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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
1. The endemicity is a stage where disease is always present in a certain population or a given geographical region.
2. The epidemic refers to an outbreak of a disease and its spread through one or more populations.
3. Chicken pox and malaria are examples of epidemics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • According to the World Health Organization (WHO) India seems to be entering some stage of Covid-19 endemicity where there is low- to moderate-level transmission.
  • An endemic disease is a disease that is always present in a certain population or a given geographical region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Some examples of endemics include chicken pox and malaria, where there are a predictable number of cases every year in certain parts of the world. Hence, statement 3 is not correct
  • Epidemic refers to an outbreak of a disease. An epidemic occurs when a disease is spreading through one or more populations. In contrast, the endemic disease is one that is constantly present in a group or geographic area. Hence, statement 2 is correct
    • Pandemics are worldwide epidemics. A pandemic affects more people and takes more lives than an epidemic.
    • Under certain circumstances, an epidemic can lead to a disease becoming endemic.

With reference to the National Farmers’ Database, consider the following statements:
1. The national database was created by taking data from existing national schemes such as PM-KISAN, soil health cards and the insurance scheme PM Fasal Bima Yojna.
2. It is an initiative of NITI aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Centre has created a National Farmers’ Database with records of 5.5 crore farmers, which it hopes to increase to 8 crore farmers by December by linking it to State land record databases, according to Agriculture Minister Narendra Singh Tomar.
  • Farmers’ database is key to advances in digital agriculture. Agriculture has to be linked with digital technology, scientific research and knowledge.
  • The national database was created by taking data from existing national schemes such as PM-KISAN, soil health cards and the insurance scheme PM Fasal Bima Yojna. So far, 5.5 crore farmers had been identified in this manner.
  • The Minister urged the States to create their own databases using the national database’s federated structure and also allow linkages to the land records maintained by the States.
  • With the help of State governments, a total of eight crore farmers would be included by the end of the year. He also urged to study the Karnataka model for digital agriculture presented at the conference.
  • In July, Mr. Tomar told the Lok Sabha that the database could be used “for targeted service delivery with higher efficiency and in a focussed and time-bound manner” and that it was the core for the proposed Agristack digital agriculture ecosystem.
  • Already, companies such as Microsoft, Amazon and Patanjali had been asked to develop technology solutions for farmers using data from the database.
  • Activists have raised privacy and consent concerns about using farmers’ data in such a way.
  • Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of melting of Arctic Ice?
1. Change in current and precipitation patterns
2. Polar vortexes
3. Surge in storms
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
Impact of Melting Arctic Ice:
  • Global Climate Change:
    • The Arctic and Antarctic act like the world’s refrigerator. They balance out other parts of the world that absorb heat. The loss of ice and the warming waters will affect sea levels, salinity levels, and current and precipitation patterns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Danger to Coastal Communities:
    • Global average sea level has risen by about 7-8 inches since 1900, and it’s getting worse.
    • Rising seas endanger coastal cities and small island nations by exacerbating Coastal Flooding and storm surge. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Food Security:
    • Polar vortexes, increased heat waves, and unpredictability of weather caused by ice loss are already causing significant damage to crops on which global food systems depend. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Loss of Methane Store:
    • Permafrost in the Arctic region (ground that is permanently frozen) stores large amounts of methane, which is a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change.
    • As more quickly the arctic ice is lost, more rapidly permafrost will melt. This will result in a vicious cycle that may result in a climate catastrophe.
  • Biodiversity Threat:
    • Melting of the Arctic ice puts the Arctic region’s vibrant biodiversity under serious threat.

Consider the following:
1. Albedo feedback loop mechanism
2. Darker ocean surface
3. Counterclockwise circulation of cyclones
Which of the above factors can be termed as responsible for the rapid melting of Arctic sea ice?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
  • About Factors Causing Rapid Melting of Arctic Sea Ice:
    • Albedo Feedback Loop:
      • Ice is more reflective (has a higher albedo) than land or water surfaces, this is one of several reasons for the Arctic’s warming about three times faster than the planet as a whole.
        • Therefore, as global ice cover decreases, the reflectivity of Earth’s surface decreases, more incoming solar radiation is absorbed by the surface, and the surface warms.
        • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Darker Ocean Surface:
      • The Arctic's bright ice is replaced by a darker open ocean surface, less of the sun’s radiation is reflected back to space, driving additional heating and ice loss. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Counterclockwise Ice Circulation:
      • Cyclones entering the Arctic from Siberia generated counterclockwise winds and ice drifts.
      • This pattern generally reduces the amount of sea ice moving out of the Arctic through the Fram Strait, east of Greenland. This likely contributed to the record low summer sea ice conditions observed in the Greenland Sea. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

With reference to PM Poshan Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to establish Nutritional Gardens in schools.
2. It seeks to provide supplementary nutrition for children in aspirational districts.
3. It seeks to implement the Tithi Bhojan Concept.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Khanna answered
Overview of PM Poshan Scheme
The PM Poshan Scheme, formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, aims to enhance the nutritional status of school-age children in India. It encompasses several initiatives to promote health and well-being among students.
Key Statements Explained
1. Nutritional Gardens in Schools
- The scheme aims to establish Nutritional Gardens in schools to promote awareness about nutrition and foster a sense of responsibility among students regarding healthy eating habits.
- These gardens allow students to grow vegetables and herbs, making them more engaged in their food sources.
2. Supplementary Nutrition in Aspirational Districts
- The scheme specifically targets aspirational districts, which are identified based on various socio-economic indicators.
- It seeks to provide supplementary nutrition to ensure that children in these districts receive adequate nourishment, thereby improving their health and educational outcomes.
3. Tithi Bhojan Concept
- The Tithi Bhojan Concept is an initiative under the PM Poshan Scheme that encourages communities to contribute meals on special occasions.
- This concept fosters community involvement and ensures that children receive nutritious meals during festivals and significant events.
Conclusion
Given the explanations for each statement, all three statements are correct. The PM Poshan Scheme indeed focuses on establishing Nutritional Gardens, providing supplementary nutrition in aspirational districts, and implementing the Tithi Bhojan Concept. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D': 1, 2, and 3.

