Chandigarh: State Level Question Paper & Answer Key (SAT) - 2015-16 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
SCHOLASTIC APPTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
Page 2


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
SCHOLASTIC APPTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
 
      
 
1. Prokaryotes are the organisms which are characterized by 
 (A) Well defined nucleus (B) Absence of cell wall 
 (C) Absence of chlorophyll (D) Absence of nuclear envelope, nucleus and nucleoplasm 
 
2. Which of the following is not present in an animal cell? 
 (A) Ribosome (B) Plastids 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum 
 
3. These are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organism having their cell wall made up of a complex sugar called chitin 
 (A) Algae (B) Fungi 
 (C) Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms 
 
4. Development of muscle cramps during sudden activity is due to accumulation of 
 (A) Lactic acid (B) Lactose 
 (C) Lactogen (D) Lactulose 
 
5. Thyroxin regulates which of the following metabolisms in the body 
 (A) Carbohydrate metabolism (B) Protein metabolism 
 (C) Fat metabolism (D) Carbohydrate, Protein and Fat metabolism 
 
6. The gap between two neurons is called 
 (A) Axon (B) Internode  
 (C) Synapse (D) Dendrite 
 
7. Deficiency of Iodine in the body can cause 
 (A) Kwashiorkar (B) Marasmus 
 (C) Goitre (D) Rickets 
 
8. Buds produced in the margins along the leaf margins of Bryophyllum, develop into new plants when they fall on soil. This 
is a mode of: 
 (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction 
 (C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Parthenocarpy 
 
9. In plants, growth of pollen tube towards ovule, is an example of 
 (A) Chemotropism (B) Thigmotropism 
 (C) Haptotropism (D) Phototropism 
 
10. Which of the following is not a component of Xylem? 
 (A) Vessels (B) Tracheids 
 (C) Fibres (D) Sieve tubes 
 
11. An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated sugar solution. Such a solution is known as 
 (A) Hypertonic (B) Hypotonic 
 (C) Isotonic (D) Neurotonic 
 
12. Which of the following cell organelle does not possess a double layered covering?  
 (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Vacuole 
 
13. In plants, translocation of food and other substance take place through sieve tubes in 
 (A) Upward direction (B) Downward direction 
 (C) Lateral direction (D) Both upward and downward direction 
 
14. Mendel is popular for postulating 
 (A) Origin of species (B) Cell theory 
 (C) Linkage theory (D) Laws of inheritance 
 
15. Skin becomes yellow in conc. HNO 3 as 
 (A) HNO 3 acts as an oxidizing agent (B) HNO 2 acts as a dehydrating agent 
 (C) Nitro-cellulose is formed (D) The proteins are converted into xantho proteins 
 
16. When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which of the following is the best method to separate these 
liquids? 
 (A) Evaporation (B) Distillation 
 (C) chromatography (D) Filtration 
 
Page 3


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
SCHOLASTIC APPTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
 
      
 
1. Prokaryotes are the organisms which are characterized by 
 (A) Well defined nucleus (B) Absence of cell wall 
 (C) Absence of chlorophyll (D) Absence of nuclear envelope, nucleus and nucleoplasm 
 
2. Which of the following is not present in an animal cell? 
 (A) Ribosome (B) Plastids 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum 
 
3. These are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organism having their cell wall made up of a complex sugar called chitin 
 (A) Algae (B) Fungi 
 (C) Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms 
 
4. Development of muscle cramps during sudden activity is due to accumulation of 
 (A) Lactic acid (B) Lactose 
 (C) Lactogen (D) Lactulose 
 
5. Thyroxin regulates which of the following metabolisms in the body 
 (A) Carbohydrate metabolism (B) Protein metabolism 
 (C) Fat metabolism (D) Carbohydrate, Protein and Fat metabolism 
 
6. The gap between two neurons is called 
 (A) Axon (B) Internode  
 (C) Synapse (D) Dendrite 
 
7. Deficiency of Iodine in the body can cause 
 (A) Kwashiorkar (B) Marasmus 
 (C) Goitre (D) Rickets 
 
8. Buds produced in the margins along the leaf margins of Bryophyllum, develop into new plants when they fall on soil. This 
is a mode of: 
 (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction 
 (C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Parthenocarpy 
 
