All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

C.

Explanation:

Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction:
Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction is conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to absorb liquidity from the banking system. It is a tool used by the central bank to manage the liquidity conditions in the economy. The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. In VRRR auction, the RBI borrows money from banks by conducting a reverse repo auction at a variable rate.

Statement 1: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction to absorb liquidity in the economy.
This statement is correct. The RBI conducts VRRR auctions to absorb liquidity from the banking system. When there is excess liquidity in the market, the RBI conducts reverse repo auctions to borrow money from banks and absorb the surplus liquidity. This helps in managing inflation and maintaining stability in the financial markets.

Statement 2: It is usually conducted for a shorter period, say less than 3 days.
This statement is incorrect. VRRR auctions are typically conducted for longer durations, such as 7 days, 14 days, or even longer. The duration of the auction depends on the liquidity conditions in the market and the RBI's assessment of the need for liquidity absorption.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the RBI conducts VRRR auctions to absorb liquidity from the banking system. However, statement 2 is incorrect as VRRR auctions are typically conducted for longer durations, not for a shorter period like less than 3 days. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Indian State with the Longest Coastline on the Eastern Coast

The Indian state with the longest coastline on the eastern coast is Andhra Pradesh. This state is located on the southeastern coast of India and is bordered by Tamil Nadu to the south, Karnataka to the west, Telangana to the northwest, and the Bay of Bengal to the east.

Andhra Pradesh is known for its diverse geographical features, including a long coastline, hills, forests, and rivers. The state has a total coastline of 974 kilometers, making it the state with the longest coastline on the eastern coast of India.

Factors contributing to the length of the coastline

There are several factors that contribute to the length of Andhra Pradesh's coastline. These include:

1. Bay of Bengal - Andhra Pradesh is located on the eastern coast of India, bordering the Bay of Bengal. The bay's long coastline and numerous estuaries contribute to the length of the coastline in Andhra Pradesh.

2. River deltas - Andhra Pradesh is home to several major rivers, including the Godavari and Krishna rivers. These rivers form large deltas as they flow into the Bay of Bengal, adding to the length of the coastline.

3. Islands - There are several small islands located off the coast of Andhra Pradesh, including Sriharikota and the Baruva Island. These islands are also included in the state's coastline.

Importance of Andhra Pradesh's coastline

Andhra Pradesh's long coastline is of great importance to the state's economy. The state has several major ports, including Visakhapatnam, Krishnapatnam, and Kakinada, which contribute significantly to the state's trade and commerce. The coastline is also home to several fishing communities, who rely on the sea for their livelihoods.

Conclusion

In conclusion, Andhra Pradesh is the Indian state with the longest coastline on the eastern coast. The state's long coastline is due to several factors, including the Bay of Bengal, river deltas, and small islands. This coastline is of great importance to the state's economy and is home to several major ports and fishing communities.

And fauna as per the provisions of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and other wildlife laws.4. Assist State Governments to develop infrastructure and capacity building for wildlife crime prevention.5. Coordinate and strengthen enforcement measures for wildlife protection across the country.6. Assist international organizations and foreign governments in wildlife crime control activities.7. Provide legal and technical assistance to State Governments for prosecution of wildlife crimes.8. Undertake training and awareness programs to enhance public participation in wildlife conservation and crime prevention.9. Promote research and development in the field of wildlife crime prevention and control.10. Assist in the implementation of national and international commitments relating to wildlife crime control and prevention.

Explanation:

1. The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is the flagship grassland species:
- The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is indeed considered the flagship grassland species due to its significance in the grassland ecosystem.
- As a large ground-dwelling bird, the GIB plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of the grassland habitat.

2. The GIB is listed as critically endangered under IUCN Red List:
- The statement is correct. The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is indeed listed as critically endangered under the IUCN Red List.
- The species faces various threats such as habitat loss, hunting, and collision with power lines, leading to its critically endangered status.

3. The population of GIB is confined only to the Desert National Park of Rajasthan:
- This statement is incorrect. While the Desert National Park in Rajasthan is a significant area for the population of Great Indian Bustards, the species is not confined solely to this location.
- The GIB population is spread across a few states in India, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' (1 and 2 only), as the Great Indian Bustard is the flagship grassland species and is listed as critically endangered, but its population is not limited only to the Desert National Park of Rajasthan.

D

Statement 1: Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to incentivize energy efficiency in the large energy-intensive industries.
Statement 2: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has introduced the Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) under the PAT.

Explanation:

The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism introduced by the Government of India to incentivize energy efficiency in large energy-intensive industries. It aims to reduce energy consumption and promote energy conservation in these industries.