Consider the following statements:
1. Blue foods are food derived from aquatic animals, plants or algae that are caught or cultivated in freshwater and marine environments.
2. The blue foods are ranked higher than terrestrial animal-source foods in terms of their nutritional benefits and potential for sustainability gains.
3. The production of blue food generates the fewest greenhouse gas and nutrient emissions and uses the least land and water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Blue foods are food derived from aquatic animals, plants or algae that are caught or cultivated in freshwater and marine environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • They are found to rank more highly than terrestrial animal-source foods in terms of their nutritional benefits and potential for sustainability gains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Many blue food species are rich in important nutrients like omega-3 fatty acids, vitamins and minerals.
  • On average, the major species produced in aquaculture, such as tilapia, salmon, catfish and carp, were found to have lower environmental footprints comparable to terrestrial meat.
  • The production of blue food generates the fewest greenhouse gas and nutrient emissions and uses the least land and water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

With reference to the Dark energy, consider the following statements:
1. Dark energy, the mysterious form of energy that makes up about 68% of the universe, has intrigued physicists and astronomers for decades.
2. While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
An international team of researchers made the first putative direct detection of dark energy.
  • Dark energy, the mysterious form of energy that makes up about 68% of the universe, has intrigued physicists and astronomers for decades.
  • Dark energy has been noted as “the most profound mystery in all of science”.
Dark energy Vs Dark matter
  • Everything we see – the planets, moons, massive galaxies, you, me, this website – makes up less than 5% of the universe.
  • About 27% is dark matter and 68% is dark energy.
  • While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.
  • Despite both components being invisible, we know a lot more about dark matter, since its existence was suggested as early as the 1920s, while dark energy wasn’t discovered until 1998
Recent detection
  • They noticed certain unexpected results in an underground experiment and write that dark energy may be responsible for it.
  • The XENON1T experiment is the world’s most sensitive dark matter experiment and was operated deep underground at the INFN Laboratori Nazionali del Gran Sasso in Italy.
  • The finding also suggests that experiments like XENON1T, which are designed to detect dark matter, could also be used to detect dark energy.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. Left-wing extremists are known as Naxalites in India.
2. The Red corridor is referred to as the region affected by Left-wing extremism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
  • Left-wing extremists, popularly known as Maoists worldwide and as Naxalites in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The term Naxalism derives its name from the village Naxalbari of West Bengal. It originated as a rebellion against local landlords who bashed a peasant over a land dispute.
    • The rebellion was initiated in 1967, with an objective of rightful redistribution of the land to working peasants under the leadership of Kanu Sanyal and Jagan Santhal.
  • It is considered that Naxals support Maoist political sentiments and ideology.
    • Maoism is a form of communism developed by Mao Tse Tung. It is a doctrine to capture State power through a combination of armed insurgency, mass mobilization and strategic alliances.
    • The region, affected by Left-wing extremism, is referred to as the Red corridor. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Arjun Mk-1A main battle tanks (MBT), consider the following statements:
1. The state-of-the-art MBT Mk-1A is a new variant of Arjun tank designed to enhance fire power, mobility and survivability.
2. It was designed and developed by the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
The Defence Ministry placed an order with the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF), Avadi, for the supply of 118 indigenous Arjun Mk-1A main battle tanks (MBT) for the Army at a cost of ₹7,523 crore.
  • The state-of-the-art MBT Mk-1A is a new variant of Arjun tank designed to enhance fire power, mobility and survivability. Infused with 72 new features and more indigenous content from the Mk-1 variant, the tank would ensure effortless mobility in all terrains, besides precise target engagement during day and night.
  • The MBT Arjun Mk-1A was designed and developed by the Combat Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (CVRDE), along with the other laboratories of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • In February, Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally handed over Arjun Mk-1A to Army chief General Manoj Naravane in Chennai. The Army has two regiments of Arjun Mk1 tanks in service inducted between 2005 and 2010.
  • This production order to Avadi factory opens up a large avenue in defence manufacturing for over 200 Indian vendors including MSMEs, with employment opportunities to around 8,000 people.
  • The Arjun Mk-1A has 14 major upgrades over the Mk1 variant, which were formulated and approved in October 2018 and subsequently limited user validation trials were carried out of all the upgrades. The Mk1A will be without missile firing capability and will be incorporated as and when the development is complete.
  • An Arjun hub has been set up in Jaisalmer where 248 rotables have been deposited to ensure quick support and maintenance for the fleet.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

The La Palma islands, where the Cumbre Vieja volcano has erupted for the first time in 50 years, is a part of which of the following countries?
  • a)
    Cuba
  • b)
    Spain
  • c)
    Italy
  • d)
    Chile
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • The Cumbre Vieja volcano erupted for the first time in 50 years. The last time hot molten lava erupted and spread was in 1971.
  • La Palma is the most north-westerly island of the Canary Islands, Spain.
    • It’s geography is a result of a volcanic formation and has an area of 708 square kilometres making it the fifth largest of the eight main Canary Islands.
  • The Canary Islands are a group of ocean island volcanoes located off the coast of western Africa that have been formed by volcanic activity since around 20 million years ago.
    • It comprises the Spanish provinces of Las Palmas and Santa Cruz de Tenerife.
  • Hence, option B is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF):
1. It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 5th Finance Commission.
2. It is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) every year.
3. The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for all the States and Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)

• The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) is a fund constituted by each state and union territory for meeting the expenses for emergency response and relief.

• It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.

• The SDRF is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) every year.

• The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for all the States and Union Territories.

Statement Analysis

1. It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 5th Finance Commission.

This statement is incorrect as the SDRF was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.

2. It is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) every year.

This statement is correct. The SDRF is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) every year.

3. The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for all the States and Union Territories.

This statement is incorrect. The Centre contributes 90% of the SDRF allocation for all the States and Union Territories.

With reference to the Nipah virus, consider the following statements:
1. The virus is transmitted to people from animals and can also be passed on through contaminated food or directly from person-to-person.
2. There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific for Nipah virus infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sleepy Classes answered
After a gap of over three years, a case of the zoonotic Nipah virus infection was reported in Kozhikode district of Kerala, with the death of a 12-year-old boy from Pazhoor, near Chathamangalam, at a private hospital.
  • The virus is transmitted to people from animals and can also be passed on through contaminated food or directly from person-to-person.
  • Fruit bats are considered to be a natural reservoir of the virus.
  • In infected people, it causes a range of illnesses from asymptomatic (subclinical) infection to acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. The virus can also cause severe disease in animals such as pigs, resulting in significant economic losses for farmers.
  • There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific for Nipah virus infection although WHO has identified Nipah as a priority disease for the WHO Research and Development Blueprint.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Real effective exchange rate (REER).
1. The real effective exchange rate (REER) compares a nation’s currency value against the weighted average of the currencies of its major trading partners.
2. An increase in a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper.
3. India’s REER basket has remained constant for the past 10 years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
The real effective exchange rate (REER) of the rupee has remained around the benchmark (base year value of 100) for most part of the last 15 years, reflecting India’s better external competitiveness, a Reserve Bank of India study said.
The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) and real effective exchange rate (REER) basket of the rupee is reviewed regularly.
The NEER is an index of the weighted average of bilateral exchange rates of home currency vis-a-vis currencies of trading partners, with weights derived from their shares in the trade basket of the home currency. A REER is the NEER adjusted by relative prices or costs, typically captured in inflation differentials between the home economy and trading partners.
Taking cognisance of these factors, the broad basket of NEER/ REER indices of the rupee has been expanded from 36 to 40 currencies and rebased to 2015-16.
An increase in a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper. It is losing its trade competitiveness.

