Chandigarh: State Level Question Answer Paper (MAT) - 2018-19 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2018 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 
 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPRATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your eleven digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet 
as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the 
number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 question in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before beginning 
to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to 
the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the 
first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of 
it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on Answer sheet/loose paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test.  
Page 2


  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2018 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 
 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPRATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your eleven digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet 
as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the 
number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 question in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before beginning 
to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to 
the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the 
first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of 
it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on Answer sheet/loose paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test.  
   
   
 
1. In a certain code, MENTION is written a LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code? 
 (1) APTTREM (2) PTAETNR 
 (3) OTAETNR (4) OTAETRN  
 
2. In a certain code language, the word NUMBER is written ‘SECNVO’. How will the word ‘SECOND’ be written in 
that language?  
 (1) EPOEGH (2) EOPDFT 
 (3) OPETFD (4) TEFDPOE  
 
3. If PAINT is code as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then would you code ACCEPT? 
 (1) 455978 (2) 547978 
 (3) 554978 (4) 735961 
 
4. In a certain code, if SCHOOL is coded as 123445, TEAM as 6078, how is HOTEL coded in that code? 
 (1) 34785 (2) 60734 
 (3) 43605 (4) 34605 
 
5. Which number would replace question mark in the series 7, 12, 19, ? 39 
 (1) 29 (2) 28 
 (3) 26 (4) 24 
 
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence 1/2, 3/4, 5/8, 7/6?  
 (1) 9/32 (2) 10/17  
 (3) 11/34 (4) 12/35 
 
7. Find the missing number in the given series: 
 9, 11, 20, 31,___________82. 
 (1) 41 (2) 60 
 (3) 51 (4) 71 
 
(Q. 8-10) Direction: study the following number series to answer the given question.  
2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3, 7, 4, 8, 9, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 6, 8, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 6, 8, 9, 3, 6. 
 
8. How many 7s are there in the series which are immediately precede by an even number and immediately 
followed by an odd number> 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 3 (4) 5 
 
9. Which of the following will not be number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,________ 
 (1) 256 (2) 512 
 (3) 729 (4) 1000 
 
10. How many such number are there in the series which are immediately followed by its multiple? 
 (1) 3 (2) 4 
 (3) 5 (4) 1 
 
11. Which term comes next in the series? YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,……….. 
 (1) QGL (2) TOL 
 (3) QOL (4) QNL 
 
12. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother”. 
How is the person related to Anjali? 
 (1) Mother (2) Father 
 (3) Maternal Uncle (4) Brother  
 
13. Pointing out a lady, Mohit said, “she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of the husband of my 
mother”. Who is the lady to Mohit?  
 (1) Aunt (2) Grand Daughter 
 (3) Daughter (4) Sister 
 
14. A and B are brother C and D are sister. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? 
 (1) Father (2) Brother 
 (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle 
 
15. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha? 
 (1) Son (2) Brother 
 (3) Nephew (4) Father 
 
Page 3


  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2018 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 
 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPRATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your eleven digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet 
as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the 
number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 question in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before beginning 
to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to 
the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the 
first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of 
it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on Answer sheet/loose paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test.  
   
   
 
1. In a certain code, MENTION is written a LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code? 
 (1) APTTREM (2) PTAETNR 
 (3) OTAETNR (4) OTAETRN  
 
2. In a certain code language, the word NUMBER is written ‘SECNVO’. How will the word ‘SECOND’ be written in 
that language?  
 (1) EPOEGH (2) EOPDFT 
 (3) OPETFD (4) TEFDPOE  
 
3. If PAINT is code as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then would you code ACCEPT? 
 (1) 455978 (2) 547978 
 (3) 554978 (4) 735961 
 
4. In a certain code, if SCHOOL is coded as 123445, TEAM as 6078, how is HOTEL coded in that code? 
 (1) 34785 (2) 60734 
 (3) 43605 (4) 34605 
 
5. Which number would replace question mark in the series 7, 12, 19, ? 39 
 (1) 29 (2) 28 
 (3) 26 (4) 24 
 
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence 1/2, 3/4, 5/8, 7/6?  
 (1) 9/32 (2) 10/17  
 (3) 11/34 (4) 12/35 
 
7. Find the missing number in the given series: 
 9, 11, 20, 31,___________82. 
 (1) 41 (2) 60 
 (3) 51 (4) 71 
 
(Q. 8-10) Direction: study the following number series to answer the given question.  
2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3, 7, 4, 8, 9, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 6, 8, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 6, 8, 9, 3, 6. 
 