Under this scheme, the government sets specific energy consumption targets for participating industries based on their historical energy consumption and sector-specific benchmarks. These targets are known as Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) targets. The industries are required to achieve these targets within a specified time frame.

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), which is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power, is responsible for implementing and monitoring the PAT scheme. It is also responsible for issuing Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) to industries that achieve energy savings beyond their targets.

The Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) are tradable instruments that represent one metric ton of oil equivalent (MTOE) of energy savings. These certificates can be bought and sold on the Energy Exchange platform, providing a market-based mechanism for industries to trade their energy savings. By trading these certificates, industries that have achieved energy savings beyond their targets can monetize their efforts, while industries that have not achieved their targets can purchase these certificates to meet their compliance obligations.

Therefore, both statements are correct:
1. The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to incentivize energy efficiency in large energy-intensive industries.
2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has introduced the Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) under the PAT.

Public Accounts Committee
The given statements are related to the Public Accounts Committee, which is one of the three Financial Parliamentary committees in India.

Establishment
The Public Accounts Committee was indeed established by the Montford Reforms in 1921. It plays a crucial role in ensuring accountability and transparency in the financial matters of the government.

Composition
The Public Accounts Committee comprises 22 members of the Parliament, with 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha. The members are appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha respectively.

Role
The primary role of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. It scrutinizes the government expenditures to ensure that public funds are utilized efficiently and effectively.

Functioning
The committee reviews the reports of the CAG, holds meetings with government officials, and prepares reports highlighting any irregularities or financial mismanagement. These reports are then presented to the Parliament for further action.
In conclusion, the Public Accounts Committee plays a crucial role in overseeing the government's financial performance and ensuring accountability in the use of public funds.

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
1. Aim of Puneet Sagar Abhiyan:
The Puneet Sagar Abhiyan aims to propagate the message of the importance of clean seashores and beaches among the local population. The campaign focuses on creating awareness about the need to keep beaches and seashores clean and free from pollution. It aims to involve the local community in maintaining cleanliness and preserving the beauty of these natural resources.

2. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between NCC and NHAI:
The National Cadet Corps (NCC) and the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) have recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to reuse plastic wastes collected by NCC Cadets during the Puneet Sagar Abhiyan and other Swachhta activities.

The MoU aims to address the issue of plastic waste by promoting its collection, segregation, and recycling. Under this collaboration, NCC Cadets will actively participate in cleaning seashores and beaches as part of the Puneet Sagar Abhiyan. They will collect plastic wastes and hand them over to NHAI for recycling purposes.

This initiative not only helps in keeping the seashores and beaches clean but also contributes towards sustainable waste management by recycling plastic waste. It promotes the idea of reducing plastic pollution and creating a cleaner environment.

The collaboration between NCC and NHAI showcases the importance of partnerships between different organizations and government agencies in addressing environmental issues and promoting sustainable practices.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The Puneet Sagar Abhiyan aims to spread awareness about clean seashores and beaches, while the MoU between NCC and NHAI focuses on reusing plastic waste collected during the campaign and other Swachhta activities.

Why in News

The asset size of ESG (Environment, Social and Governance) Funds has grown nearly five times to Rs 12,300 crore over the last couple of years.

The demand and growth for ESG funds in Asia, especially in India, has been overwhelming, it is 32%.

Key Points

About:

It is a kind of Mutual Fund. Its investing is used synonymously with sustainable investing or socially responsible investing.

Typically, a mutual fund looks for a good stock of a company that has potential earnings, management quality, cash flows, the business it operates in, competition etc.

However, while selecting a stock for investment, the ESG fund shortlists companies that score high on environment, social responsibility and corporate governance, and then looks into financial factors.

Therefore, the key difference between the ESG funds and other funds is 'conscience' i.e the ESG fund focuses on companies with environment-friendly practices, ethical business practices and an employee-friendly record.

The fund is regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Factors Behind ESG Growth:

Greater policy focus on aspects such as cleanliness, skill development, expanded healthcare coverage, and education indicates potential public investment in these social development and environmentally sensitive sectors of the economy.

There is increasing awareness and understanding among younger investors about the impact of business on social development and environment.

Modern investors are re-evaluating traditional approaches, and look at the impact their investment has on the planet. Thus, investors have started incorporating ESG factors into investment practices.

The United Nations Principles for Responsible Investment (UN-PRI) (an international organization) works to promote the incorporation of environmental, social, and corporate governance factors into investment decision-making.

