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25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a?
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25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m a...
Solution:
To simplify the expression 1/(1 am–n am–p) * 1/(1 an–m an–p) * 1/(1 ap–m ap–n), we can use the properties of exponents and simplify each term individually.
Let's simplify each term step by step:
1/(1 am–n am–p) can be written as (1 am–n am–p)^-1.
Using the property (a^m)^n = a^(m*n), we can rewrite the term as 1/(am–n * am–p).
Using the property a^m * a^n = a^(m+n), we can further simplify it as 1/am–n+p.
Similarly, we can simplify the other terms as follows:
1/(1 an–m an–p) = 1/an–m+p
1/(1 ap–m ap–n) = 1/ap–m+n
Now, let's multiply all the simplified terms together:
(1/am–n+p) * (1/an–m+p) * (1/ap–m+n)
To multiply these fractions, we need to find a common denominator. The common denominator in this case is am+n+p.
Multiplying the numerators and denominators, we get:
(1 * 1 * 1) / (am–n+p * an–m+p * ap–m+n)
Since any number raised to the power of 0 is equal to 1, we can simplify the denominator as follows:
(1 * 1 * 1) / (a^0)
= 1/1
= 1
Therefore, the simplified expression 1/(1 am–n am–p) * 1/(1 an–m an–p) * 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to 1.
Final Answer: (c) 1
To simplify the expression 1/(1 am–n am–p) * 1/(1 an–m an–p) * 1/(1 ap–m ap–n), we can use the properties of exponents and simplify each term individually.
Let's simplify each term step by step:
1/(1 am–n am–p) can be written as (1 am–n am–p)^-1.
Using the property (a^m)^n = a^(m*n), we can rewrite the term as 1/(am–n * am–p).
Using the property a^m * a^n = a^(m+n), we can further simplify it as 1/am–n+p.
Similarly, we can simplify the other terms as follows:
1/(1 an–m an–p) = 1/an–m+p
1/(1 ap–m ap–n) = 1/ap–m+n
Now, let's multiply all the simplified terms together:
(1/am–n+p) * (1/an–m+p) * (1/ap–m+n)
To multiply these fractions, we need to find a common denominator. The common denominator in this case is am+n+p.
Multiplying the numerators and denominators, we get:
(1 * 1 * 1) / (am–n+p * an–m+p * ap–m+n)
Since any number raised to the power of 0 is equal to 1, we can simplify the denominator as follows:
(1 * 1 * 1) / (a^0)
= 1/1
= 1
Therefore, the simplified expression 1/(1 am–n am–p) * 1/(1 an–m an–p) * 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to 1.
Final Answer: (c) 1
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25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a?
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25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a? for CA Foundation 2025 is part of CA Foundation preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the CA Foundation exam syllabus. Information about 25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a? covers all topics & solutions for CA Foundation 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for 25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a?.
25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a? for CA Foundation 2025 is part of CA Foundation preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the CA Foundation exam syllabus. Information about 25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a? covers all topics & solutions for CA Foundation 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for 25. On simplification, 1/(1 am–n am–p) 1/(1 an–m an–p) 1/(1 ap–m ap–n) is equal to (a) 0 (b) a (c) 1 (d) 1/a?.
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