Governor has the authority to decide which laws of the State are applicable in these areas, taking into consideration the special status and autonomy granted to the ADCs.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, as the Sixth Schedule provides for the autonomy of tribal areas through ADCs and the Governor has the power to decide the applicability of State laws in these areas.

Which of the following Union Territory (UT) recently reserved all jobs for the residents of the region?
  • a)
    Jammu & Kashmir
  • b)
    Ladakh
  • c)
    Lakshadweep
  • d)
    Chandigarh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
All jobs in the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh have been reserved for the residents of the region, according to an order issued by Lieutenant-Governor R.K. Mathur.
  • No person shall be qualified for appointment to the service unless the person is a resident of the UT of Ladakh.
  • The new recruitment rules are mentioned in the Clause 11 of the Union Territory of Ladakh Employment (Subordinate) Service Recruitment Rules, 2021.
  • The move has met a long-pending demand of the people of Ladakh, after it was carved out as a UT on August 5, 2019.
  • The population of Ladakh, which comprises the districts of Leh and Kargil, is around 2.8 lakh as per the last census.
  • Last year, J&K introduced the domicile certificate as eligibility criteria for appointment to government services.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum (UAM), consider the following statements:
1. UAM is a one-page registration form which constitutes a self-declaration format under which the MSME will self-certify its existence, bank account details, promoter/owner’s Aadhaar details and other minimum information required.
2. There shall be no fee for filing the Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Datta answered
Understanding Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum (UAM)
The Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum (UAM) is an important initiative by the Government of India aimed at simplifying the registration process for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Let's break down the two statements regarding UAM.
Statement 1: One-page registration form
- UAM is indeed a one-page registration form.
- It serves as a self-declaration format where MSMEs can self-certify their existence.
- The required details include:
- Bank account information
- Promoter or owner’s Aadhaar details
- Other essential information as specified by the authorities.
This statement is correct.
Statement 2: No fee for filing UAM
- There is no fee associated with filing the Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum.
- This initiative aims to encourage more MSMEs to register without the burden of financial costs.
This statement is also correct.
Conclusion
Since both statements accurately reflect the features of the Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
By facilitating a simple and cost-free registration process, UAM plays a crucial role in promoting the growth of MSMEs in India, enhancing their access to various benefits and schemes provided by the government.

With reference to the EnVision mission, consider the following statements:
1. The mission is led by European Space Agency (ESA) with contributions from NASA.
2. It will study the atmosphere and analyse the surface composition of Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • Recently, European Space Agency (ESA) has announced a new mission- EnVision mission to Venus.
    • It is an European Space Agency (ESA) led mission with contributions from the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is likely to be launched sometime in the 2030s. Once launched on an Ariane 6 rocket, the spacecraft will take about 15 months to reach Venus and will take 16 more months to achieve orbit circularisation.
    • The mission will carry a range of instruments to study the planet’s atmosphere and surface, monitor trace gases in the atmosphere and analyse its surface composition. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • EnVision will follow another ESA-led mission to Venus called ‘Venus Express’ (2005-2014) that focussed on atmospheric research and pointed to volcanic hotspots on the planet’s surface.

Which of the following has commercially launched the 1st-ever yellow watermelon variety called “Yellow Gold 48” in India under the Seminis brand?
  • a)
    Bharat Crop Sciences India Pvt Ltd
  • b)
    German Agrochemicals Major Bayer
  • c)
    Cripple Creek Sweet Watermelon DBA
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
German Agrochemicals Major Bayer has commercially launched the 1st-ever yellow watermelon variety called “Yellow Gold 48” in India under the Seminis brand. Yellow Watermelon: Yellow watermelon variety has been commercially introduced in India after 2 years of local trials. It has been developed from superior germplasm under Bayer’s global research and development efforts. It has enhanced yield potential, better disease & pest tolerance and higher returns which can benefit watermelon growers.