नागरिक समानता का तात्पर्य है
  • a)
    कानून के समक्ष समानता
  • b)
    अवसर की समानता
  • c)
    धन का समान वितरण
  • d)
    राज्य के मामलों में भाग लेने का समान अधिकार
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Kapoor answered
डॉ। जेनिंग्स के अनुसार ने कहा: “कानून के समक्ष समानता का अर्थ है कि कानून के बीच समानता सभी के लिए समान होनी चाहिए। और समान रूप से प्रशासित किया जाना चाहिए, जैसे कि एक जैसे व्यवहार किया जाना चाहिए। मुकदमा चलाने और एक ही तरह की कार्रवाई के लिए मुकदमा चलाने का अधिकार पूर्ण जाति, धर्म, धन, सामाजिक स्थिति या राजनीतिक प्रभाव के भेद के बिना पूरी उम्र और समझ के सभी नागरिकों के लिए समान होना चाहिए। ”

With reference to the Solar DC cooking technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is a solar energy based cooking system developed by the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute (CMERI).
2. It has better efficiency than conventional solar based cooking systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
  • Recently, the solar DC cooking technology was developed by the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute (CMERI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The CMERI is an institute under the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
  • It is a Solar Energy based Cooking System which consists of a solar PV panel, charge controller, battery bank and cooking oven.
    • It provides a Clean Cooking Environment, Inverter-Less Direct Operation, Fast and Uniform Heating and a potential to save 1 ton Carbon Dioxide emissions per year/household.
    • It has 20-25% better efficiency and is more Economical in comparison with Conventional Solar based Cooking Systems which loses efficiency owing to AC-DC conversion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The simple Technology Design also ensures Ease-of-Manufacturing and thus provides a substantial Economic Opportunity for the Micro-Industries.
    • Along with the widening of the popularity base of Technology, there is a probability of improvement in Job Prospects.

Which of the following tunnels are located in Jammu and Kashmir?
1. Nilgrar Tunnels
2. Chattergala Tunnel
3. Z-Morh Tunnel
4. Atal Tunnel
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 4 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 and 4 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
  • Z-Morh Tunnel: It is an under construction tunnel, 20 km away from the Zojila Pass, on Srinagar-Kargil-Leh highway.
    • The 6.5 km long tunnel will connect Gagangir directly to Sonamarg in Kashmir.
  • Nilgrar Tunnels:
    • The Nilgrar-I is a twin tube tunnel of 433 m length each.
    • The Nilgrar twin tunnel-II is of 1.95 Km length each.
    • Nilgrar-I and Nilgrar-II tunnels are part of the 18 Km long approach road to Zojila west portal.
      • Zojila tunnel will provide connectivity to Ladakh region Kargil, Drass and Leh.
  • Chattergala Tunnel: It is an under construction road tunnel in Jammu and Kashmir.
    • The tunnel will be 6.8 km long and will connect Kathua and Doda districts of Jammu and Kashmir via basohli-bani through Chattergala.
  • The Atal Tunnel is located in Himachal Pradesh’s Rohtang, which connects Solang Valley near Manali to Sissu in Lahaul and Spiti district.
    • The 9.02-km tunnel is the longest highway tunnel in the world above the height of 3,000 metres.
    • It cuts through a mountain west of the Rohtang pass and will shorten the distance between Solang Valley and Sissu by around 46 km and will take around 15 minutes to cover. Earlier, it would take nearly 4 hours to travel between the two points.
  • Hence, option D is correct.

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to provide digital health IDs (for the health account) for the Indian citizens below the poverty line only.
2. The health account will contain details of every test, every disease, the doctors visited, the medicines taken and the diagnosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshat Jain answered
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission:
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is a digital health initiative launched by the Government of India to provide universal health coverage to all citizens. It aims to leverage technology and digital platforms to improve access to healthcare services, enhance efficiency, and reduce healthcare costs.

Statement 1: It aims to provide digital health IDs (for the health account) for the Indian citizens below the poverty line only.
This statement is incorrect. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide digital health IDs to all Indian citizens, not just those below the poverty line. The digital health ID, also known as a health account, will be created for every individual and will contain their medical records and health-related information.

Statement 2: The health account will contain details of every test, every disease, the doctors visited, the medicines taken, and the diagnosis.
This statement is correct. The health account created under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will contain comprehensive details of an individual's medical history. It will include information about every test conducted, diseases diagnosed, doctors visited, medicines prescribed, and other relevant medical data. This digital repository of health records will enable healthcare providers to access accurate and up-to-date information about patients, ensuring better diagnosis and treatment.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'B' - Statement 2 only. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide digital health IDs to all Indian citizens, not just those below the poverty line. The health account created under this initiative will contain comprehensive details of an individual's medical history, including tests, diseases, doctors visited, medicines taken, and diagnosis. This digital repository of health records will improve access to healthcare services and enable better healthcare outcomes.

Consider the following:
1. Removal by the Election Commission of India (ECI)
2. Obtaining registration by fraud
3. Declared illegal by the Central Government
Which of the conditions mentioned above is/are appropriate to de-register a political party?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
Power of Deregistration:
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not empowered to de-register political parties on the grounds of violating the Constitution or breaching the undertaking given to it at the time of registration.
    • ECI has the power to register parties under the Representation of the People Act,(RPA) 1951, but it does not have the power to deregister parties that are inactive.
  • A party can only be de-registered if its registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.
  • Hence, option C is correct.

The XENON1T experiment recently in the news is associated with which of the following?
  • a)
    Reactivity of Noble Gases
  • b)
    Dark Matter detection
  • c)
    Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
  • d)
    Red Blood Cell (RBC) production
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Recently, an international team of researchers made the first direct detection of dark energy. The experiment named XENON1T, is the world’s most sensitive dark matter experiment and was operated deep underground at the INFN Laboratori Nazionali del Gran Sasso in Italy.
    • Dark energy is the mysterious form of energy that makes up about 68% of the universe, and has intrigued physicists and astronomers for decades.
  • The XENON1T is a dark matter research project, operated at the Italian Gran Sasso National Laboratory.
    • It is a deep underground research facility featuring increasingly ambitious experiments aiming to detect dark matter particles.
    • The experiments aim to detect particles in the form of Weakly Interacting Massive Particles (WIMPs) by looking for rare interactions via nuclear recoils in a liquid xenon target chamber.
  • Hence, option B is correct.