9. In plants, growth of pollen tube towards ovule, is an example of 
 (A) Chemotropism (B) Thigmotropism 
 (C) Haptotropism (D) Phototropism 
 
10. Which of the following is not a component of Xylem? 
 (A) Vessels (B) Tracheids 
 (C) Fibres (D) Sieve tubes 
 
11. An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated sugar solution. Such a solution is known as 
 (A) Hypertonic (B) Hypotonic 
 (C) Isotonic (D) Neurotonic 
 
12. Which of the following cell organelle does not possess a double layered covering?  
 (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Vacuole 
 
13. In plants, translocation of food and other substance take place through sieve tubes in 
 (A) Upward direction (B) Downward direction 
 (C) Lateral direction (D) Both upward and downward direction 
 
14. Mendel is popular for postulating 
 (A) Origin of species (B) Cell theory 
 (C) Linkage theory (D) Laws of inheritance 
 
15. Skin becomes yellow in conc. HNO 3 as 
 (A) HNO 3 acts as an oxidizing agent (B) HNO 2 acts as a dehydrating agent 
 (C) Nitro-cellulose is formed (D) The proteins are converted into xantho proteins 
 
16. When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which of the following is the best method to separate these 
liquids? 
 (A) Evaporation (B) Distillation 
 (C) chromatography (D) Filtration 
 
 
      
 
17. Which of the following is a chemical change? 
 (A) Melting of ice (B) Dissolving salt in water 
 (C) Rusting of iron (D) Boiling of water into steam 
 
18. Buckminsterfullerene is an example of……. of carbon 
 (A) an isomer (B) an isotope 
 (C) an allotrope (D) a functional group 
 
19. The gas used in welding and cutting metal is 
 (A) Ethyne (B) Ethene 
 (C) Ethane (D) Propene 
 
20. Which gas is released when a metal reacts with an acid? 
 (A) Cl 2 (B) O 2 
 (C) H 2 (D) SO 2 
 
21. Hydrolysis of water is which type of following reactions? 
 (A) Endothermic (B) Decomposition 
 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Combination 
 
22. When a burning splinter is brought near the gas jar containing hydrogen gas a popping sound is observed. It is due to 
 (A) exothermic (B) endothermic 
 (C) exothermic and endothermic (D) none of these 
 
23. Silver chloride turns grey when placed in sun because of the formation of which of the following when placed in sun? 
 (A) Silver metal (B) Carbon dioxide 
 (C) Silver oxide (D) Silver sulphate 
 
24. When copper sulphate solution reacts with iron metal, copper metal is formed. This reaction comes under which of the 
following category? 
 (A) Decomposition reaction (B) Single displacement reaction 
 (C) Double displacement reaction (D) Combination reaction 
 
25. When 0.01 kg of CaCO 3 is decomposed the CO 2 produced occupies a volume at S.T.P 
 (A) 2.2414 dm
3
 (B) 22.414 dm
3
 
 (C) 22414 dm
3
 (D) 224014 dm
3
 
 
26. Which of the following method is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? 
 (A) Applying grease (B) Applying paint 
 (C) Applying a coating of zinc (D) All of the above 
 
27. Aromatic compounds are given this name because of 
 (A) Slippery touch they have (B) Bitter taste they have 
 (C) Sour taste they have (D) Smelly they are 
 
28. Pick the false statement 
 (A) One can calculate uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph  
 (B) One can calculate non uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph    
 (C) One can calculate velocity from distance-time graph  
 (D) One can calculate speed from distance-time graph 
 
29. Pick the fundamental law of motion 
 (A) Newton’s first law of motion (B) Newton’s second laws of motion  
 (C) Newton’s third law of motion (D) All laws of motion 
 
30. The mass of an object is 10 Kg on earth. So we can say 
 (A) Its weight on earth is 10 N (B) Its weight on Earth is 1.67 N 
 (C) Its weight on moon is 10 N (D) Its mass on moon is 10 Kg 
 
31. Pick the correct statement 
 (A) Energy is a physical quantity and work is a mathematical quantity  
 (B) Work is a physical quantity and energy is a mathematical quantity   
 (C) Both energy and work are physical quantities  
 (D) Both energy and work are mathematical quantities   
 
32. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength 35 cm. How much distance it will travel in 2 seconds. 
 (A) 1.4 m (B) 14 m 
 (C) 140 m (D) 1400 m 
Page 4


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
SCHOLASTIC APPTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
 
      
 
1. Prokaryotes are the organisms which are characterized by 
 (A) Well defined nucleus (B) Absence of cell wall 
 (C) Absence of chlorophyll (D) Absence of nuclear envelope, nucleus and nucleoplasm 
 
2. Which of the following is not present in an animal cell? 
 (A) Ribosome (B) Plastids 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum 
 
3. These are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organism having their cell wall made up of a complex sugar called chitin 
 (A) Algae (B) Fungi 
 (C) Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms 
 
4. Development of muscle cramps during sudden activity is due to accumulation of 
 (A) Lactic acid (B) Lactose 
 (C) Lactogen (D) Lactulose 
 
5. Thyroxin regulates which of the following metabolisms in the body 
 (A) Carbohydrate metabolism (B) Protein metabolism 
 (C) Fat metabolism (D) Carbohydrate, Protein and Fat metabolism 
 
6. The gap between two neurons is called 
 (A) Axon (B) Internode  
 (C) Synapse (D) Dendrite 
 
7. Deficiency of Iodine in the body can cause 
 (A) Kwashiorkar (B) Marasmus 
 (C) Goitre (D) Rickets 
 
8. Buds produced in the margins along the leaf margins of Bryophyllum, develop into new plants when they fall on soil. This 
is a mode of: 
 (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction 
 (C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Parthenocarpy 
 
9. In plants, growth of pollen tube towards ovule, is an example of 
 (A) Chemotropism (B) Thigmotropism 
 (C) Haptotropism (D) Phototropism 
 
10. Which of the following is not a component of Xylem? 
 (A) Vessels (B) Tracheids 
 (C) Fibres (D) Sieve tubes 
 
11. An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated sugar solution. Such a solution is known as 
 (A) Hypertonic (B) Hypotonic 
 (C) Isotonic (D) Neurotonic 
 
12. Which of the following cell organelle does not possess a double layered covering?  
 (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Vacuole 
 
13. In plants, translocation of food and other substance take place through sieve tubes in 
 (A) Upward direction (B) Downward direction 
 (C) Lateral direction (D) Both upward and downward direction 
 
14. Mendel is popular for postulating 
 (A) Origin of species (B) Cell theory 
 (C) Linkage theory (D) Laws of inheritance 
 
15. Skin becomes yellow in conc. HNO 3 as 
 (A) HNO 3 acts as an oxidizing agent (B) HNO 2 acts as a dehydrating agent 
 (C) Nitro-cellulose is formed (D) The proteins are converted into xantho proteins 
 
16. When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which of the following is the best method to separate these 
liquids? 
 (A) Evaporation (B) Distillation 
 (C) chromatography (D) Filtration 
 
 
      
 
17. Which of the following is a chemical change? 
 (A) Melting of ice (B) Dissolving salt in water 
 (C) Rusting of iron (D) Boiling of water into steam 
 
18. Buckminsterfullerene is an example of……. of carbon 
 (A) an isomer (B) an isotope 
 (C) an allotrope (D) a functional group 
 
19. The gas used in welding and cutting metal is 
 (A) Ethyne (B) Ethene 
 (C) Ethane (D) Propene 
 
20. Which gas is released when a metal reacts with an acid? 
 (A) Cl 2 (B) O 2 
 (C) H 2 (D) SO 2 
 
21. Hydrolysis of water is which type of following reactions? 
 (A) Endothermic (B) Decomposition 
 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Combination 
 
22. When a burning splinter is brought near the gas jar containing hydrogen gas a popping sound is observed. It is due to 
 (A) exothermic (B) endothermic 
 (C) exothermic and endothermic (D) none of these 
 
23. Silver chloride turns grey when placed in sun because of the formation of which of the following when placed in sun? 
 (A) Silver metal (B) Carbon dioxide 
 (C) Silver oxide (D) Silver sulphate 
 