Significance:

As ESG funds gain momentum in India, companies will be forced to improve governance and ethical practices, and act with greater social and environmental responsibility.

As the policy framework changes, companies that do not alter business models or become more environmentally sustainable, could have their revenue and profits impacted in the long term.

Globally, many pension funds and sovereign wealth funds do not invest in companies that are seen as polluting or socially not responsible.

Concerns:

Alongside the greater attention on issues such as climate risk, emissions, supply chains, labour rights, anti-corruption, etc., certain concerns have been flagged as well.

Greenwashing is one of the top concerns among global institutional investors.

Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company's products are environmentally friendly.

Investment experts have also pointed to the tendency of fund managers to overweight certain stocks and companies in a situation where most large investment-friendly companies have fallen short of the qualitative and quantitative parameters used for ESG investing.

A )1 and 3 only

The Manikya dynasty ruled the north-eastern state of Tripura from the late 13th century until the signing of the Instrument of Accession with the Indian government in 1949. Let's understand the context and history behind this.

History of the Manikya Dynasty:
- The Manikya dynasty was founded by Maharaja Manikya in the late 13th century. He established his rule in Tripura, which was then known as Twipra Kingdom.
- The dynasty continued to rule Tripura for several centuries, with various rulers ascending the throne.
- During the British colonial period, Tripura came under indirect rule as a princely state. The Manikya rulers maintained a degree of autonomy and managed the internal affairs of the state.

The Instrument of Accession:
- After India gained independence from British rule in 1947, the princely states were given the option to accede to either India or Pakistan.
- The ruler of Tripura, Maharaja Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya, decided to accede to India.
- On October 15, 1949, the Instrument of Accession was signed between the Tripura princely state and the Indian government. This formalized the integration of Tripura into the Indian Union.
- As a result of the Instrument of Accession, Tripura became a part of the Indian Republic and its administration came under the control of the Indian government.

Significance of the Manikya Dynasty's Rule:
- The Manikya dynasty played a crucial role in shaping the history and culture of Tripura.
- Under their rule, Tripura witnessed the development of art, architecture, literature, and religious practices.
- The rulers of the Manikya dynasty were patrons of art and culture, and their contributions can be seen in the various palaces, temples, and monuments that still exist in Tripura.
- The dynasty also established diplomatic relations with neighboring kingdoms, including the Mughals and the British.

Conclusion:
The Manikya dynasty ruled Tripura from the late 13th century until 1949 when the Instrument of Accession was signed with the Indian government. Their rule left a lasting impact on the history and culture of Tripura, and their contributions are still acknowledged and celebrated in the region.

Cm and 100 cm.

3. Trees in dry deciduous forests shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water.

4. The ecosystem of dry deciduous forest supports a variety of wildlife including elephants, tigers, deer, and various bird species.

All of the statements are true.

C

Reorganisation of States in India

Statement 1: In 1948, the SK Dhar committee was appointed by the government to look into the need for the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis.

The statement is correct.

- The SK Dhar committee, also known as the Linguistic Provinces Commission, was appointed by the Government of India in 1948.
- The committee was tasked with examining the demand for the reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factors.
- The committee submitted its report in 1948, recommending the reorganisation of states on linguistic lines.
- This report laid the foundation for the subsequent reorganisation of states in India.

Statement 2: Andhra Pradesh was the first linguistic state created by the Government of India.

The statement is correct.

- Andhra Pradesh was indeed the first linguistic state to be created in India.
- The demand for a separate Andhra state based on the Telugu-speaking population had been a longstanding one.
- The Andhra Pradesh movement gained momentum in the 1950s, and finally, in 1953, the State Reorganisation Commission recommended the formation of a separate Andhra state.
- On October 1, 1953, the state of Andhra Pradesh was formed, with Kurnool as its capital.
- This marked the first instance of a linguistic state being created in India.

Conclusion:

Both statements are correct.

- The SK Dhar committee played a crucial role in examining the need for linguistic reorganisation of states.
- Andhra Pradesh was the first linguistic state to be created in India, following the recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission.

Save Kurma
2. Operation Thunderbird
3. Operation Wildnet
4. Operation Banderas

The initiatives taken by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) include:

2. Operation Thunderbird
3. Operation Wildnet
4. Operation Banderas

Use of technology to optimize agricultural production and improve efficiency.
2. Precision agriculture can include the use of drones, sensors, and GPS to gather data about crops and soil.
3. Precision agriculture can help farmers reduce costs and improve yields by targeting specific areas that need attention.
4. Precision agriculture can also help farmers reduce their environmental impact by minimizing the use of fertilizers and pesticides.
5. Precision agriculture is mainly used in developed countries with advanced agricultural systems.
6. The adoption of precision agriculture is limited by the high cost of technology and the lack of technical knowledge among small-scale farmers.
7. Precision agriculture has the potential to revolutionize the way we produce food and address global food security challenges.

