Class 10 NTSE Delhi - Question Papers MAT 2015-16

 Page 1


 
     
 
 
 
            
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
(QUESTION No. 101 – 200) 
 
SAT 
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the questions booklet. 
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking. 
2. This test booklet contains 100 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory. 
3. Answer each questions by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the 
OMR SHEET with black/blue ball point pen. 
        
 
Q.No. Alternatives 
Q.No. Alternatives 
1 1 2  4 
1 1 2 3 4 
? 
Example : 
Correct way : 
Wrong way : 
  
 Student must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR sheet. 
4. Students must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on the OMR sheet. 
5. Students can not scratch/alter/change out an incorrect answer once marked on OMR sheet, by 
using white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form. 
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet. 
7. * Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination hall. 
 * Take all your question booklets with you. 
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR sheet in the time limit allotted for that 
particular paper. 
9. Your OMR sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and 
incorrect entries may render your OMR sheet invalid. 
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc. is strictly prohibited. 
 
  
Page 2


 
     
 
 
 
            
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
(QUESTION No. 101 – 200) 
 
SAT 
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the questions booklet. 
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking. 
2. This test booklet contains 100 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory. 
3. Answer each questions by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the 
OMR SHEET with black/blue ball point pen. 
        
 
Q.No. Alternatives 
Q.No. Alternatives 
1 1 2  4 
1 1 2 3 4 
? 
Example : 
Correct way : 
Wrong way : 
  
 Student must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR sheet. 
4. Students must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on the OMR sheet. 
5. Students can not scratch/alter/change out an incorrect answer once marked on OMR sheet, by 
using white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form. 
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet. 
7. * Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination hall. 
 * Take all your question booklets with you. 
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR sheet in the time limit allotted for that 
particular paper. 
9. Your OMR sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and 
incorrect entries may render your OMR sheet invalid. 
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc. is strictly prohibited. 
 
  
 
     
 
 
 
Physics 
 
101. A body starts from rest at t=0, the acceleration time 
graph is shown. The distance travelled by the body 
from t=4s to t=8s will be 
 1. 0m 
 2. 16m 
 3. 32m 
 4. 64m 
 
4 8 
12 t(sec) 
O 
–4 
+4 
a 
 
  
 
102. Which of the following situation is not possible: 
 1. An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in perpendicular direction.  
 2. An object moving with constant acceleration but zero velocity. 
 3. An object moving with variable speed and uniform velocity. 
 4. None of the above  
 
103. A large truck and a car are moving with same velocity have a head on collision. Which of the 
following is an INCORRECT statement? 
 1. Both vehicles experience equal force of impact. 
 2. The car will experience greater force of impact. 
 3. The truck will experience lesser acceleration. 
 4. The car will experience greater acceleration. 
 
104. A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower after 6s. The ball is 5m below the 
highest point at t=2s. The time at which the body will be at same position, (take g=10 m/s
2
) 
 1. 2.5s 2. 3s 3. 4s 4. 5s 
 
105. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance 
covered in first 10s is S
1
 and that covered in first 20s is S
2
 then 
 1. S
2
=S
1
 2. S
2
=2S
1
 3. S
2
=3S
1
 4. S
2
=4S
1
 
 
106. The volume of a substance is 20 cm
3
. The mass of the substances if its relative density is 
2.5 will be 
 1. 5g 2. 50g 3. 500g 4. 5 kg 
 
107. Sound travels fastest in 
 1. Aluminium 2. Water 3. Hydrogen 4. Oxygen 
 
108. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo. The minimum distance of the 
cliff from the person if the speed of sound is taken as 346 m/s is 
 1. 17.1m 2. 17.2m 3. 17.3m 4. 34.6m 
 
109. A car with K.E. 100J is moving on a horizontal road. Now 200J work is done on the car. The 
change in K.E. is 
 1. Zero 2. 100J 3. 200J 4. 300J 
 