24. When copper sulphate solution reacts with iron metal, copper metal is formed. This reaction comes under which of the 
following category? 
 (A) Decomposition reaction (B) Single displacement reaction 
 (C) Double displacement reaction (D) Combination reaction 
 
25. When 0.01 kg of CaCO 3 is decomposed the CO 2 produced occupies a volume at S.T.P 
 (A) 2.2414 dm
3
 (B) 22.414 dm
3
 
 (C) 22414 dm
3
 (D) 224014 dm
3
 
 
26. Which of the following method is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? 
 (A) Applying grease (B) Applying paint 
 (C) Applying a coating of zinc (D) All of the above 
 
27. Aromatic compounds are given this name because of 
 (A) Slippery touch they have (B) Bitter taste they have 
 (C) Sour taste they have (D) Smelly they are 
 
28. Pick the false statement 
 (A) One can calculate uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph  
 (B) One can calculate non uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph    
 (C) One can calculate velocity from distance-time graph  
 (D) One can calculate speed from distance-time graph 
 
29. Pick the fundamental law of motion 
 (A) Newton’s first law of motion (B) Newton’s second laws of motion  
 (C) Newton’s third law of motion (D) All laws of motion 
 
30. The mass of an object is 10 Kg on earth. So we can say 
 (A) Its weight on earth is 10 N (B) Its weight on Earth is 1.67 N 
 (C) Its weight on moon is 10 N (D) Its mass on moon is 10 Kg 
 
31. Pick the correct statement 
 (A) Energy is a physical quantity and work is a mathematical quantity  
 (B) Work is a physical quantity and energy is a mathematical quantity   
 (C) Both energy and work are physical quantities  
 (D) Both energy and work are mathematical quantities   
 
32. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength 35 cm. How much distance it will travel in 2 seconds. 
 (A) 1.4 m (B) 14 m 
 (C) 140 m (D) 1400 m 
 
      
 
33. The vibrations are amplified several times in the middle ear to the bones known as 
 (A) Anvil (B) Stirrup 
 (C) Hammer (D) All of the above 
 
34. You are provided with a concave lens having focal length 15 cm. If it diminishes the image by one-third, calculate the 
distance of image from lens? 
 (A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm 
 (C) 5 m (D) 10 m 
 
35. At the traffic signals, red light is used for stop due to the reason that it can be seen from a distance. The phenomenon 
involved is known as 
 (A) Reflection (B) Refraction 
 (C) Dispersion (D) Scattering 
 
36. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron etc. because 
 (A) Alloys have higher resistivity than that of its constituent metals  
 (B) Alloys do not burn a higher temperatures  
 (C) Alloys do not oxidize at higher temperatures  
 (D) All of above  
 
37. Suppose five resistance, each of 10 ohm, are provided to you. You are free to get the desired value by combining them. 
The desired value will lie in between  
 (A) 2 ohm to 50 ohm (B) 20 ohm to 40 ohm 
 (C) 12 ohm to 50 ohm (D) 10 ohm to 60 ohm 
 
38. Calculate the electricity bill for 30 days of a house in which a bulb 100 W operates for 6 hours/day, a fan rated 80 W 
operates for 10 hours/day and a refrigerator rated 400 W operates for 24 hours/day. Assume the cost of energy is Rs. 
8.00 per kWh. 
 (A) Rs. 26.40 (B) Rs. 264.00 
 (C) Rs. 2640.00 (D) Rs. 26400.00 
 
39. The magnetic field inside a current carrying long straight solenoid is 
 (A) Zero (B) Uniform 
 (C) Non uniform (D) Cannot say as the data is insufficient 
 
40. Choose the medium most suitable for the core of electromagnets 
 (A) air (B) wood 
 (C) soft iron (D) steel 
 
41. Taille was 
 (A) Unit of currency in France (B) Tax comprising one tenth of the agriculture 
 (C) Tax on salt and tobacco (D) Tax to be paid directly to the state 
 
42. Who advocated the policy of abolishing Princely states in free India? 
 (A) Vallabh Bhai Patel (B) Mahatma Gandhi 
 (C) C. Rajagopalachari (D) Jwahar Lal Nehru 
 