The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Explanation:
The V.V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) is an autonomous institute that functions under the Ministry of Labour and Employment of the Government of India. Let us analyze the given statements to understand why only statement 1 is correct.

1. It is under the Ministry of Labour of Government of India, is an autonomous civil service training institute.
The first statement is correct. The V.V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) is an autonomous institute that falls under the Ministry of Labour and Employment of the Government of India. It was established in July 1974 in honor of the former President of India, V.V. Giri. The main objective of the institute is to contribute to the policies and programs related to labor and employment in India by conducting research, training, and capacity building.

2. It was formed in 2015.
The second statement is incorrect. The V.V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) was not formed in 2015. It was established in July 1974.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

In conclusion, the V.V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) is an autonomous civil service training institute that operates under the Ministry of Labour and Employment of the Government of India. It was established in July 1974, not in 2015 as mentioned in statement 2.

Called "Mooknayak" in 1920 to advocate for the rights of the untouchables.
2. He was the chairman of the drafting committee for the Indian Constitution.
3. He played a crucial role in the formation of the Reserve Bank of India.
4. He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.

Which of the statements are true?

1. Statement 1 is true. B.R. Ambedkar established a fortnightly newspaper called "Mooknayak" in 1920 to advocate for the rights of the untouchables. He used this newspaper as a platform to raise awareness about the social and economic discrimination faced by the untouchables.
2. Statement 2 is true. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting committee for the Indian Constitution. He played a pivotal role in drafting the Constitution and ensuring that it included provisions to protect the rights and interests of marginalized communities, including the untouchables.
3. Statement 3 is false. B.R. Ambedkar did not play a crucial role in the formation of the Reserve Bank of India. The Reserve Bank of India was established in 1935, and Ambedkar's significant contributions were primarily in the field of social reform and politics, particularly related to the rights of the untouchables.
4. Statement 4 is false. B.R. Ambedkar was not one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885, and Ambedkar's involvement in politics began much later. He was more associated with the Scheduled Castes Federation and later formed the Republican Party of India.

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Statement 1: The President appoints the judges of the High Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the Chief Minister of the State.
This statement is incorrect.
- The appointment of judges to the High Court is not done by the President alone.
- According to Article 217 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the judges of the High Court after consulting the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State, and, in the case of appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court.
- The Chief Minister of the State is not involved in the appointment process.

Statement 2: The High Court judges are recommended by a Collegium comprising the CJI and two senior-most judges.
This statement is correct.
- The appointment of High Court judges is done through the Collegium system.
- The Collegium system was established through judicial interpretation, and it consists of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and four of the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
- The Collegium recommends the names of suitable candidates for appointment as judges of the High Court to the President.
- The President is bound by the recommendations of the Collegium and is required to appoint the recommended candidates as judges.

Conclusion:
Only statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Explanation:
1. Mercury takes the shortest time to rotate and revolve around the Sun:
- Mercury takes about 59 Earth days to complete one rotation on its axis, making it the planet with the slowest rotation.
- However, it only takes about 88 Earth days to complete one orbit around the Sun, making it the planet with the shortest year.
- This unique combination of slow rotation and fast revolution results in days on Mercury being longer than its years.
2. One Martian day is roughly the same as a day on Earth:
- A day on Mars, also known as a "sol," is only slightly longer than a day on Earth.
- A Martian day lasts about 24 hours and 39 minutes, making it very similar to a day on Earth which lasts about 24 hours.
- This similarity in day length makes it easier for scientists and astronauts to adjust to the Martian day-night cycle.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Agro-climatic Zones in Punjab
There are six agro-climatic zones in Punjab:
- Sub-Mountain Undulating Region
- Undulating Plain Region (UPR)
- Central Plain Region (CPR)
- Western Plain Region (WPR)
- Western Region (WR)
- Flood Plain Region (FPR)

Variations in Soil
The variations in soil in Punjab range from:
- Hill soils
- Tarai
- Brown hill
- Alluvial
- Desert
Therefore, both statements are correct. Punjab's diverse agro-climatic zones contribute to the state's agricultural productivity, as different regions are suitable for cultivating specific crops based on their soil and climatic conditions. The variations in soil types further enhance the agricultural potential of Punjab, allowing for the cultivation of a wide range of crops to meet the diverse agricultural needs of the state.