Namibia shares land borders with which of the following countries?
1. Angola
2. South Africa
3. Zambia
4. Zimbabwe
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Namibia shares land borders with Zambia and Angola to the north, Botswana to the east and South Africa to the south and east. Although it does not border Zimbabwe, less than 200 metres of the Zambezi River separates the two countries.

Performance Grading Index for school education, recently seen in news, was released by:
  • a)
    World Economic Forum
  • b)
    NITI Aayog
  • c)
    Union Ministry of Education
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Chauhan answered
Performance Grading Index for school education


The Performance Grading Index (PGI) for school education is an initiative launched by the Union Ministry of Education (formerly known as the Ministry of Human Resource Development) in India. The PGI aims to assess the performance of states and union territories in the field of school education and encourage them to take measures for improving the quality of education.


Objective of the Performance Grading Index


The objective of the Performance Grading Index is to provide a comprehensive framework for evaluating the performance of states and union territories in the field of school education. It assesses the efforts made by the states and union territories in improving the quality of education and identifies areas that require further attention and improvement. The PGI also aims to encourage healthy competition among states and union territories to improve their performance in the education sector.


Components of the Performance Grading Index


The Performance Grading Index consists of three broad categories or domains:



  1. Quality, which includes learning outcomes, access, infrastructure, and facilities in schools.

  2. Equity, which focuses on inclusive education and reducing disparities among different sections of society.

  3. Efficiency, which evaluates the governance and management practices in schools and the implementation of various educational initiatives.



Methodology of the Performance Grading Index


The Performance Grading Index is based on a set of indicators and parameters that are used to evaluate the performance of states and union territories. These indicators and parameters are designed to capture various aspects of school education, such as student learning outcomes, access to education, infrastructure, and governance.


The data for the PGI is collected through a combination of self-assessment by states and union territories, data verification by independent agencies, and direct observations by experts. The collected data is then analyzed and graded on a scale of 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating better performance.


Significance of the Performance Grading Index


The Performance Grading Index is significant as it provides a transparent and objective assessment of the performance of states and union territories in the field of school education. It helps in identifying the strengths and weaknesses of different regions and enables policymakers to formulate targeted interventions and policies for improving the quality of education.


By promoting healthy competition among states and union territories, the PGI encourages them to take proactive measures for enhancing the quality of education. It also serves as a tool for monitoring and tracking the progress of different regions over time.


Overall, the Performance Grading Index for school education is an important initiative by the Union Ministry of Education to drive improvements in the education sector and ensure quality education for all students.

With reference to the Raising and Accelerating Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Performance (RAMP) Program, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative of World Economic Forum (WEF).
2. It will scale up online dispute resolution mechanisms to address the problem of delayed payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
The World Bank has approved a USD 500 million program to help boost India’s MSME sector.
  • The USD 500 million Raising and Accelerating Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Performance (RAMP) Program is the World Bank’s second intervention in this sector.
  • The first being the USD 750 million MSME Emergency Response Program, approved in July 2020 to address the immediate liquidity and credit needs of millions of viable MSMEs severely impacted by the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic.
Features
  • The programme targets improvements in the performance of 5.5 lakh MSMEs and is expected to mobilise financing of USD 15.5 billion, as part of the government's USD 3.4 billion MSME Competitiveness - A Post-COVID Resilience and Recovery Programme (MCRRP).
  • The RAMP program will provide better access to finance and working capital for MSMEs by strengthening the receivable financing markets.
  • It will also scale up online dispute resolution mechanisms to address the problem of delayed payments.
  • The USD 500 million loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a maturity of 18.5 years including a 5.5-year grace period.
  • Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty.
1. Countries carry out anti-dumping probes to determine whether their domestic industries have been hurt because of a surge in cheap imports.
2. Countries impose Anti-Dumping duties outside the regime of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
3. In India, Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry conducts anti-dumping investigations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Countries carry out anti-dumping probes to determine whether their domestic industries have been hurt because of a surge in cheap imports.
As a counter measure, they impose duties under the multilateral regime of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Dumping is a process wherein a company exports a product at a price that is significantly lower than the price it normally charges in its home (or its domestic) market.
Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) conducts anti-dumping investigations, under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and the rules made thereunder, on the basis of a duly substantiated application filed by the domestic industry alleging dumping of goods into the country causing injury to the domestic industry. The basic intent of anti-dumping measures is to eliminate injury caused to the domestic industry by the unfair trade practice of dumping and to create a level playing field for the domestic industry.

