All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

16 October

, there are a variety of traditional clothing styles that are commonly worn. Some of the most well-known clothing styles include:

1. Sari: A sari is a long, unstitched garment that is draped around the body and typically worn by women. It consists of a length of fabric that is wrapped around the waist, with one end draped over the shoulder. Saris come in a wide range of colors, patterns, and fabrics, and are often intricately embellished.

2. Salwar Kameez: This is a popular traditional outfit worn by both women and men. It consists of a long tunic top called a kameez, worn over loose-fitting pants called salwar. The outfit is usually paired with a dupatta, a long scarf that is draped over the shoulders.

3. Lehenga Choli: This is a traditional outfit worn by women for special occasions such as weddings and festivals. It consists of a long, pleated skirt called a lehenga, paired with a fitted blouse called a choli. The outfit is often embellished with intricate embroidery, beadwork, or other decorative elements.

4. Kurta Pajama: This is a traditional outfit worn by men. It consists of a long, loose-fitting tunic called a kurta, paired with a comfortable pair of pants called pajama. The outfit is typically made from lightweight, breathable fabrics and is worn for both casual and formal occasions.

5. Dhoti: This is a traditional garment worn by men. It is a long piece of cloth that is wrapped around the waist and legs, similar to a skirt. The dhoti is typically paired with a kurta or a shirt and is commonly worn for religious ceremonies or special occasions.

These are just a few examples of the traditional clothing styles in India. The country's diverse culture and regional variations also contribute to a wide range of other traditional clothing styles that are unique to specific regions or communities.

Introduction:
The given statements are related to the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) and the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.

Analysis:

Statement 1:
The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).

This statement is correct. The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is indeed implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). GRAP is a comprehensive action plan that outlines specific actions to be taken based on the air quality index (AQI) in the National Capital Region (NCR) of Delhi.

Statement 2:
The GRAP is a set of emergency measures to be taken to reduce air pollution.

This statement is correct. The GRAP is indeed a set of emergency measures to be taken to reduce air pollution. It is designed to tackle the worsening air quality in Delhi and its neighboring regions. The plan includes measures like strict enforcement of the ban on construction activities, implementation of the odd-even vehicle rationing scheme, closure of polluting industries, and intensification of public transport services.

Statement 3:
CAQM is a statutory mechanism to coordinate and oversee diverse efforts to improve air quality in the National Capital Region of Delhi.

This statement is correct. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a statutory mechanism that coordinates and oversees diverse efforts to improve air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) of Delhi. It was established in 2020 by the central government to replace the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). CAQM has the authority to issue directions, enforce compliance, and take necessary steps to address air pollution issues in the region.

Conclusion:
All three statements are correct. The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) and it is a set of emergency measures to be taken to reduce air pollution. CAQM is a statutory mechanism that coordinates and oversees efforts to improve air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) of Delhi.

Previous question, there are several steps you can take to improve your analytical skills:

1. Gain knowledge: Start by building a strong foundation in the subject matter you want to analyze. Read books, research articles, and take courses to expand your knowledge base.

2. Practice critical thinking: Engage in activities that challenge your thinking and encourage you to analyze information from different perspectives. This could include solving puzzles, participating in debates, or playing strategy games.

3. Develop problem-solving skills: Solve complex problems by breaking them down into smaller, more manageable parts. This will help you identify patterns and develop logical reasoning skills.

4. Enhance your research skills: Learn how to find reliable sources of information and parse through vast amounts of data. This will enable you to gather relevant information and make informed decisions.

5. Learn data analysis techniques: Familiarize yourself with different data analysis methods, such as statistical analysis, regression analysis, and data visualization. This will help you interpret and draw meaningful insights from data.

6. Seek feedback: Share your analytical work with others and ask for feedback. This will help you identify any areas for improvement and refine your analytical skills.

7. Stay updated: Stay current with the latest trends, technologies, and advancements in your field. This will enable you to adapt your analytical approach and stay ahead of the curve.

Remember, improving analytical skills is an ongoing process that requires continuous learning and practice. By consistently applying these steps, you can enhance your ability to analyze information effectively.

Is the leading producer of sodium-ion batteries, accounting for a significant share of the global market.

Both statements are correct.

