Chandigarh: State Level Question Paper & Answer Key (MAT) - 2015-16 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
Page 2


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
  
      
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: 
 
Find the odd one out 
 
1. 13, 61, 97, 117 
 (A) 13 (B) 61 
 (C) 97 (D) 117 
 
2. 2 ?3, 3 ?7, 4 ?15, 5 ?24 
 (A) 2 ?3 (B) 3 ?7 
 (C) 4 ?15 (D) 5 ?24 
 
3. 3175, 7531, 1357, 7315 
 (A) 3175 (B) 7531 
 (C) 1357 (D) 7315 
 
4. MQT, ADG, HKN, RUX 
 (A) MQT (B) ADG 
 (C) HKN (D) RUX 
 
5. BDF, CHK, LDO, RFX 
 (A) BDF (B) CHK 
 (C) LDO (D) RFX 
 
6. If in a certain code ‘64391’ is written as ‘73482’ then how will ‘218759’ be coded? 
 (A) 320860 (B) 309688 
 (C) 127840 (D) 309668 
 
7. If in a certain code ‘24631’ is written as ‘GREAT’ and ‘5897’ as ‘MONK’ then how will ‘84712’ be coded? 
 (A) OGKAE (B) ORKTG 
 (C) ORATG (D) OGRTK 
 
8. If 3
rd
 of the month falls on Wednesday then what day will be on 27
th
 of that month? 
 (A) Saturday (B) Sunday 
 (C) Friday (D) Monday 
 
9. If Thursday falls on 1
st
 January 2015, what day of the week will be on 1
st
 January 2016? 
 (A) Monday (B) Tuesday 
 (C) Friday (D) Sunday 
 
10. If the following series is written in reverse order, then which will be 12
th
 letter to the left of 10
th
 letter from your right? 
 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 
 (A) X (B) U 
 (C) V (D) W 
 
11. If the first and 11
th
 letters of the word ‘DISTURBANCE’ were interchanged, also the second and 10
th
 letters and so on, 
which would be the 7
th
 letter from your right. 
 (A) R (B) B 
 (C) A (D) U 
 
12. BYVE : GTQJ :: CXUF:? 
 (A) HSQJ (B) IROL 
 (C) HSPK (D) GTRI 
 
13. ARM : ESN : : OWL : ? 
 (A) SXN (B) KXT 
 (C) UXM (D) UXN 
 
Directions for Questions 14 and 15: 
 
Find out the missing letters 
 
14. ab _ abcbcdb _ d _ decdedefde 
 (A) cccf (B) bcdf 
 (C) bcde (D) bded 
 
15. babc _ abbccc _ cdbbc _ dddc _ eccddee 
 (A) adcd (B) abcd 
 (C) bcdc (D) babd 
Page 3


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
  
      
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: 
 
Find the odd one out 
 
1. 13, 61, 97, 117 
 (A) 13 (B) 61 
 (C) 97 (D) 117 
 
2. 2 ?3, 3 ?7, 4 ?15, 5 ?24 
 (A) 2 ?3 (B) 3 ?7 
 (C) 4 ?15 (D) 5 ?24 
 
3. 3175, 7531, 1357, 7315 
 (A) 3175 (B) 7531 
 (C) 1357 (D) 7315 
 
4. MQT, ADG, HKN, RUX 
 (A) MQT (B) ADG 
 (C) HKN (D) RUX 
 
5. BDF, CHK, LDO, RFX 
 (A) BDF (B) CHK 
 (C) LDO (D) RFX 
 
6. If in a certain code ‘64391’ is written as ‘73482’ then how will ‘218759’ be coded? 
 (A) 320860 (B) 309688 
 (C) 127840 (D) 309668 
 
7. If in a certain code ‘24631’ is written as ‘GREAT’ and ‘5897’ as ‘MONK’ then how will ‘84712’ be coded? 
 (A) OGKAE (B) ORKTG 
 (C) ORATG (D) OGRTK 
 
8. If 3
rd
 of the month falls on Wednesday then what day will be on 27
th
 of that month? 
 (A) Saturday (B) Sunday 
 (C) Friday (D) Monday 
 
9. If Thursday falls on 1
st
 January 2015, what day of the week will be on 1
st
 January 2016? 
 (A) Monday (B) Tuesday 
 (C) Friday (D) Sunday 
 