43. Allegory is 
 (A) Painting of Germania (B) Expressing an abstract idea through a person or thing 
 (C) To portray nation as female figures (D) Attributes to liberty 
 
44. Who said ‘In my state the mother is the most important citizen’? 
 (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Charles Darwin 
 (C) Herbert  Spencer (D) Hitler 
 
45. Which of the following novels is not written by Premchand? 
 (A) Godan  (B) Rangbhoomi 
 (C) Anandmath (D) Sewasadan 
 
46. Dhangars are an important pastoral community of  
 (A) Karnatka (B) Maharashtra 
 (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Gujrat 
 
47. The great bath of the Indus valley civilization was discovered in 
 (A) Harappa (B) Lothal 
 (C) Mohanjodaro (D) Ropar 
  
 
Page 5


      
NTSE STAGE ?I (2015) 
 
CLASS–10
th
  
 
SCHOLASTIC APPTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
 
 
Time: 45 Minutes      Maximum Marks: 50 
 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
  
 
A: General : 
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point 
pen. 
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer 
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only. 
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and 
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on 
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test 
Booklet with them. 
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions. 
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the 
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
 
      
 
1. Prokaryotes are the organisms which are characterized by 
 (A) Well defined nucleus (B) Absence of cell wall 
 (C) Absence of chlorophyll (D) Absence of nuclear envelope, nucleus and nucleoplasm 
 
2. Which of the following is not present in an animal cell? 
 (A) Ribosome (B) Plastids 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum 
 
3. These are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organism having their cell wall made up of a complex sugar called chitin 
 (A) Algae (B) Fungi 
 (C) Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms 
 
4. Development of muscle cramps during sudden activity is due to accumulation of 
 (A) Lactic acid (B) Lactose 
 (C) Lactogen (D) Lactulose 
 
5. Thyroxin regulates which of the following metabolisms in the body 
 (A) Carbohydrate metabolism (B) Protein metabolism 
 (C) Fat metabolism (D) Carbohydrate, Protein and Fat metabolism 
 
6. The gap between two neurons is called 
 (A) Axon (B) Internode  
 (C) Synapse (D) Dendrite 
 
7. Deficiency of Iodine in the body can cause 
 (A) Kwashiorkar (B) Marasmus 
 (C) Goitre (D) Rickets 
 
8. Buds produced in the margins along the leaf margins of Bryophyllum, develop into new plants when they fall on soil. This 
is a mode of: 
 (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction 
 (C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Parthenocarpy 
 
9. In plants, growth of pollen tube towards ovule, is an example of 
 (A) Chemotropism (B) Thigmotropism 
 (C) Haptotropism (D) Phototropism 
 
10. Which of the following is not a component of Xylem? 
 (A) Vessels (B) Tracheids 
 (C) Fibres (D) Sieve tubes 
 
11. An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated sugar solution. Such a solution is known as 
 (A) Hypertonic (B) Hypotonic 
 (C) Isotonic (D) Neurotonic 
 
12. Which of the following cell organelle does not possess a double layered covering?  
 (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus 
 (C) Mitochondria (D) Vacuole 
 
13. In plants, translocation of food and other substance take place through sieve tubes in 
 (A) Upward direction (B) Downward direction 
 (C) Lateral direction (D) Both upward and downward direction 
 
14. Mendel is popular for postulating 
 (A) Origin of species (B) Cell theory 
 (C) Linkage theory (D) Laws of inheritance 
 
15. Skin becomes yellow in conc. HNO 3 as 
 (A) HNO 3 acts as an oxidizing agent (B) HNO 2 acts as a dehydrating agent 
 (C) Nitro-cellulose is formed (D) The proteins are converted into xantho proteins 
 
16. When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which of the following is the best method to separate these 
liquids? 
 (A) Evaporation (B) Distillation 
 (C) chromatography (D) Filtration 
 
 
      
 
17. Which of the following is a chemical change? 
 (A) Melting of ice (B) Dissolving salt in water 
 (C) Rusting of iron (D) Boiling of water into steam 
 
18. Buckminsterfullerene is an example of……. of carbon 
 (A) an isomer (B) an isotope 
 (C) an allotrope (D) a functional group 
 