1. Sodium-ion batteries are being explored as an alternative to lithium-ion batteries due to their lower production costs. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, sodium-ion batteries do not require expensive materials like lithium, cobalt, or nickel. This makes them an attractive option for battery manufacturers looking for more affordable alternatives.

2. China is indeed the leading producer of sodium-ion batteries globally. The country has invested heavily in research and development of this technology and has established several manufacturing facilities. China's dominance in the sodium-ion battery market is driven by its focus on reducing reliance on foreign imports of expensive materials used in lithium-ion batteries.

Global Minimum Tax Deal: Analysis of Statements
The global minimum tax deal, aimed at addressing tax avoidance by multinational corporations, has generated significant discussion. Let’s analyze the given statements.

Statement 1: All UN member countries joined the agreement.
- This statement is **incorrect**.
- While many countries have endorsed the agreement, not all UN member states have signed on. Some nations, particularly those with low tax rates, have opted out or expressed reservations.

Statement 2: The global minimum tax rate applies to overseas profits of multinational firms with 750 million euros ($868 million) in sales globally.
- This statement is **correct**.
- The agreement specifically targets multinational enterprises with global sales exceeding 750 million euros. This threshold is designed to ensure that the tax framework applies primarily to large corporations, which are more likely to engage in profit shifting practices.

Conclusion
- Given the analysis, the correct answer is **option 'B'**: "2 only."
- The global minimum tax deal establishes a framework for taxing multinational entities, but it does not have universal participation from all UN member countries.
This distinction highlights the complexities and challenges surrounding international tax agreements, especially in reaching consensus among diverse economies.

Explanation:
Namdapha National Park:
- Namdapha National Park lies at the international border between India and Myanmar.
- It is surrounded by Patkai hills to the south and south-east and by the Himalayas in the north.
- The Noa-Dehing river, a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flows from the middle of the National Park.
Therefore, the statements provided in the question are related to Namdapha National Park in India.

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 and 3 only.

Explanation:

1. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection.
- This statement is correct. The Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was added to the Indian Constitution in 1985. It lays down the provisions for disqualification of elected members if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or vote against the party's instructions on a motion of confidence or no-confidence.

2. The members disqualified under the anti-defection law are debarred from contesting elections for the next five years.
- This statement is incorrect. The members disqualified under the anti-defection law are not debarred from contesting elections for the next five years. They are only disqualified from being a member of either House of Parliament or State Legislature for the remainder of their term. However, they can contest elections again after the term is over.

3. The defection by at least one-third of the elected members of a political party is considered a merger.
- This statement is incorrect. The defection by at least one-third of the elected members of a political party is not considered a merger. According to the Tenth Schedule, a merger is defined as the joining of an entire political party by another political party. It requires the consent of at least two-thirds of the members of the party.

In conclusion, statement 2 and 3 are not correct. Members disqualified under the anti-defection law are not debarred from contesting elections for the next five years, and the defection by at least one-third of the elected members of a political party is not considered a merger.

Understanding Mahalaya
Mahalaya is a significant event in the Hindu calendar, marking the transition between the Pitrupaksha and the Devipaksha.
Statement 1: Mahalaya marks the beginning of the Devipaksha and the end of the Pitrupaksha
- This statement is correct.
- Mahalaya occurs on the last day of Pitrupaksha, which is dedicated to honoring ancestors.
- The day also signifies the commencement of Devipaksha, a period dedicated to worshiping Goddess Durga, leading up to the festivities of Durga Puja.
Statement 2: Pitru Paksha is a 16-lunar day period
- This statement is also correct.
- Pitru Paksha lasts for 16 lunar days and is a time when Hindus perform shradh rituals to honor their deceased ancestors.
- During this period, families offer prayers and food to ensure the peace and well-being of their ancestors in the afterlife.
Conclusion
Both statements accurately describe the significance of Mahalaya and the associated rituals. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2 are correct.
This understanding of Mahalaya enhances appreciation of Hindu traditions and the significance of honoring ancestors while celebrating the divine feminine.

B

The Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL) is a research facility that falls under the purview of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in India. The TBRL is responsible for conducting research and development in the field of terminal ballistics, which is the study of how projectiles behave upon impact.