10. If the following series is written in reverse order, then which will be 12
th
 letter to the left of 10
th
 letter from your right? 
 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 
 (A) X (B) U 
 (C) V (D) W 
 
11. If the first and 11
th
 letters of the word ‘DISTURBANCE’ were interchanged, also the second and 10
th
 letters and so on, 
which would be the 7
th
 letter from your right. 
 (A) R (B) B 
 (C) A (D) U 
 
12. BYVE : GTQJ :: CXUF:? 
 (A) HSQJ (B) IROL 
 (C) HSPK (D) GTRI 
 
13. ARM : ESN : : OWL : ? 
 (A) SXN (B) KXT 
 (C) UXM (D) UXN 
 
Directions for Questions 14 and 15: 
 
Find out the missing letters 
 
14. ab _ abcbcdb _ d _ decdedefde 
 (A) cccf (B) bcdf 
 (C) bcde (D) bded 
 
15. babc _ abbccc _ cdbbc _ dddc _ eccddee 
 (A) adcd (B) abcd 
 (C) bcdc (D) babd 
  
      
 
16. A person goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. After this he 
goes 30 km after turning to his right. How far and in what direction is he from his starting point? 
 (A) 40 km, East (B) 15 km, East 
 (C) 45 km, West (D) 45 km, North 
 
17. A person is at a fixed point, from where he goes 20 metres towards West. From there he goes 10 metres towards North. 
Then he goes 35 metres towards East and after this he goes 5 metres towards South and in the end he goes 15 metres 
West. How far is he from the fixed point? 
 (A) 5 metres (B) 0 metres 
 (C) 13 metres (D) 15 metres 
 
18. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the second word in that order? 
 (A) Export (B) Exposure 
 (C) Expulsion (D) Expose 
 
Directions for Questions 19 and 20: 
 
Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path are facing the centre. R is third from P in the right. Q is third from T 
in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U from the left and from right. 
 
19. Who is opposite to T? 
 (A) S (B) Q 
 (C) P (D) U 
 
20. What is the order of the six people from the right? 
 (A) SQRUTP (B) TSRQUP 
 (C) SRTUPQ (D) SQPTUR 
 
21. Shyam is older than Ram. Ram is younger than Mohan who is not olde that Shyam. Shyam is younger than Krishna. 
Who is the eldest among all?   
 (A) Mohan (B) Krishna 
 (C) Shyam (D) Ram 
 
22. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10
th
 and 16
th
 respectively, what are their placed from 
the last? 
 (A) 28
th
 and 22
nd
  (B) 27
th
 and 21
st
  
 (C) 28
th
 and 20
th
  (D) 27
th
 and 22
nd
  
 
23. How many 2’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? 
 13523545245226245267823527524 
 (A) One (B) Two 
 (C) Three (D) Four 
 
24. How many 3’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by an odd number but followed by 4? 
 1532346534783492344563443534 
 (A) None (B) Two 
 (C) Four (D) One 
 
25. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are 
removed, then how many numbers will be left? 
 (A) 24 (B) 23 
 (C) 22 (D) 25 
 
 
 
 
26. A doctor said to his nurse, “I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the 
patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1:40 p.m.” At what time this information was given to the nurse by the 
doctor?   
 (A) 10:10 (B) 11:30 
 (C) 8:50 (D) 11:20 
 
Page 4


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
  
      
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: 
 
Find the odd one out 
 
1. 13, 61, 97, 117 
 (A) 13 (B) 61 
 (C) 97 (D) 117 
 
2. 2 ?3, 3 ?7, 4 ?15, 5 ?24 
 (A) 2 ?3 (B) 3 ?7 
 (C) 4 ?15 (D) 5 ?24 
 
3. 3175, 7531, 1357, 7315 
 (A) 3175 (B) 7531 
 (C) 1357 (D) 7315 
 
4. MQT, ADG, HKN, RUX 
 (A) MQT (B) ADG 
 (C) HKN (D) RUX 
 
5. BDF, CHK, LDO, RFX 
 (A) BDF (B) CHK 
 (C) LDO (D) RFX 
 
6. If in a certain code ‘64391’ is written as ‘73482’ then how will ‘218759’ be coded? 
 (A) 320860 (B) 309688 
 (C) 127840 (D) 309668 
 
7. If in a certain code ‘24631’ is written as ‘GREAT’ and ‘5897’ as ‘MONK’ then how will ‘84712’ be coded? 
 (A) OGKAE (B) ORKTG 
 (C) ORATG (D) OGRTK 
 
8. If 3
rd
 of the month falls on Wednesday then what day will be on 27
th
 of that month? 
 (A) Saturday (B) Sunday 
 (C) Friday (D) Monday 
 
9. If Thursday falls on 1
st
 January 2015, what day of the week will be on 1
st
 January 2016? 
 (A) Monday (B) Tuesday 
 (C) Friday (D) Sunday 
 
10. If the following series is written in reverse order, then which will be 12
th
 letter to the left of 10
th
 letter from your right? 
 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 
 (A) X (B) U 
 (C) V (D) W 
 
11. If the first and 11
th
 letters of the word ‘DISTURBANCE’ were interchanged, also the second and 10
th
 letters and so on, 
which would be the 7
th
 letter from your right. 
 (A) R (B) B 
 (C) A (D) U 
 
12. BYVE : GTQJ :: CXUF:? 
 (A) HSQJ (B) IROL 
 (C) HSPK (D) GTRI 
 
13. ARM : ESN : : OWL : ? 
 (A) SXN (B) KXT 
 (C) UXM (D) UXN 
 
Directions for Questions 14 and 15: 
 
Find out the missing letters 
 
14. ab _ abcbcdb _ d _ decdedefde 
 (A) cccf (B) bcdf 
 (C) bcde (D) bded 
 
15. babc _ abbccc _ cdbbc _ dddc _ eccddee 
 (A) adcd (B) abcd 
 (C) bcdc (D) babd 
  
      
 
16. A person goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. After this he 
goes 30 km after turning to his right. How far and in what direction is he from his starting point? 
 (A) 40 km, East (B) 15 km, East 
 (C) 45 km, West (D) 45 km, North 
 
17. A person is at a fixed point, from where he goes 20 metres towards West. From there he goes 10 metres towards North. 
Then he goes 35 metres towards East and after this he goes 5 metres towards South and in the end he goes 15 metres 
West. How far is he from the fixed point? 
 (A) 5 metres (B) 0 metres 
 (C) 13 metres (D) 15 metres 
 
18. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the second word in that order? 
 (A) Export (B) Exposure 
 (C) Expulsion (D) Expose 
 
Directions for Questions 19 and 20: 
 
Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path are facing the centre. R is third from P in the right. Q is third from T 
in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U from the left and from right. 
 
19. Who is opposite to T? 
 (A) S (B) Q 
 (C) P (D) U 
 
20. What is the order of the six people from the right? 
 (A) SQRUTP (B) TSRQUP 
 (C) SRTUPQ (D) SQPTUR 
 
21. Shyam is older than Ram. Ram is younger than Mohan who is not olde that Shyam. Shyam is younger than Krishna. 
Who is the eldest among all?   
 (A) Mohan (B) Krishna 
 (C) Shyam (D) Ram 
 
22. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10
th
 and 16
th
 respectively, what are their placed from 
the last? 
 (A) 28
th
 and 22
nd
  (B) 27
th
 and 21
st
  
 (C) 28
th
 and 20
th
  (D) 27
th
 and 22
nd
  
 
23. How many 2’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? 
 13523545245226245267823527524 
 (A) One (B) Two 
 (C) Three (D) Four 
 
24. How many 3’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by an odd number but followed by 4? 
 1532346534783492344563443534 
 (A) None (B) Two 
 (C) Four (D) One 
 
25. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are 
removed, then how many numbers will be left? 
 (A) 24 (B) 23 
 (C) 22 (D) 25 
 
 
 
 
26. A doctor said to his nurse, “I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the 
patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1:40 p.m.” At what time this information was given to the nurse by the 
doctor?   
 (A) 10:10 (B) 11:30 
 (C) 8:50 (D) 11:20 
 
  
      
 
Directions for Question 27 to 30: 
 
If according to a certain code ‘mar tar gar zar’ means ‘Can we start immediately ‘ har zar par dar’ means ‘No you start tomorrow’ 
‘dar sar kar tar’ means ‘Can you come here’. ‘yar par mar sar’ means ‘No we stay here’. 
  
27. What is the code for ‘stay’? 
 (A) yar (B) par  
 (C) mar (D) sar 
 
28. What does ‘dar’ mean? 
 (A) No (B) Can 
 (C) You (D) Start 
 
29. What does ‘mar’ mean? 
 (A) Can (B) We 
 (C) start (D) Here 
 
30. What is the code for ‘immediately’? 
 (A) yar (B) har 
 (C) sar (D) gar 
 
Directions for Questions 31 and 32: 
 
In the figure given below, triangle represents girls, square represents sport person and circle represents coaches.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
31. Which portion of the figure represent girls who are sports-persons but not coaches? 
 (A) A (B) B 
 (C) C (D) D 
 
32. Which portion represents girls who are sports-person and coaches? 
 (A) D (B) C 
 (C) B (D) A 
 
Directions for Questions 33 and 34: 
A figure is given. A mirror is placed at one side of it. The mirror is denoted by AB. Which one of answer figure will be its  
image. 
 
33.   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (A) A (B) B 
 (C) C (D) D 
 
Page 5


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
  
      
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: 
 
Find the odd one out 
 
1. 13, 61, 97, 117 
 (A) 13 (B) 61 
 (C) 97 (D) 117 
 
2. 2 ?3, 3 ?7, 4 ?15, 5 ?24 
 (A) 2 ?3 (B) 3 ?7 
 (C) 4 ?15 (D) 5 ?24 
 
3. 3175, 7531, 1357, 7315 
 (A) 3175 (B) 7531 
 (C) 1357 (D) 7315 
 
4. MQT, ADG, HKN, RUX 
 (A) MQT (B) ADG 
 (C) HKN (D) RUX 
 
5. BDF, CHK, LDO, RFX 
 (A) BDF (B) CHK 
 (C) LDO (D) RFX 
 
6. If in a certain code ‘64391’ is written as ‘73482’ then how will ‘218759’ be coded? 
 (A) 320860 (B) 309688 
 (C) 127840 (D) 309668 
 
7. If in a certain code ‘24631’ is written as ‘GREAT’ and ‘5897’ as ‘MONK’ then how will ‘84712’ be coded? 
 (A) OGKAE (B) ORKTG 
 (C) ORATG (D) OGRTK 
 
8. If 3
rd
 of the month falls on Wednesday then what day will be on 27
th
 of that month? 
 (A) Saturday (B) Sunday 
 (C) Friday (D) Monday 
 
9. If Thursday falls on 1
st
 January 2015, what day of the week will be on 1
st
 January 2016? 
 (A) Monday (B) Tuesday 
 (C) Friday (D) Sunday 
 
10. If the following series is written in reverse order, then which will be 12
th
 letter to the left of 10
th
 letter from your right? 
 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 
 (A) X (B) U 
 (C) V (D) W 
 
11. If the first and 11
th
 letters of the word ‘DISTURBANCE’ were interchanged, also the second and 10
th
 letters and so on, 
which would be the 7
th
 letter from your right. 
 (A) R (B) B 
 (C) A (D) U 
 
12. BYVE : GTQJ :: CXUF:? 
 (A) HSQJ (B) IROL 
 (C) HSPK (D) GTRI 
 
13. ARM : ESN : : OWL : ? 
 (A) SXN (B) KXT 
 (C) UXM (D) UXN 
 
Directions for Questions 14 and 15: 
 
Find out the missing letters 
 
14. ab _ abcbcdb _ d _ decdedefde 
 (A) cccf (B) bcdf 
 (C) bcde (D) bded 
 
15. babc _ abbccc _ cdbbc _ dddc _ eccddee 
 (A) adcd (B) abcd 
 (C) bcdc (D) babd 
  
      
 
16. A person goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. After this he 
goes 30 km after turning to his right. How far and in what direction is he from his starting point? 
 (A) 40 km, East (B) 15 km, East 
 (C) 45 km, West (D) 45 km, North 
 
17. A person is at a fixed point, from where he goes 20 metres towards West. From there he goes 10 metres towards North. 
Then he goes 35 metres towards East and after this he goes 5 metres towards South and in the end he goes 15 metres 
West. How far is he from the fixed point? 
 (A) 5 metres (B) 0 metres 
 (C) 13 metres (D) 15 metres 
 
18. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the second word in that order? 
 (A) Export (B) Exposure 
 (C) Expulsion (D) Expose 
 
Directions for Questions 19 and 20: 
 
Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path are facing the centre. R is third from P in the right. Q is third from T 
in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U from the left and from right. 
 