19. The gas used in welding and cutting metal is 
 (A) Ethyne (B) Ethene 
 (C) Ethane (D) Propene 
 
20. Which gas is released when a metal reacts with an acid? 
 (A) Cl 2 (B) O 2 
 (C) H 2 (D) SO 2 
 
21. Hydrolysis of water is which type of following reactions? 
 (A) Endothermic (B) Decomposition 
 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Combination 
 
22. When a burning splinter is brought near the gas jar containing hydrogen gas a popping sound is observed. It is due to 
 (A) exothermic (B) endothermic 
 (C) exothermic and endothermic (D) none of these 
 
23. Silver chloride turns grey when placed in sun because of the formation of which of the following when placed in sun? 
 (A) Silver metal (B) Carbon dioxide 
 (C) Silver oxide (D) Silver sulphate 
 
24. When copper sulphate solution reacts with iron metal, copper metal is formed. This reaction comes under which of the 
following category? 
 (A) Decomposition reaction (B) Single displacement reaction 
 (C) Double displacement reaction (D) Combination reaction 
 
25. When 0.01 kg of CaCO 3 is decomposed the CO 2 produced occupies a volume at S.T.P 
 (A) 2.2414 dm
3
 (B) 22.414 dm
3
 
 (C) 22414 dm
3
 (D) 224014 dm
3
 
 
26. Which of the following method is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? 
 (A) Applying grease (B) Applying paint 
 (C) Applying a coating of zinc (D) All of the above 
 
27. Aromatic compounds are given this name because of 
 (A) Slippery touch they have (B) Bitter taste they have 
 (C) Sour taste they have (D) Smelly they are 
 
28. Pick the false statement 
 (A) One can calculate uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph  
 (B) One can calculate non uniform acceleration from velocity-time graph    
 (C) One can calculate velocity from distance-time graph  
 (D) One can calculate speed from distance-time graph 
 
29. Pick the fundamental law of motion 
 (A) Newton’s first law of motion (B) Newton’s second laws of motion  
 (C) Newton’s third law of motion (D) All laws of motion 
 
30. The mass of an object is 10 Kg on earth. So we can say 
 (A) Its weight on earth is 10 N (B) Its weight on Earth is 1.67 N 
 (C) Its weight on moon is 10 N (D) Its mass on moon is 10 Kg 
 
31. Pick the correct statement 
 (A) Energy is a physical quantity and work is a mathematical quantity  
 (B) Work is a physical quantity and energy is a mathematical quantity   
 (C) Both energy and work are physical quantities  
 (D) Both energy and work are mathematical quantities   
 
32. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength 35 cm. How much distance it will travel in 2 seconds. 
 (A) 1.4 m (B) 14 m 
 (C) 140 m (D) 1400 m 
 
      
 
33. The vibrations are amplified several times in the middle ear to the bones known as 
 (A) Anvil (B) Stirrup 
 (C) Hammer (D) All of the above 
 
34. You are provided with a concave lens having focal length 15 cm. If it diminishes the image by one-third, calculate the 
distance of image from lens? 
 (A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm 
 (C) 5 m (D) 10 m 
 
35. At the traffic signals, red light is used for stop due to the reason that it can be seen from a distance. The phenomenon 
involved is known as 
 (A) Reflection (B) Refraction 
 (C) Dispersion (D) Scattering 
 
36. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron etc. because 
 (A) Alloys have higher resistivity than that of its constituent metals  
 (B) Alloys do not burn a higher temperatures  
 (C) Alloys do not oxidize at higher temperatures  
 (D) All of above  
 
37. Suppose five resistance, each of 10 ohm, are provided to you. You are free to get the desired value by combining them. 
The desired value will lie in between  
 (A) 2 ohm to 50 ohm (B) 20 ohm to 40 ohm 
 (C) 12 ohm to 50 ohm (D) 10 ohm to 60 ohm 
 
38. Calculate the electricity bill for 30 days of a house in which a bulb 100 W operates for 6 hours/day, a fan rated 80 W 
operates for 10 hours/day and a refrigerator rated 400 W operates for 24 hours/day. Assume the cost of energy is Rs. 
8.00 per kWh. 
 (A) Rs. 26.40 (B) Rs. 264.00 
 (C) Rs. 2640.00 (D) Rs. 26400.00 
 