Mura-Drava-Danube (MDD) was recently in the news, it is related to -
  • a)
    Landform established by the Danube river.
  • b)
    World's first five-country biosphere reserve.
  • c)
    Primitive tribe found in the Danube river valley.
  • d)
    New variety of fishes in Danube river.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
  • Recently, Mura-Drava-Danube (MDD) was declared as the world’s first ‘five-country biosphere reserve’ by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Hence, option B is correct.
  • The biosphere reserve covers 700 kilometres of the Mura, Drava and Danube rivers and stretches across Austria, Slovenia, Croatia, Hungary and Serbia.
  • The total area of the reserve is a million hectares - in the so-called ‘Amazon of Europe’, which is now the largest riverine protected area in Europe.
  • The biosphere “represented an important contribution to the European Green Deal (climate action plan) and contributed to the implementation of the EU Biodiversity Strategy in the Mura-Drava-Danube region.”
  • The strategy’s aim is to revitalise 25,000 km of rivers and protect 30% of the European Union’s land area by 2030.

With reference to the Ramon Magsaysay Award, consider the following statements:
1. Ramon Magsaysay award is named after Ramon Magsaysay, the third president (1953-57) of Myanmar.
2. It is given to individuals and organizations in Asia regardless of race, creed, sex, or nationality, who have achieved distinction in their respective fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

This year’s Ramon Magsaysay Award — regarded as the Asian version of the Nobel Prize — were announced.
  • The winners are:
    • Indonesian torch bearer for investigative journalism, Watchdoc.
    • Muhammad Amjad Saqib, a microfinance pioneer from Pakistan,
    • Filipino fisher and community environmentalist Roberto Ballon,
    • American Steven Muncy for humanitarian work and refugee assistance and
    • Dr. Firdausi Qadri, a Bangladeshi vaccine scientist,
  • Ramon Magsaysay award is named after Ramon Magsaysay, the third president (1953-57) of Philippines.
  • It is given to individuals and organizations in Asia regardless of race, creed, sex, or nationality, who have achieved distinction in their respective fields. (There are some instances where the winners came from Non-Asian countries, but accomplished something in Asia).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding river Brahmaputra:
1. It originates under the name Siang from Kailash range.
2. It enters India through Assam.
3. Manas and Subansiri are the tributaries of Brahmanputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
  • Brahmaputra River originates under the name of Siang or Dihang, from the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake (Tibet). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It enters India west of Sadiya town in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Tributaries: Dihing River, Dibang River, Lohit River, Dhansiri River, Kolong River, Kameng River, Manas River, Beki River, Raidak River, Jaldhaka River, Teesta River, Subansiri River. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Which of the following state Legislative Assembly passed a Bill to dispense with the National Entrance cum Eligibility Test (NEET) and allow admission to medical courses based on Class 12 marks to “ensure social justice”?
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Karnataka
  • d)
    Andhra Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Banerjee answered
Introduction
In a significant move aimed at promoting social justice in the education sector, the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly passed a Bill to eliminate the National Entrance cum Eligibility Test (NEET) for medical admissions. This decision has stirred discussions across the nation regarding the fairness and accessibility of medical education.
Details of the Bill
- Objective: The primary goal of this legislation is to allow admissions to medical courses based solely on Class 12 examination marks.
- Rationale: Proponents argue that NEET creates barriers for students from marginalized backgrounds, who may not have access to the same level of preparatory resources as others.
- Social Justice: By basing admissions on Class 12 marks, the government aims to provide a more equitable opportunity for students, thereby ensuring that those from disadvantaged communities can pursue medical careers.
Political Context
- Government's Stand: The Tamil Nadu government, led by the DMK party, has consistently criticized NEET, asserting that it undermines the state's educational autonomy.
- Public Support: The Bill received widespread support from various sections of society, including students and parents, who view it as a step towards reducing educational inequality.
Conclusion
The passing of this Bill in Tamil Nadu highlights a critical shift in the approach to medical education in India, emphasizing the need for equitable access and the importance of state-level legislative powers in shaping educational policies. This move could pave the way for similar initiatives in other states, reflecting a broader push for educational reforms.