19. Who is opposite to T? 
 (A) S (B) Q 
 (C) P (D) U 
 
20. What is the order of the six people from the right? 
 (A) SQRUTP (B) TSRQUP 
 (C) SRTUPQ (D) SQPTUR 
 
21. Shyam is older than Ram. Ram is younger than Mohan who is not olde that Shyam. Shyam is younger than Krishna. 
Who is the eldest among all?   
 (A) Mohan (B) Krishna 
 (C) Shyam (D) Ram 
 
22. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10
th
 and 16
th
 respectively, what are their placed from 
the last? 
 (A) 28
th
 and 22
nd
  (B) 27
th
 and 21
st
  
 (C) 28
th
 and 20
th
  (D) 27
th
 and 22
nd
  
 
23. How many 2’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? 
 13523545245226245267823527524 
 (A) One (B) Two 
 (C) Three (D) Four 
 
24. How many 3’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by an odd number but followed by 4? 
 1532346534783492344563443534 
 (A) None (B) Two 
 (C) Four (D) One 
 
25. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are 
removed, then how many numbers will be left? 
 (A) 24 (B) 23 
 (C) 22 (D) 25 
 
 
 
 
26. A doctor said to his nurse, “I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the 
patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1:40 p.m.” At what time this information was given to the nurse by the 
doctor?   
 (A) 10:10 (B) 11:30 
 (C) 8:50 (D) 11:20 
 
  
      
 
Directions for Question 27 to 30: 
 
If according to a certain code ‘mar tar gar zar’ means ‘Can we start immediately ‘ har zar par dar’ means ‘No you start tomorrow’ 
‘dar sar kar tar’ means ‘Can you come here’. ‘yar par mar sar’ means ‘No we stay here’. 
  
27. What is the code for ‘stay’? 
 (A) yar (B) par  
 (C) mar (D) sar 
 
28. What does ‘dar’ mean? 
 (A) No (B) Can 
 (C) You (D) Start 
 
29. What does ‘mar’ mean? 
 (A) Can (B) We 
 (C) start (D) Here 
 
30. What is the code for ‘immediately’? 
 (A) yar (B) har 
 (C) sar (D) gar 
 
Directions for Questions 31 and 32: 
 
In the figure given below, triangle represents girls, square represents sport person and circle represents coaches.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
31. Which portion of the figure represent girls who are sports-persons but not coaches? 
 (A) A (B) B 
 (C) C (D) D 
 
32. Which portion represents girls who are sports-person and coaches? 
 (A) D (B) C 
 (C) B (D) A 
 
Directions for Questions 33 and 34: 
A figure is given. A mirror is placed at one side of it. The mirror is denoted by AB. Which one of answer figure will be its  
image. 
 
33.   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (A) A (B) B 
 (C) C (D) D 
 
  
      
 
 
34.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (A) A (B) B 
 (C) C (D) D 
 
Directions for Questions 35 to 37: 
 
Study the three different positions of a dice given below and answer the questions. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
35. Which number occurs on the face opposite to 2? 
 (A) 1 (B) 4 
 (C) 5 (D) Can not be determined 
 
36. The number on the bottom face of figure (1) is 
 (A) 1 (B) 4 
 (C) 5 (D) None of these  
 
37. The number on the face opposite to 6 is: 
 (A) 1 (B) 5 
 (C) 4 (D) Can not be determined 
 
Directions for Questions 38 and 39: 
 
38.  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (A) 4 (B) 3 
 (C) 2 (D) 5 
 
 
 
39.  
 
 
 
 (A) 235 (B) 141 
 (C) 144 (D) 188 
 
40. The first term in a sequence is 1 and the second term is 5. From the third term on each term is the average (arithmetic 
mean) of all preceding terms. What is the 25
th
 term in the sequence? 
 (A) 2.5 (B) 3 
 (C) 5 (D) 2.5