8. How many 7s are there in the series which are immediately precede by an even number and immediately 
followed by an odd number> 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 3 (4) 5 
 
9. Which of the following will not be number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,________ 
 (1) 256 (2) 512 
 (3) 729 (4) 1000 
 
10. How many such number are there in the series which are immediately followed by its multiple? 
 (1) 3 (2) 4 
 (3) 5 (4) 1 
 
11. Which term comes next in the series? YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,……….. 
 (1) QGL (2) TOL 
 (3) QOL (4) QNL 
 
12. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother”. 
How is the person related to Anjali? 
 (1) Mother (2) Father 
 (3) Maternal Uncle (4) Brother  
 
13. Pointing out a lady, Mohit said, “she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of the husband of my 
mother”. Who is the lady to Mohit?  
 (1) Aunt (2) Grand Daughter 
 (3) Daughter (4) Sister 
 
14. A and B are brother C and D are sister. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? 
 (1) Father (2) Brother 
 (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle 
 
15. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha? 
 (1) Son (2) Brother 
 (3) Nephew (4) Father 
 
   
   
 
16. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10 metre. Then I turn left and 
walk 10 metre and then turning right walk w0 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 60 metre. In which direction 
am I from the starting point?  
 (1) North-West (2) North-East 
 (3) North (4) West 
 
Directions (17-19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 
‘P+Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. 
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. 
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q. 
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’.  
 
17. In the expression ‘M+K$T@N’ how is M related to N?  
 (1) Sister (2) Cousin  
 (3) Brother (4) Paternal Uncle 
 
18. Which of the following expression represents the relation V is mother of D?  
 (1) V%Q@R$D (2) D+T@J$V  
 (3) V%Q$R@D (4) V@F$D%M  
 
19. In the expression ‘E+H@K$B’ how is B related to E? 
 (1) Brother (2) Sister  
 (3) Cousin (4) Can’t be determined 
 
20. Rajeev is facing west. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degree in the same 
direction and then 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction. Find which direction he is facing now? 
 (1) South (2) West 
 (3) South-West (4) South-East 
 
21. Rohit walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards east. 
How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?  
 (1) 3 Km South (2) 4 Km East 
 (3) 5 Km South (4) 5 Km North-East 
 
Direction (22-25): Study the information and answer the question given: 
Seven people-P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are in a circle facing the centre. P is between T and S. U is between Q and V. 
Q is 2
nd
 to the right of T. 
 
22. V is sitting  
 (1) Between P and U (2) to the immediate left of U 
 (3) 2
nd
 to the left of P (4) 4
th
 to the left of T 
 
23. Who is sitting in the immediate left of R? 
 (1) T (2) S 
 (3) U (4) V 
 
24. Which pair amongst the following are not immediate neighbours? 
 (1) TR (2) SP 
 (3) VU (4) SQ 
 
25. What is the position of S with respect to u? 
 (1) 2
nd
 to the right (2) 3
rd
 to the left 
 (3) Immediate left (4) Immediate right 
 
26. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will be on the top when 2 points are at the bottom?  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 6 (2) 1 
 (3) 4 (4) 5 
 
  
Page 4


  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2018 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 
 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPRATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your eleven digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet 
as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the 
number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 question in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before beginning 
to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to 
the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the 
first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of 
it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on Answer sheet/loose paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test.  
   