With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Currently, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is being implemented in pilot phase in six Union Territories.
2. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission Sandbox, created as a part of the Mission, will act as a framework for technology and product testing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
In a historic initiative, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will launch the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission on 27th September 2021.
  • The pilot project of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission had been announced by the Prime Minister from the ramparts of Red Fort on 15th August, 2020. Currently, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is being implemented in pilot phase in six Union Territories.
  • The nation-wide rollout of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission coincides with NHA celebrating the third anniversary of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is based on the foundations laid down in the form of Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile (JAM) trinity and other digital initiatives of the government
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will create a seamless online platform through the provision of a wide-range of data, information and infrastructure services, duly leveraging open, interoperable, standards-based digital systems while ensuring the security, confidentiality and privacy of health-related personal information.
  • The key components of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission include
    • a health ID for every citizen that will also work as their health account, to which personal health records can be linked and viewed with the help of a mobile application;
    • a Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR) and Healthcare Facilities Registries (HFR) that will act as a repository of all healthcare providers across both modern and traditional systems of medicine.
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission Sandbox, created as a part of the Mission, will act as a framework for technology and product testing that will help organizations, including private players, intending to be a part of National Digital Health Ecosystem become a Health Information Provider or Health Information User.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to women in armed forces, consider the following statements:
1. The Union government has recently informed the Supreme Court that it proposes to have the ‘mechanism’ to induct women cadets into the National Defence Academy (NDA) for entry into the armed forces to be ready in May 2022.
2. The Supreme Court judgment last year led to the permanent commission for women officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
The government has informed the Supreme Court that it proposes to have the ‘mechanism’ to induct women cadets into the National Defence Academy (NDA) for entry into the armed forces to be ready in May 2022, i.e., the time by which UPSC is required to publish the first notification of 2022 for entrance exam for entry to NDA.
  • The Ministry of Defence told the court in an affidavit that the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) would include women in its NDA exam notification expected to be published in May 2022.
  • With this, the path is clear for women to train along with men at the NDA, considered a male bastion.
  • After the Supreme Court judgment last year which led to permanent commission for women officers, this is the second time that the court has nudged the armed forces towards gender equality.
  • A Bench, led by Justice S.K. Kaul, had urged the armed forces and the government to “take a proactive approach in gender equality issues rather than leave it unattended and calling for the court to interfere”.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Census, consider the following statements:
1. Socio-Economic Caste census and decadal census were both started by Lord Rippon in India.
2. Decadal Census falls under the Census Act of 1948.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
  • The origin of the Decadal Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881 by Lord Rippon. However, the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time since 1931. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Census falls under the Census Act of 1948, it provides a portrait of the Indian population.
    • Census has evolved and been used by the government, policymakers, academics, and others to capture the Indian population, access resources, map social change, delimitation exercise, etc.
    • On the other hand, SECC is meant to canvas every Indian family, both in rural and urban India and ask about their economic status and specific caste name. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):
1. It is a type of free trade pact which covers trade negotiations in services, investment and Intellectual Property Rights.
2. It is more comprehensive than Free Trade Agreements but less than the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA).
3. India has signed CEPAs with Afghanistan and Malaysia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a kind of free trade pact which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership.
    • It may even consider negotiation on areas such as trade facilitation and customs cooperation, competition, and Intellectual Property Rights. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Partnership agreements or cooperation agreements are more comprehensive than Free Trade Agreements.
    • A Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) generally covers negotiation on trade tariff and TRQ (Tariff Rate Quotas) rates only. CECA is not as comprehensive as CEPA. hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • CEPA also looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement covering the regulatory issues.
  • India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan.
    • India signed a Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) with Afghanistan and CECA with Malaysia. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Who among the following is the chairman of Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?
  • a)
    The Prime Minister of India
  • b)
    The President of India
  • c)
    Union Defence minister
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) in its meeting of 29 September 2021 held under the Chairmanship of Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh accorded Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for Capital Acquisitions proposals for modernization and operational needs of the Indian Armed Forces amounting to approx. Rs.13,165 cr.
  • Of the total amount approved, procurement worth Rs. 11,486cr. (87%) is from the domestic sources.
  • Key approvals include helicopters, guided munition and rocket ammunition.
  • Looking into the need of the Indian Army for an Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) Squadron, to improve its integral lift capability ensuring its operational preparedness, the DAC accorded approval of procurement of 25 ALH Mark III helicopters from M/s HAL under Buy Indian-IDDM at an approx. cost of Rs.3,850 crore.
  • Giving boost to Indigenous Design and Development of ammunitions, DAC accorded approval for procurement of Terminally Guided Munition (TGM) and HEPF/RHE Rocket Ammunition under Buy(Indian-IDDM) category at an approx cost ofRs.4,962 cr.from domestic sources.
  • In addition, the DAC also approved a few amendments to the DAP 2020 as a part of Business Process Re-engineering to ensure further ease of doing business for the industry as well as measures to enhance procurement efficiency and reducing timelines.
  • Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) is wholly owned by the Ministry of Finance
2. The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) form the majority of the client base of ECGC.
3. The NIRVIK scheme is introduced by ECGC to enhance loan availability and ease the lending process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved capital infusion in the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) and its listing through an initial public offering.
  • The government will inject Rs 4,400 crore in the ECGC over a period of five years beginning 2021-22.
  • The ECGC Ltd is wholly owned by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • The Government of India had initially set up the Export Risks Insurance Corporation in 1957.
    • After the introduction of insurance covers to banks during the period 1962-64, the name was changed to Export Credit & Guarantee Corporation Ltd in 1964.
    • It was changed to ECGC Ltd in August 2014.
  • Objectives: ECGC was established to promote exports by providing credit insurance services to exporters against non-payment risks by the overseas buyers due to commercial and political reasons.
  • The Capital infusion will enable it to expand its coverage to export-oriented industries, particularly labour-intensive sectors.
    • ECGC is a market leader with around 85% market share in the export credit insurance market in India and provided support to exports worth Rs 6.02 lakh, or 28% of merchandise exports, in FY21.
    • Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) form 97% of the client base of ECGC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The process of listing ECGC on the stock market is also being initiated so that it can raise more funds.
  • The ECGC has introduced the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS) called NIRVIK (Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana) to enhance loan availability and ease the lending process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Pusa decomposer.
1. Pusa decomposer is a bio-enzyme that decomposes stubble within 20-25 days after spraying and turns it into manure, thereby improving the soil quality.
2. It is cost-effective compared to Happy Seeder.
3. It is developed by DRDO.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Pusa decomposer, is a bio-enzyme developed by the Indian Agriculture Research Institute (IARI) to decompose crop residue.
The Pusa decomposer decomposes stubble within 20-25 days after spraying and turns it into manure, improving the soil quality. Since use of Happy Seeder (a tractor-operated machine for in-situ management of paddy stubble) continues to be an expensive method for majority of the farmers, the cost-effective decomposer can be a popular alternative.

The applications of High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS), recently seen in news is/are
1. Humanitarian Assistance Disaster Relief
2. Telecommunication
3. Remote sensing for both defence and civilian purposes
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
The major applications of HAPS are in telecommunication and remote sensing sectors catering to both defence as well as civilian purposes.
Once aligned with the Combined Air Teaming System (CATS) unmanned warfare programme, HAPS could coordinate in strike missions providing versatile intelligence, surveillance and communication to troops with live video feeds and images. It can be used in Humanitarian Assistance Disaster Relief (HADR) operations as well.

Consider the following statements.
1. Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat is one of the last places on earth where the Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.
2. Gujarat is the only abode of both Asiatic lions and Indian wild asses.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
The Indian wild ass population has risen by 37%, reveals data released by the Gujarat forest department. The population has reached 6,082, according to the census conducted in March 2020.
Gujarat, the world’s only abode of Asiatic lions, is also the sole home of Indian wild asses.
Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.

With reference to the National Scheme for PM POSHAN in Schools, consider the following statements:
1. It is a central sector scheme.
2. The earlier name of the scheme was ‘National Scheme for Mid Day Meal in Schools’ popularly known as Mid Day Meal Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the continuation of ‘National Scheme for PM POSHAN in Schools’ for the five year period 2021-22 to 2025-26 with the financial outlay of ₹ 54061.73 crores from the Central Government and ₹ 31,733.17 crore from State Governments & UT administrations.
  • Central Government will also bear additional cost of about ₹ 45,000 crore on foodgrains. Therefore, the total scheme budget will amount to ₹ 1,30,794.90 crore.
  • The CCEA cleared the PM POSHAN Scheme for providing one hot cooked meal in Government and Government-aided schools from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
  • This is a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme which covers all school children studying in Classes I-VIII of Government, Government-Aided Schools.
  • The earlier name of the scheme was ‘National Scheme for Mid Day Meal in Schools’ popularly known as Mid Day Meal Scheme.
  • The scheme covers about 11.80 crore children studying in 11.20 lakh schools across the country. During 2020-21, Government of India invested more than ₹ 24,400 crore in the scheme, including cost of about ₹ 11,500 crore on foodgrains.
Highlights of the decision that would improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the scheme are as below:
  • The scheme is proposed to be extended to students studying in pre-primary or Bal Vatikas of Government and Government-aided primary schools in addition to all the 11.80 crore children from elementary classes.
  • The concept of Tithi Bhojan will be encouraged extensively. Tithi Bhojan is a community participation programme in which people provide special food to children on special occasions/festivals.
  • Government is promoting development of School Nutrition Gardens in schools to give children first hand experience with nature and gardening. The harvest of these gardens is used in the scheme providing additional micro nutrients. School Nutrition Gardens have already been developed in more than 3 lakh schools.
  • Social Audit of the scheme is made mandatory in all the districts.
  • Special provision is made for providing supplementary nutrition items to children in aspirational districts and districts with high prevalence of Anemia.
  • Cooking competitions will be encouraged at all levels right from village level to national level to promote ethnic cuisine and innovative menus based on locally available ingredients and vegetables.
  • Vocal for Local for Atmanirbhar Bharat: Involvement of Farmers Producer Organizations (FPO) and Women Self Help Groups in implementation of the scheme will be encouraged. Use of locally grown traditional food items for a fillip to local economic growth will be encouraged.
  • Field visits for progress monitoring and inspections will be facilitated for students of eminent Universities / Institutions and also trainee teachers of Regional Institutes of Educations (RIE) and District Institutes of Education and Training (DIET).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. NEIA Trust was established in 2006 to promote Medium and Long-Term (MLT)/ project exports by enabling credit and political insurance.
2. Since inception, NEIA has extended 213 covers, with a consolidated project value of Rs. 53,000 crores, to 52 countries as of 31st August 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Government of India has approved continuation of the National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) scheme and capital infusion of Rs. 1,650 crore Grant-in-Aid to NEIA over a period of five years, i.e. from FY 2021-2022 to FY 2025-2026.
  • NEIA Trust was established in 2006 to promote Medium and Long-Term (MLT)/ project exports by enabling credit and political insurance.
  • NEIA supports projects which are commercially viable and are strategically important.
  • Since inception, NEIA has extended 213 covers, with a consolidated project value of Rs. 53,000 crores, to 52 countries as of 31st August 2021
  • Its impact in enabling project exports has been most significant in Africa and South Asia.
  • The capital infusion in NEIA Trust will help the Indian Project Exporters (IPE) to tap the huge potential of project exports in focus market.
  • The NEIA Trust promotes Medium and Long Term (MLT) /project exports by extending (partial/full) support to covers issued by ECGC (ECGC Ltd, formerly known as Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.) to MLT/project export and to Exim Bank for Buyer’s Credit (BC-NEIA) tied to project exports from India.
Hence both statements are correct.