110. Two lamps ‘A’ rated 100 Watt 220V and ‘B’ rated 60 Watt 220 are connected in series to 
electric main supply of 220V. The ratio of heat produced in lamp ‘A’ to the lamp ‘B’ would be 
 1. 3 : 5 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 5 4. 5 : 4 
 
111. A particle is moving towards east enters in a magnetic field directed towards north and 
deflected in vertically downward direction. The charged particle is 
 1. an electron 2. a proton 3. an alpha particle 4. a neutron 
 
Page 3


 
     
 
 
 
            
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
(QUESTION No. 101 – 200) 
 
SAT 
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the questions booklet. 
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking. 
2. This test booklet contains 100 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory. 
3. Answer each questions by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the 
OMR SHEET with black/blue ball point pen. 
        
 
Q.No. Alternatives 
Q.No. Alternatives 
1 1 2  4 
1 1 2 3 4 
? 
Example : 
Correct way : 
Wrong way : 
  
 Student must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR sheet. 
4. Students must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on the OMR sheet. 
5. Students can not scratch/alter/change out an incorrect answer once marked on OMR sheet, by 
using white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form. 
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet. 
7. * Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination hall. 
 * Take all your question booklets with you. 
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR sheet in the time limit allotted for that 
particular paper. 
9. Your OMR sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and 
incorrect entries may render your OMR sheet invalid. 
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc. is strictly prohibited. 
 
  
 
     
 
 
 
Physics 
 
101. A body starts from rest at t=0, the acceleration time 
graph is shown. The distance travelled by the body 
from t=4s to t=8s will be 
 1. 0m 
 2. 16m 
 3. 32m 
 4. 64m 
 
4 8 
12 t(sec) 
O 
–4 
+4 
a 
 
  
 
102. Which of the following situation is not possible: 
 1. An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in perpendicular direction.  
 2. An object moving with constant acceleration but zero velocity. 
 3. An object moving with variable speed and uniform velocity. 
 4. None of the above  
 
103. A large truck and a car are moving with same velocity have a head on collision. Which of the 
following is an INCORRECT statement? 
 1. Both vehicles experience equal force of impact. 
 2. The car will experience greater force of impact. 
 3. The truck will experience lesser acceleration. 
 4. The car will experience greater acceleration. 
 
104. A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower after 6s. The ball is 5m below the 
highest point at t=2s. The time at which the body will be at same position, (take g=10 m/s
2
) 
 1. 2.5s 2. 3s 3. 4s 4. 5s 
 
105. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance 
covered in first 10s is S
1
 and that covered in first 20s is S
2
 then 
 1. S
2
=S
1
 2. S
2
=2S
1
 3. S
2
=3S
1
 4. S
2
=4S
1
 
 
106. The volume of a substance is 20 cm
3
. The mass of the substances if its relative density is 
2.5 will be 
 1. 5g 2. 50g 3. 500g 4. 5 kg 
 
107. Sound travels fastest in 
 1. Aluminium 2. Water 3. Hydrogen 4. Oxygen 
 
108. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo. The minimum distance of the 
cliff from the person if the speed of sound is taken as 346 m/s is 
 1. 17.1m 2. 17.2m 3. 17.3m 4. 34.6m 
 
109. A car with K.E. 100J is moving on a horizontal road. Now 200J work is done on the car. The 
change in K.E. is 
 1. Zero 2. 100J 3. 200J 4. 300J 
 
110. Two lamps ‘A’ rated 100 Watt 220V and ‘B’ rated 60 Watt 220 are connected in series to 
electric main supply of 220V. The ratio of heat produced in lamp ‘A’ to the lamp ‘B’ would be 
 1. 3 : 5 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 5 4. 5 : 4 
 
111. A particle is moving towards east enters in a magnetic field directed towards north and 
deflected in vertically downward direction. The charged particle is 
 1. an electron 2. a proton 3. an alpha particle 4. a neutron 
 
 
     
 
 
112. The resistance of a conductor depends- 
 1. Only on potential difference across the ends of the conductor. 
 2. