Which of the following is correct in the context of the decline of In...
- By the beginning of the nineteenth century, English made cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian goods from their traditional markets in Africa, America and Europe. By the 1830s British cotton cloth flooded Indian markets.
- In fact, by the 1880s two-thirds of all the cotton clothes worn by Indians were made of cloth produced in Britain. Handloom weaving did not completely die in India. This was because some types of cloth could not be supplied by machines.
Which of the following is correct in the context of the decline of In...
Introduction:
The decline of Indian textiles during the colonial era had a significant impact on the traditional textile industry in India. This decline can be attributed to several factors, including competition with English-made clothes, the influx of British cotton cloth into Indian markets, and the introduction of machine-made works from Britain. This answer will discuss the correctness of each statement and explain why option 'A' is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Competition with English made clothes in their traditional markets
This statement is correct. The traditional textile markets in India faced tough competition from English-made clothes. The British introduced their textile products into the Indian market, which had a negative impact on the demand for Indian textiles. The availability of cheaper and mass-produced English clothes reduced the demand for Indian textiles in both domestic and international markets.
Statement 2: By the 1830s British cotton cloth flooded in Indian markets
This statement is also correct. By the 1830s, British cotton cloth indeed flooded the Indian markets. The British colonizers established textile mills in India and used the country as a captive market for their cotton goods. The British industrialists took advantage of India's rich cotton resources and established a monopoly over the production and trade of cotton cloth. This flood of British cotton cloth further accelerated the decline of Indian textiles.
Statement 3: Handloom weaving completely died in India due to the introduction of machine-made works from Britain
This statement is incorrect. Handloom weaving did not completely die in India due to the introduction of machine-made works from Britain. While the introduction of machines did lead to a decline in handloom weaving, it did not completely eliminate it. Handloom weaving continued to exist in India, albeit on a smaller scale and in certain regions where traditional weaving practices were preserved.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, option 'A' is the correct answer as both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The decline of Indian textiles can be attributed to the competition with English-made clothes in their traditional markets and the flood of British cotton cloth in the 1830s. However, statement 3 is incorrect as handloom weaving did not completely die in India due to the introduction of machine-made works from Britain.