39. The magnetic field inside a current carrying long straight solenoid is 
 (A) Zero (B) Uniform 
 (C) Non uniform (D) Cannot say as the data is insufficient 
 
40. Choose the medium most suitable for the core of electromagnets 
 (A) air (B) wood 
 (C) soft iron (D) steel 
 
41. Taille was 
 (A) Unit of currency in France (B) Tax comprising one tenth of the agriculture 
 (C) Tax on salt and tobacco (D) Tax to be paid directly to the state 
 
42. Who advocated the policy of abolishing Princely states in free India? 
 (A) Vallabh Bhai Patel (B) Mahatma Gandhi 
 (C) C. Rajagopalachari (D) Jwahar Lal Nehru 
 
43. Allegory is 
 (A) Painting of Germania (B) Expressing an abstract idea through a person or thing 
 (C) To portray nation as female figures (D) Attributes to liberty 
 
44. Who said ‘In my state the mother is the most important citizen’? 
 (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Charles Darwin 
 (C) Herbert  Spencer (D) Hitler 
 
45. Which of the following novels is not written by Premchand? 
 (A) Godan  (B) Rangbhoomi 
 (C) Anandmath (D) Sewasadan 
 
46. Dhangars are an important pastoral community of  
 (A) Karnatka (B) Maharashtra 
 (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Gujrat 
 
47. The great bath of the Indus valley civilization was discovered in 
 (A) Harappa (B) Lothal 
 (C) Mohanjodaro (D) Ropar 
  
 
 
      
 
48. Choose the correct chronological order for the following 
 (i) Jallianwala massacre (ii) Rowalt Act 
 (iii) Poona Pact (iv) Lucknow Pact 
 
 (A) a, c, b, d (B) b, a, d, c 
 (C) c, b, a, d (D) d, b, a, c 
  
49. Under the inland Emigration Act of 1859 
 (A) Plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission   
 (B) British government banned the entry of workers in the forests  
 (C) Workers were brought to work after signing an agreement  
 (D) Workers left the plantations and headed home  
 
50. New International Economic Order (NIEO) means a system that would give G ?77 countries 
 (A) Real control over their natural resources  
 (B) Fairer prices for raw materials  
 (C) Better access for their manufactured goods in developed countries  
 (D) All of the above 
 
51. Read the following statements and select the correct option thereafter 
 
 Statement ?1 
 
 Among its sporting ancestors hockey can count the Scottish game called shinty, the English and Welsh game called 
bandy and Irish hurling. 
 
 Statement ?2  
 
 Hockey like many other modern games was invented by the colonial officials in India and soon gained popularity. 
 
 (A) Statement-1 is wrong, Statement-2 is true (B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is wrong  
 (C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true (D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are wrong  
 
52. In about the 1660’s the farmers in many parts of England began growing turnip and clover because 
 (A) The spread of railways made it easy to transport the crops to the eastern coast for export  
 (B) These crops had the capacity to increase the nitrogen content of the soil  
 (C) The farmers earned huge profits by selling these crops  
 (D) None of the above  
 
53. ‘Vande Matram’ was written by 
 (A) Muhammad Iqbal (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 
 (C) Rabindra Nath Tagore (D) Abanindranath Tagore 
 
54. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option, given therarter. 
 During colonial rule Indian Peasants were unwilling to grow opium because  
 (i) The crop had to be grown on the best lands  
 (ii) The cultivation of opium was a difficult process  
 (iii) The price paid by government to the cultivators for the opium they produced was very low  
 (iv) The crop had no demand in the market.  
 (A) a, b, d (B) b, c, d 
 (C) a, b, c (D) a, c, d 
 
55. Napalm refers to 
 (A) A defoliant, a plant killer  
 (B) An organic compound used to thicken gasoline for firebombs 
 (C) Phosphorous bomb  
 (D) None of the above   
 
56. The layer of atmosphere that provided ideal condition for flying of jet aeroplane is 
 (A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere 
 (C) Ionosphere (D) Exosphere 
 
57. Maldives islands are situated to the……… of Lakashdweep Islands. 
 (A) South (B) North 
 (C) East (D) West