Location of TBRL:
The correct answer to the question is option 'D' - None of the above. The TBRL is not located in Bhopal, Patna, or Kanpur. The TBRL is actually located in Chandigarh, Punjab, India.

Research and Development:
The TBRL focuses on various aspects of terminal ballistics, including the study of projectile behavior, impact dynamics, penetration, and damage. The laboratory conducts experiments and tests to gather data and analyze the performance of various projectiles and materials. This research is crucial in developing effective defensive and offensive systems for the Indian Armed Forces.

Collaborations and Partnerships:
The TBRL collaborates with various national and international organizations, academic institutions, and industries to carry out its research activities. It works closely with other DRDO laboratories and centers to exchange knowledge and expertise. Additionally, the TBRL actively seeks partnerships with universities, defense agencies, and industry leaders to enhance its research capabilities.

Contributions to Defense:
The research conducted at TBRL has contributed significantly to the development and enhancement of defense capabilities in India. The laboratory has played a vital role in the design and development of various types of ammunition, explosive ordnance, and protective materials. The insights gained from TBRL's research have helped in improving the performance and effectiveness of weapons systems used by the Indian Armed Forces.

Conclusion:
The Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL) of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is located in Chandigarh, Punjab, India. The laboratory conducts research in the field of terminal ballistics, focusing on projectile behavior and impact dynamics. Its contributions have been instrumental in enhancing India's defense capabilities.

Net-Zero Emissions

Statement 1: It is a state in which the greenhouse gases going into the atmosphere are balanced by removal out of the atmosphere.

Explanation: Net-zero emissions mean that a country or organization's greenhouse gas emissions are balanced by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. This is achieved by reducing emissions and offsetting the remaining emissions through activities such as afforestation, reforestation, and carbon capture and storage. The ultimate goal of net-zero emissions is to limit global warming to below 2 degrees Celsius compared to pre-industrial levels.

Statement 2: India is the third-largest emitter of CO2, behind China and the USA.

Explanation: According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), India is the third-largest emitter of CO2, behind China and the United States. However, India's per capita emissions are much lower than those of China and the United States. India has set a target of achieving 40% of its installed power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.

Conclusion: Both statements are correct. India, as the world's third-largest emitter of CO2, needs to take significant steps to reduce its emissions and achieve net-zero emissions by 2050, as set out in its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC). Achieving net-zero emissions will require a concerted effort from all sectors of society, including government, industry, and individuals.

Statement 1: QKD provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

Statement 2: In QKD, encryption keys are sent as quantum bits in an optical fibre.

Statement 3: The encryption in QKD will be unbreakable because the data is carried by electrons and it cannot be perfectly copied.

Explanation:
QKD, or Quantum Key Distribution, is a method of secure communication that utilizes principles of quantum mechanics to distribute encryption keys between two parties. These keys are then used for cryptographic protocols to secure the communication between the parties.

Statement 1: QKD provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.
This statement is correct. QKD allows for the secure distribution of secret keys, which are essential for cryptographic protocols. By using quantum properties, such as the polarization of photons, QKD ensures that the keys exchanged between the parties remain secure.

Statement 2: In QKD, encryption keys are sent as quantum bits in an optical fibre.
This statement is correct. In QKD, the encryption keys are typically encoded as quantum bits, or qubits, and transmitted through an optical fiber. The qubits can be represented by the polarization states of photons, for example. The transmission of qubits ensures the security of the keys because any attempt to intercept or measure them would disrupt their quantum state, alerting the parties to potential eavesdropping.

Statement 3: The encryption in QKD will be unbreakable because the data is carried by electrons and it cannot be perfectly copied.
This statement is incorrect. In QKD, the encryption is not based on the fact that the data is carried by electrons, but rather on the principles of quantum mechanics. The security of QKD lies in the properties of quantum states and the detection of any interference or measurements performed on the transmitted qubits. While QKD provides a high level of security, it is not considered to be unbreakable in theory. However, any attempt to intercept or measure the qubits would introduce errors that can be detected by the communicating parties, alerting them to potential eavesdropping attempts.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
- Statement 1: QKD provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.
- Statement 2: In QKD, encryption keys are sent as quantum bits in an optical fibre.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.