Consider the following statements.
1. Urea forms more than two-third of the total nitrogenous fertilisers consumed in India.
2. More than 90% of the nitrogen from urea is utilised by plants and very less gets wasted due to leaching, volatilization and run off.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
It may be noted that urea forms 82 per cent of the total nitrogenous fertilisers consumed in India and it has recorded exponential increase in consumption over the years.
Around 30-50 per cent of nitrogen from urea is utilised by plants and the rest gets wasted due to quick chemical transformation as a result of leaching, volatilization and run off, thereby low use efficiency.

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Navy’s 30 year Submarine Plan:
1. The Plan includes indigenous construction of 24 conventional submarines by 2030.
2. Project 75 (I) and Project 75 are the parts of this plan.
3. INS Arihant and INS Arighat are nuclear powered submarines commissioned under this Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Ahuja answered
1. The Indian Navy is the naval branch of the Indian Armed Forces.
2. It is the fifth largest navy in the world in terms of active personnel.
3. The primary objective of the Indian Navy is to safeguard the nation's maritime borders and interests.
4. The Indian Navy operates and maintains a fleet of various types of ships, submarines, and aircraft.
5. It is responsible for conducting joint naval exercises and operations with other countries to enhance maritime security and cooperation.
6. The Indian Navy has played a significant role in disaster relief operations, both within India and in other countries.
7. The Indian Navy has a history dating back to the ancient times and has seen significant modernization and expansion in recent years.
8. The Indian Navy has been actively involved in counter-piracy operations in the Indian Ocean region.
9. The Indian Navy has its own special forces unit called the Marine Commandos (MARCOS).
10. The Indian Navy is headquartered in New Delhi, with operational commands located in various coastal cities across India.

Please note that the information provided above is based on general knowledge and may not be completely up to date.

Consider the following statements regarding International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
1. It is the international body that brings together the world’s securities regulators.
2. It is recognized as the global standard setter for the securities sector.
3. Securities andExchange Board of India (SEBI) is the Associate Member of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivam Verma answered
's securities regulators and is recognized as the global standard setter for the regulation of securities markets.
2. IOSCO's mission is to promote and coordinate the regulation of securities markets, enhance investor protection, and ensure fair and efficient markets.
3. IOSCO develops, implements, and promotes adherence to internationally recognized standards for securities regulation.
4. IOSCO provides a platform for securities regulators to exchange information and cooperate in the supervision and oversight of securities markets.
5. IOSCO aims to facilitate cross-border cooperation and harmonization of securities regulations to promote global financial stability.

All of the statements are true.

Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO).
2. The IHO has recognised the Southern Ocean as the world’s fifth ocean since 1953.
3. The Southern Ocean is the only ocean that touches the Pacific, Indian and Atlantic Oceans.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saptarshi Malik answered
's fifth ocean.

Both statements are true.

1. India is a member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO). The IHO is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the development of hydrography and nautical charting. India joined the IHO in 1961 and actively participates in its activities.

2. The IHO has recognized the Southern Ocean as the world's fifth ocean. In June 2021, the IHO officially recognized the Southern Ocean as a distinct body of water, separate from the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans. This decision was made to highlight the unique physical and ecological characteristics of the Southern Ocean, particularly its distinct currents and ecosystems.

Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

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