Hindi Diwas was celebrated across the country on:
  • a)
    September 11
  • b)
    September 18
  • c)
    September 20
  • d)
    September 14
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
Hindi Diwas was celebrated across the country on September 14, 2021.
  • It was on this day in 1949 that the constituent assembly adopted Hindi written in Devanagari as the official language of the country.
  • It is one of the 22 scheduled languages of the Republic of India.
  • It is celebrated across schools and colleges as well as offices. On the day, students are encouraged to participate in various events including essay and letter-writing along with language competitions.
  • It is also on this day that the President of the country felicitates people for their contribution to Hindi language and literature.
  • in India alone, there are roughly about 43.6 per cent speakers, who identify Hindi as their mother tongue — according to the 2011 census.
  • The language has other variants as well, like Awadhi, Braj and Khadi Boli.
    • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the COVID Teeka Sang Surakshit Van, consider the following statements:
1. It employs awareness generation in local languages to promote vaccine uptake and COVID Appropriate Behaviour.
2. The campaign is based on 3 J’s Jeevan (Life), Jeevika (Livelihood) and Jaagrookta (Awareness).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
The “COVID Teeka Sang Surakshit Van, DhanaurUddyam” campaign was virtually launched by Shri Arjun Munda, Minister for Tribal Affairs, Government of India on 15th July, 2021 to accelerate the pace of Covid vaccination among tribal communities of India.
  • TRIFED in collaboration with UNICEF and WHO has planned to roll out this campaign across the country, with the help of partner agencies at State level in tribal districts.
  • The campaign targets to leverage the 45,000 Van Dhan Self Help Groups (VDSHGs) of the Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) to promote livelihoods with health.
  • The campaign is based on 3 J’s Jeevan (Life)Jeevika (Livelihood)Jaagrookta (Awareness).
  • It employs awareness generation in local languages to promote vaccine uptake and COVID Appropriate Behaviour.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Corbevax, consider the following statements:
1. Corbevax is based on a vaccine technology of a protein antigen.
2. It was developed by Serum Institute of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Hyderabad-based pharmaceutical company Biological E. Limited has been approved by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) to conduct further trials of its vaccine Corbevax on children and adolescents.
  • Corbevax is based on a vaccine technology of a protein antigen, in this case the spike protein, which binds to the Angiotensin Converting Enzyme-2 (ACE2) receptor on the host cell membrane and facilitates virus entry.
  • The body’s own cells then make more copies of this protein that then stimulates the immune system of the body to produce antibodies to protect against a potential, future infection.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the subprime meltdown, consider the following statements:
1. The subprime meltdown was the sharp increase in high-risk mortgages that went into default beginning in 2007.
2. The subprime meltdown led to the financial crisis, the Great Recession, and a massive sell-off in the equity markets.  
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
The world’s stock and bond markets are closely watching China Evergrande Group , a Chinese property developer that is on the brink of missing payments on some of its debt.
  • If not resolved, it threatens to become the largest debt default by a company in Asia, which could jolt investor confidence across markets globally.
  • Beijing seems reluctant to bail out the company but is taking steps to limit the damage.
  • Evergrande is an enormous—and heavily indebted—private-sector Chinese property developer and home builder that is close to defaulting on some of its billions of dollars in debt.
  • The most urgent immediate deadline is Sept. 23, when the company has an $83.5 million interest payment due on some of its dollar-denominated bonds.
The subprime meltdown was the sharp increase in high-risk mortgages that went into default beginning in 2007. The housing boom of the mid-2000s, along with low-interest rates, led many lenders to offer home loans to borrowers with poor credit. When the real estate bubble burst, many borrowers were unable to make the payments on their subprime mortgages. The subprime meltdown led to the financial crisis, the Great Recession, and a massive sell-off in the equity markets.  
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the C-295MW transport aircraft, consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Defence (MoD) recently signed a contract with M/s Airbus Defence and Space, Spain for acquisition of 56 C-295MW transport aircraft for the Indian Air Force, on September 24, 2021.
2. It is a transport aircraft of 5-10 tonne capacity with contemporary technology that will replace the ageing Avro transport aircraft of IAF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a contract with M/s Airbus Defence and Space, Spain for acquisition of 56 C-295MW transport aircraft for the Indian Air Force, on September 24, 2021.
  • The MoD has also signed an Offset Contract with M/s Airbus Defence and Space through which M/s Airbus will discharge its offset obligations through direct purchase of eligible products and services from Indian Offset Partners.
  • These contracts were signed following the approval accorded by the Cabinet Committee on Security earlier this month.
  • The induction of C-295MW will be a significant step towards modernisation of the transport fleet of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  • It is a transport aircraft of 5-10 tonne capacity with contemporary technology that will replace the ageing Avro transport aircraft of IAF.
  • The aircraft is capable of operating from semi-prepared strips and has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and para dropping of troops & cargo.
  • The aircraft will give a major boost to tactical airlift capability of IAF, especially in the Northern and North-Eastern sector and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • Out of 56, forty aircraft will be manufactured in India by TATA Consortium. All the deliveries will be completed within ten years of signing of the contract. All 56 aircraft will be installed with indigenous Electronic Warfare Suite.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the road cave-ins, consider the following statements:
1. The cave-ins or cavities that look like a hole in the ground are actually a product of the incessant rain.
2. One of the ways that such cave-ins can be avoided, includes creating a system wherein the leakage can be plugged earlier on.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
As Delhi records an unprecedented rainfall this season, it is also witnessing an increase in incidents of road cave-ins across the city.
  • The cave-ins or cavities that look like a hole in the ground are actually a product of the incessant rain.
  • The continuous rain leads to overflowing of drains, which can cause leaks in the pipeline. When a pipeline leaks and water from the pipeline flows into the layers of earth around it, the earth starts to erode and with time, it gets washed away with the water in the pipeline.
  • Eventually, the portion of the road over it collapses because of the erosion. How long this takes, would depend on the size of the pipelines and the leak.
Fixing the road after a cave-in
  • Once such an incident takes place, the first step is to find the leakage.
  • The water flow needs to be shut first and this might take some time. As soon as the flow is shut and the location of the leak is established, work on the pipeline starts.
  • After the work is complete, officials then fill the cavity with the required material. In smaller cavities, they fill the cavity with gravel while larger ones are filled with sand since it can be compacted easily.
  • In order to avoid such cavities, the integrity of the pipelines would have to be checked.
  • One of the ways that such cave-ins can be avoided, includes creating a system wherein the leakage can be plugged earlier on.
  • Installing a system that checks the flow at the start point and one at the endpoint, would be able to help authorities know that there is a leak. If the leakage is plugged early, the cave-in can be avoided.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

International Day of Older Persons is observed every year on:
  • a)
    October 3
  • b)
    October 5
  • c)
    October 10
  • d)
    October 1
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
On the occassion of International Day of Older Persons (1st October), Vice President of India will dedicate the Elderly Line 14567 to the Nation.
  • Government of Telangana and Tata Trusts piloted the helpline in Telangana between March 2019 and September 2020.
  • Based on this experience, MOSJE decided to establish state helplines at each state level and have a single call management platform and unique number (14567) that will enable services for the senior citizens through a National level structure. Thus Elder Line was conceptualised.
Features
  • Elder Line will operate on all seven days of the week from 8 AM to 8 PM since it is categorised under non-emergency service and extension of working hours will be backed by findings and requirement.
  • Elder Line is a National Helpline for Senior Citizens (NHSC) set up by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in collaboration with National Institute of Social Defence (NISD) and State Governments.
  • National Implementing Agency (an empowered Committee) set up by MOSJE along with NISD (National Institute for Social Defence) is currently hosting the Elder Line along with the States.
  • Operationally, the state agencies will be working closely with all state departments and district functionaries to deliver services.
  • Elder Line 14567 is a toll-free number open 12 Hours a day (8:00 AM to 8:00 PM), that provides free information, guidance, emotional support, field intervention in cases of abuse & rescues in order to improve the quality of life of senior citizens.
  • In case of emergencies like pandemic, this helpline can support senior citizens with the right and on-time information for medical needs, emotional support and other associated needs in collaboration with all the state departments.
Components
  • Elder line has two key components, a ‘connect centre’ that has officers who empathise with the senior citizen and understand the problem faced by the elder supported by a strong ‘field support’ that takes care of “on the field” interventions that are required out of the service requested by the senior citizen.
Services
Services offered to senior citizens are broadly categorised into four services:
  1. Information- Doctors, Hospitals, Old Age Homes, and Activity centres etc.
  2. Guidance- Legal, Maintenance act related, Pension related queries
  3. Support- Life, anxiety, relationship management and emotional support
  4. Intervention- Direct (addressing abuse of elders and conducting rescue of homeless and abandoned elders) and Indirect (building ecosystem)
To operationalise Elder Line, following readiness conditions have been established: -
  • State identifies agency to operationalise helpline through a pre-defined process
  • Physical and software infrastructure is procured and installed
  • Resources are identified and capacity built
  • Information is collected and tabulated as Knowledge Bank for all areas which might be of use to senior citizens
  • Government and non-government agreements are made with like-minded organizations to walk along with the agency to assist elders
  • A dry run is conducted to identify and re work on any possible bottle necks
Elder line in numbers:
  • Toll-free number: - 14567
  • Work hours: - 8 AM to 8 PM
  • Work days: - All 7 days
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the 'Centre of Excellence in Logistics and Supply Chain Management', consider the following statements:
1. The Centre will act as a driving force to train and launch top quality programs to disseminate advanced knowledge and promote Digitisation, Analytics, and IoT Application and Decision Support Systems through Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning applications.
2. The Centre will carry out research projects to find innovative solutions in collaboration with industry and national and international bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Union Minister for Commerce & Industry inaugurated the 'Centre of Excellence in Logistics and Supply Chain Management' at the National Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE), Mumbai.
  • Managing supply chains is becoming more and more complex owing to the challenges posed by global competitiveness and economic crisis.
  • In this scenario, the Centre will contribute to cutting edge research, knowledge-building and capacity building in Logistics and Supply Chain Management, through applied research and development activities.
  • The Centre will act as a driving force to train and launch top quality programs to disseminate advanced knowledge and promote Digitisation, Analytics, and IoT Application and Decision Support Systems through Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning applications.
  • The Centre will carry out research projects to find innovative solutions in collaboration with industry and national and international bodies. The focus will be on Logistics and Supply Chain Management along with sustainability and green supply chains.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a nodal agency of Govt. of India under Ministry of Finance.
2. It aims to undertake Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations of cotton in the event market rate of seed cotton falls below the MSP rates to protect the cotton farmers from distress sale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
The Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) has so far distributed 5543 kapas plucker machines valuing around Rs. 4 crores to 5543 marginal and small farmers in all the cotton growing states (including aspirational districts) under Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR).
  • Most of the cotton in India is manually picked which is a labour intensive operation.
  • Unlike other major cotton producing Countries like USA, Australia etc, fully mechanized harvesting by big machines are not successful in India due to small land holdings of cotton farmers in India, sowing/picking pattern (3-4 picking) and different climatic condition in different States.
  • Therefore, hand held kapas plucker machine is one of the option to bring down the cost for the farmers and a remedy for contamination at farm level due to manual picking.
  • Hand held kapasplucker machine is a light weight (about 600 gram) machine which has a pair of rollers inside having small edged teeth on their outer periphery and is operated by a light weight 12 volt. Cotton gets entangled with the rollers and is collected directly into collection bag attached to it. Design of machine makes it easy to operate at field and affordable i.e. at nominal cost of Rs. 8000 per machine (approx.).
  • Advantage of kapas plucker machines is that it reduces the risks of health hazards to cotton farmers in manual picking (i.e. risk of insect bite, back pains due to standing posture for long hours, bruises/cutting on legs & hands etc).
  • CCI is a Nodal agency of Govt. of India under Ministry of Textiles for undertaking Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations of cotton in the event market rate of seed cotton falls below the MSP rates to protect the cotton farmers from distress sale.
  • Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Lhasa and Nagqu, often mentioned in news, is located in:
  • a)
    China
  • b)
    Myanmar
  • c)
    Nepal
  • d)
    Bhutan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Continuing its infrastructure build-up in Tibet, China has completed a key section of the Beijing-Lhasa expressway, a 295-km stretch from Lhasa to Nagqu.
  • This section is located at an average altitude of 4,500 metres above sea level, which Chinese state media have termed the world’s highest expressway.
  • The Lhasa-Nagqu section is part of the G6 Beijing-Lhasa expressway and is the first expressway linking Lhasa, the capital of the Tibet Autonomous Region to north Tibet.
  • It also connects the PLA’s Central Theatre Command with the Western Theatre Command which is responsible for the border with India, an official source said.
  • An important stretch of the expressway between Nagqu to Yangbaijain of Lhasa-Nagqu section was put into operational trial on August 21. On completion of Lhasa-Nagqu section, the driving time between Lhasa and Nagqu has reduced from six hours to three hours.
  • The completed expressway will pass through seven major cities of China including Beijing, Hebei, inner Mangolia, Ningxia, Gansu, Qinghai and Lhasa with an approximate length of 3,710 km.
  • In June, China had launched a high speed bullet train connecting Lhasa with Nyingchi, a strategically located Tibetan town located close to Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Baijayant Panda committee, recently seen in news, is related to:
  • a)
    Comprehensive review of National Cadet Corps (NCC) in order to make it more relevant in changed times.
  • b)
    Decide the appropriate level of reserves that the RBI should hold.
  • c)
    Finance Infrastructure through PPP model.
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Baijayant Panda committee, recently seen in news, is related to:

a) Comprehensive review of National Cadet Corps (NCC) in order to make it more relevant in changed times.
b) Decide the appropriate level of reserves that the RBI should hold.
c) Finance Infrastructure through PPP model.
d) None of the above

The correct answer is option 'A' - Comprehensive review of National Cadet Corps (NCC) in order to make it more relevant in changed times.

Explanation:
The Baijayant Panda committee was formed by the Ministry of Defence to conduct a comprehensive review of the National Cadet Corps (NCC). The committee was established in order to make the NCC more relevant in changed times and to suggest measures for its improvement.

The NCC is a youth development organization in India that aims to groom young men and women into disciplined and responsible citizens. It provides military training, social service, and community development activities to its cadets. The NCC is open to students from schools and colleges all over the country.

The committee, headed by Baijayant Panda, a Member of Parliament, was tasked with examining the existing structures, practices, and training methods of the NCC and suggesting reforms to make it more effective and responsive to the changing needs of the country.

The committee is expected to review the curriculum, training methods, recruitment process, and infrastructure of the NCC. It will also assess the impact of the NCC on the youth and its contribution to nation-building. The committee will submit its recommendations to the Ministry of Defence for consideration and implementation.

The comprehensive review of the NCC is seen as a crucial step in ensuring that the organization remains relevant and impactful in the current socio-economic and security environment. The NCC plays an important role in shaping the character and values of the youth and preparing them for the challenges of the future.

In conclusion, the Baijayant Panda committee is focused on conducting a comprehensive review of the National Cadet Corps (NCC) to make it more relevant in changed times.

शक्तियों का विभाजन सिद्धांत है
  • a)
    सरकार का एकात्मक रूप
  • b)
    सरकार का संघीय रूप
  • c)
    सरकार का समाजवादी रूप
  • d)
    सरकार का गणतंत्रात्मक रूप
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshu Bose answered
शक्तियों का विभाजन सिद्धांत में सरकार का संघीय रूप उचित है। इसे विभाजन सिद्धांत के आधार पर समझने के लिए हमें इसके पीछे के सिद्धांतों को समझने की जरूरत होती है।

1. सरकार का एकात्मक रूप:
इस सिद्धांत में, शक्तियों का विभाजन नहीं होता है और सभी शक्तियां एक ही सरकार में संगठित होती हैं। इसका अर्थ है कि सभी निर्णय सरकार द्वारा लिए जाते हैं और सभी क्षेत्रों में सरकारी निर्णयों का ही प्रभार होता है। इस प्रकार का राष्ट्रीय तंत्र अधिकांशतः एकतात्मक राष्ट्रों में देखा जा सकता है।

2. सरकार का समाजवादी रूप:
समाजवादी रूप में, शक्तियों का विभाजन उस संगठन में होता है जो समाजवादी सिद्धांतों और मूल्यों पर आधारित होता है। इसमें सरकार की शक्तियां भी विभाजित होती हैं और उन्हें समाजवादी निर्णयों के आधार पर उपयोग किया जाता है। इसका उदाहरण कु

The first-ever India Africa Defence Ministers Conclave (IADMC) was held in:
  • a)
    Chennai
  • b)
    Mumbai
  • c)
    Surat
  • d)
    Lucknow
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
India–Africa Defence Dialogue will be held alongside every DefExpo.
  • The foundation of India–Africa defence relations are based on the two guiding principles namely ‘SAGAR’, Security and Growth for All in the Region’ and ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’, The World is One Family.
  • The first-ever India Africa Defence Ministers Conclave (IADMC) was held in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh in conjunction with DefExpo on February 06, 2020, co-organised by Ministry of Defence and Ministry of External Affairs.
  • This was the first in the series of Pan Africa events at the Ministerial level in the run-up to India Africa Forum Summit IV. A Joint Declaration, ‘Lucknow Declaration’ was adopted after conclusion of IADMC 2020 as an outcome document of the Conclave.
Institutionalisation of the India Africa Defence Dialogue:
  • In furtherance of the declaration and in consultation with stakeholders, India proposes to institutionalise the India Africa Defence Dialogue during successive DefExpos to be held once every two years.
  • Institutionalisation of the India Africa Defence Dialogue will help to explore new areas of convergence for mutual engagements including areas like capacity building, training, cyber security, maritime security and counter terrorism.
  • Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses shall be the knowledge partner of India Africa Defence Dialogue and will assist in providing necessary support for enhanced defence cooperation between India and Africa.
  • It has also been decided that Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh will host the Defence Ministers of African Nations in the next India – Africa Defence Dialogue on the sidelines of the DefExpo that is scheduled to be held at Gandhinagar, Gujarat in March 2022.
  • The broad theme of this India Africa Defence Dialgue will be ‘India – Africa: Adopting Strategy for Synergizing and Strengthening Defence and Security Cooperation’.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the grouping of G33 Countries.
1. It deals with the resolution of the WTO’s mandated issues in agriculture.
2. G33 is a coalition of 33 developing countries.
3. India is a member of G33 coalition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
India is a part of the G33, which is a group of 47 developing and least developed countries.
The G33 Virtual informal meeting concluded with the adoption of the G-33 Joint Ministerial Statement reaffirming commitment for expeditious resolution of the WTO’s mandated issues in agriculture.

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