   
 
1. In a certain code, MENTION is written a LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code? 
 (1) APTTREM (2) PTAETNR 
 (3) OTAETNR (4) OTAETRN  
 
2. In a certain code language, the word NUMBER is written ‘SECNVO’. How will the word ‘SECOND’ be written in 
that language?  
 (1) EPOEGH (2) EOPDFT 
 (3) OPETFD (4) TEFDPOE  
 
3. If PAINT is code as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then would you code ACCEPT? 
 (1) 455978 (2) 547978 
 (3) 554978 (4) 735961 
 
4. In a certain code, if SCHOOL is coded as 123445, TEAM as 6078, how is HOTEL coded in that code? 
 (1) 34785 (2) 60734 
 (3) 43605 (4) 34605 
 
5. Which number would replace question mark in the series 7, 12, 19, ? 39 
 (1) 29 (2) 28 
 (3) 26 (4) 24 
 
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence 1/2, 3/4, 5/8, 7/6?  
 (1) 9/32 (2) 10/17  
 (3) 11/34 (4) 12/35 
 
7. Find the missing number in the given series: 
 9, 11, 20, 31,___________82. 
 (1) 41 (2) 60 
 (3) 51 (4) 71 
 
(Q. 8-10) Direction: study the following number series to answer the given question.  
2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3, 7, 4, 8, 9, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 6, 8, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 6, 8, 9, 3, 6. 
 
8. How many 7s are there in the series which are immediately precede by an even number and immediately 
followed by an odd number> 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 3 (4) 5 
 
9. Which of the following will not be number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,________ 
 (1) 256 (2) 512 
 (3) 729 (4) 1000 
 
10. How many such number are there in the series which are immediately followed by its multiple? 
 (1) 3 (2) 4 
 (3) 5 (4) 1 
 
11. Which term comes next in the series? YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,……….. 
 (1) QGL (2) TOL 
 (3) QOL (4) QNL 
 
12. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother”. 
How is the person related to Anjali? 
 (1) Mother (2) Father 
 (3) Maternal Uncle (4) Brother  
 
13. Pointing out a lady, Mohit said, “she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of the husband of my 
mother”. Who is the lady to Mohit?  
 (1) Aunt (2) Grand Daughter 
 (3) Daughter (4) Sister 
 
14. A and B are brother C and D are sister. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? 
 (1) Father (2) Brother 
 (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle 
 
15. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha? 
 (1) Son (2) Brother 
 (3) Nephew (4) Father 
 
   
   
 
16. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10 metre. Then I turn left and 
walk 10 metre and then turning right walk w0 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 60 metre. In which direction 
am I from the starting point?  
 (1) North-West (2) North-East 
 (3) North (4) West 
 
Directions (17-19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 
‘P+Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. 
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. 
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q. 
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’.  
 
17. In the expression ‘M+K$T@N’ how is M related to N?  
 (1) Sister (2) Cousin  
 (3) Brother (4) Paternal Uncle 
 
18. Which of the following expression represents the relation V is mother of D?  
 (1) V%Q@R$D (2) D+T@J$V  
 (3) V%Q$R@D (4) V@F$D%M  
 
19. In the expression ‘E+H@K$B’ how is B related to E? 
 (1) Brother (2) Sister  
 (3) Cousin (4) Can’t be determined 
 
20. Rajeev is facing west. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degree in the same 
direction and then 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction. Find which direction he is facing now? 
 (1) South (2) West 
 (3) South-West (4) South-East 
 
21. Rohit walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards east. 
How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?  
 (1) 3 Km South (2) 4 Km East 
 (3) 5 Km South (4) 5 Km North-East 
 
Direction (22-25): Study the information and answer the question given: 
Seven people-P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are in a circle facing the centre. P is between T and S. U is between Q and V. 
Q is 2
nd
 to the right of T. 
 
22. V is sitting  
 (1) Between P and U (2) to the immediate left of U 
 (3) 2
nd
 to the left of P (4) 4
th
 to the left of T 
 
23. Who is sitting in the immediate left of R? 
 (1) T (2) S 
 (3) U (4) V 
 
24. Which pair amongst the following are not immediate neighbours? 
 (1) TR (2) SP 
 (3) VU (4) SQ 
 
25. What is the position of S with respect to u? 
 (1) 2
nd
 to the right (2) 3
rd
 to the left 
 (3) Immediate left (4) Immediate right 
 
26. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will be on the top when 2 points are at the bottom?  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 6 (2) 1 
 (3) 4 (4) 5 
 
  
   
   
 
 
Directions (27-30) Study the information  and answer the questions below. 
Six dice with upper faces erased are as shows. The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face of each 
dice is 7. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
27. If even numbered (ii, iv, vi) dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number 
of dots on the top faces of their dice?  
 (1) 12 (2) 14 
 (3) 24 (4) 18 
 
28. If the odd numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of 
dots on the top faces of their dice? 
 (1) 8 (2) 10 
 (3) 12 (4) 14 
 
29. If dice (I), (II) and (III) have even number of dots on their bottom faces and the dice (IV), (V) and (VI) have odd 
number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the difference in the total number of top faces between 
these two sets? 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 6 (4) 0 
 
30. If the even numbers of dice have odd number of dots on their top faces and odd numbered dice have even of dots 
on their bottom faces, then what would be the total number of dots on their top faces?  
 (1) 14 (2) 18 
 (3) 16 (4) 12 
 
Directions (31-32): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I 
and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly 
known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two 
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.  
 
31. Statements: All bags are books. All pencils are books. 
 
 Conclusions: 
 I. Some pencils are bags. II. No pencil is bag. 
 (1) Only conclusion II follows (2) Only conclusion II follows  
 (3) Either I or II follows (4) Neither I nor II follows 
 
32. Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are cheap. 
 
 Conclusions: 
 I. All mangoes are cheap. 
 II. Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap. 
 (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows 
 (3) Either I or II follows (4) Neither I nor II follows 
 
Direction (33-38): there is a question mark in empty cell. Find out the correct alternative? 
 
33.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 7 (2) 8 
 (3) 3 (4) 9 
 
Page 5


  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2018 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 
 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPRATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your eleven digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet 
as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the 
number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 question in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before beginning 
to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to 
the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the 
first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of 
it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on Answer sheet/loose paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test.  
   
   
 
1. In a certain code, MENTION is written a LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code? 
 (1) APTTREM (2) PTAETNR 
 (3) OTAETNR (4) OTAETRN  
 
2. In a certain code language, the word NUMBER is written ‘SECNVO’. How will the word ‘SECOND’ be written in 
that language?  
 (1) EPOEGH (2) EOPDFT 
 (3) OPETFD (4) TEFDPOE  
 
3. If PAINT is code as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then would you code ACCEPT? 
 (1) 455978 (2) 547978 
 (3) 554978 (4) 735961 
 
4. In a certain code, if SCHOOL is coded as 123445, TEAM as 6078, how is HOTEL coded in that code? 
 (1) 34785 (2) 60734 
 (3) 43605 (4) 34605 
 
5. Which number would replace question mark in the series 7, 12, 19, ? 39 
 (1) 29 (2) 28 
 (3) 26 (4) 24 
 
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence 1/2, 3/4, 5/8, 7/6?  
 (1) 9/32 (2) 10/17  
 (3) 11/34 (4) 12/35 
 
7. Find the missing number in the given series: 
 9, 11, 20, 31,___________82. 
 (1) 41 (2) 60 
 (3) 51 (4) 71 
 
(Q. 8-10) Direction: study the following number series to answer the given question.  
2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3, 7, 4, 8, 9, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 6, 8, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 6, 8, 9, 3, 6. 
 
8. How many 7s are there in the series which are immediately precede by an even number and immediately 
followed by an odd number> 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 3 (4) 5 
 
9. Which of the following will not be number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,________ 
 (1) 256 (2) 512 
 (3) 729 (4) 1000 
 
10. How many such number are there in the series which are immediately followed by its multiple? 
 (1) 3 (2) 4 
 (3) 5 (4) 1 
 
11. Which term comes next in the series? YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,……….. 
 (1) QGL (2) TOL 
 (3) QOL (4) QNL 
 
12. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother”. 
How is the person related to Anjali? 
 (1) Mother (2) Father 
 (3) Maternal Uncle (4) Brother  
 
13. Pointing out a lady, Mohit said, “she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of the husband of my 
mother”. Who is the lady to Mohit?  
 (1) Aunt (2) Grand Daughter 
 (3) Daughter (4) Sister 
 
14. A and B are brother C and D are sister. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C? 
 (1) Father (2) Brother 
 (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle 
 
15. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha? 
 (1) Son (2) Brother 
 (3) Nephew (4) Father 
 
   
   
 
16. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10 metre. Then I turn left and 
walk 10 metre and then turning right walk w0 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 60 metre. In which direction 
am I from the starting point?  
 (1) North-West (2) North-East 
 (3) North (4) West 
 
Directions (17-19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 
‘P+Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. 
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. 
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q. 
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’.  
 
17. In the expression ‘M+K$T@N’ how is M related to N?  
 (1) Sister (2) Cousin  
 (3) Brother (4) Paternal Uncle 
 
18. Which of the following expression represents the relation V is mother of D?  
 (1) V%Q@R$D (2) D+T@J$V  
 (3) V%Q$R@D (4) V@F$D%M  
 
19. In the expression ‘E+H@K$B’ how is B related to E? 
 (1) Brother (2) Sister  
 (3) Cousin (4) Can’t be determined 
 
20. Rajeev is facing west. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degree in the same 
direction and then 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction. Find which direction he is facing now? 
 (1) South (2) West 
 (3) South-West (4) South-East 
 
21. Rohit walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards east. 
How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?  
 (1) 3 Km South (2) 4 Km East 
 (3) 5 Km South (4) 5 Km North-East 
 
Direction (22-25): Study the information and answer the question given: 
Seven people-P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are in a circle facing the centre. P is between T and S. U is between Q and V. 
Q is 2
nd
 to the right of T. 
 
22. V is sitting  
 (1) Between P and U (2) to the immediate left of U 
 (3) 2
nd
 to the left of P (4) 4
th
 to the left of T 
 
23. Who is sitting in the immediate left of R? 
 (1) T (2) S 
 (3) U (4) V 
 
24. Which pair amongst the following are not immediate neighbours? 
 (1) TR (2) SP 
 (3) VU (4) SQ 
 
25. What is the position of S with respect to u? 
 (1) 2
nd
 to the right (2) 3
rd
 to the left 
 (3) Immediate left (4) Immediate right 
 
26. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will be on the top when 2 points are at the bottom?  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 6 (2) 1 
 (3) 4 (4) 5 
 
  
   
   
 
 
Directions (27-30) Study the information  and answer the questions below. 
Six dice with upper faces erased are as shows. The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face of each 
dice is 7. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
27. If even numbered (ii, iv, vi) dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number 
of dots on the top faces of their dice?  
 (1) 12 (2) 14 
 (3) 24 (4) 18 
 
28. If the odd numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of 
dots on the top faces of their dice? 
 (1) 8 (2) 10 
 (3) 12 (4) 14 
 
29. If dice (I), (II) and (III) have even number of dots on their bottom faces and the dice (IV), (V) and (VI) have odd 
number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the difference in the total number of top faces between 
these two sets? 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 6 (4) 0 
 
30. If the even numbers of dice have odd number of dots on their top faces and odd numbered dice have even of dots 
on their bottom faces, then what would be the total number of dots on their top faces?  
 (1) 14 (2) 18 
 (3) 16 (4) 12 
 
Directions (31-32): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I 
and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly 
known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two 
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.  
 
31. Statements: All bags are books. All pencils are books. 
 
 Conclusions: 
 I. Some pencils are bags. II. No pencil is bag. 
 (1) Only conclusion II follows (2) Only conclusion II follows  
 (3) Either I or II follows (4) Neither I nor II follows 
 
32. Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are cheap. 
 
 Conclusions: 
 I. All mangoes are cheap. 
 II. Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap. 
 (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows 
 (3) Either I or II follows (4) Neither I nor II follows 
 
Direction (33-38): there is a question mark in empty cell. Find out the correct alternative? 
 
33.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 7 (2) 8 
 (3) 3 (4) 9 
 
   
   
 
 
 
34.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 2 (2) 4 
 (3) 3 (4) 5 
 
 
35.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 23 (2) 12 
 (3) 60 (4) 32 
 
 
36.  
 
 
 
 
 (1) 128 (2) 71 
 (3) 127 (4) 89 
 
 
37.  
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 12 (2) 18 
 (3) 9 (4) 10 
 
38. Find the missing character (?) in the following diagram. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 4 (2) 305 
 (3) 343 (4) 729 
 
39. Find the missing (?) in the following diagram. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (1) 1 (2) 2 
 (3) 3 (4) 4