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Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.
Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]
Q. Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?
  • a)
    If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.
  • b)
    Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.
  • c)
    As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.
  • d)
    By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questio...
The argument presented suggests that capitalist markets typically rely on external demand to address the challenges posed by technological change. The scenario described in option D, where metropolitan capitalism maintains domestic employment and output by exporting goods to colonies, resulting in local deindustrialization, aligns with this contention. Therefore, option D is the appropriate choice.
Conversely, options A, B, and C run counter to the argument's premise.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
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Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Why does the passage suggest that capitalist economies have not experienced economic retrogression due to technological change?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements is true if technological advancement under capitalism has been accompanied by economic advancement rather than regression?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.What is a compelling explanation for the lack of wage increases in a capitalist market structure despite improvements in labor productivity?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.According to the passage, what did the simulations on a model of a capitalist economy by Richard Goodwin reveal about the relationship between innovations and wages?

Directions: Answer the given question based on the following passage:In 1954, a Bombay economist named A.D. Shroff began a Forum of Free Enterprise, whose ideas on economic development were somewhat at odds with those then influentially articulated by the Planning Commission of the Government of India. Shroff complained against the 'indifference, if not discouragement' with which the state treated entrepreneurs.At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise. Spratt was a Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in 1920s to foment revolution in the subcontinent. Detected in the act, he spent many years in an Indian jail. The books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian woman afterwards, inspired his steady move rightwards. By the 1950s, he was editing a pro-American weekly from Bangalore, called MysIndia. There he inveighed against the economic policies of the government of India. These, he said, treated the entrepreneur 'as a criminal who has dared to use his brains independently of the state to create wealth and give employment'. The state's chief planner, P.C. Mahalanobis, had surrounded himself with Western leftists and Soviet academicians, who reinforced his belief in 'rigid control by the government over all activities'. The result, said Spratt, would be 'the smothering of free enterprise, a famine of consumer goods, and the tying down of millions of workers to soul-deadening techniques.'The voices of men like Spratt and Shroff were drowned in the chorus of popular support for a model of heavy industrialization funded and directed by the governments. The 1950s were certainly not propitious times for free marketers in India. But from time to time their ideas were revived. After the rupee was devalued in 1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that the licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the Congress Party in 1969, her government took its 'left turn', nationalizing a fresh range of industries and returning to economic autarky.Q. Select the statement that best captures the central purpose of this passage.

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Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
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Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? for CLAT 2024 is part of CLAT preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. Information about Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for CLAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?.
Solutions for Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? in English & in Hindi are available as part of our courses for CLAT. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CLAT Exam by signing up for free.
Here you can find the meaning of Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? defined & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving the explanation of Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?, a detailed solution for Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? has been provided alongside types of Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? theory, EduRev gives you an ample number of questions to practice Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:Richard Goodwin, the well-known American economist who taught at Harvard before migrating to Cambridge, England, because of the McCarthyite witch-hunt of the 1950s, and who, although a Marxist, did some simulations on a model of a capitalist economy. The economy in the model experienced a wave of innovations while output was determined by aggregate demand; and the simulation results showed that unless wages increased significantly because of the introduction of innovations, output and employment at the end of the wave would be lower than at the beginning. There is no reason, however, for such a rise in wages despite the rise in labour productivity because the rise in unemployment through which alone such a rise in labour productivity manifests itself would weaken workers’ bargaining strength for enforcing higher wages. The conclusion about technological change causing economic retrogression in such a capitalist economy therefore remains unaffected.Capitalist economies, however, have not actually seen economic retrogression as a consequence of technological change. The question arises: why not? If as technological change is introduced and there is a simultaneous increase in aggregate demand for some independent reason, then there need not be either a decline in employment or output in the economy introducing such a change. But there is no reason why such an increase should occur within the capitalist sector. It will have to come from outside, and not just as a coincidence; the capitalist sector must cause such an independent expansion in aggregate demand to happen. In short, it will need to have a ‘market on tap’ existing outside of it that it can turn to to prevent a decline in output and employment. This idea, originally advanced by Rosa Luxemburg, has been borne out in practice. Capitalism has generally had such a ‘market on tap’ (a phrase of the economic historian, S.B. Saul), which is why technological change under it has been accompanied not by economic retrogression but by economic progress. [Extracted with edits and revision from ‘Flawed Idea Innovation and Retrogression’ by Prabhat Patnaik, Telegraph India]Q.Which of the following statements best supports the claim that, when technological revolution occurs, the capitalist sector must independently trigger an increase in aggregate demand?a)If a wave of innovation occurs that boosts labor productivity, at some time it will undoubtedly result in more unemployment.b)Market taps are difficult to find in the age of innovation and technological advancement.c)As a result of technical advancement, capitalist markets reduce their output to maintain a stable level of demand.d)By exporting commodities to the colonies, where they led to deindustrialization and decreased local production, metropolitan capitalism was able to prevent any decline in its domestic employment and output as a result of technical development.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? tests, examples and also practice CLAT tests.
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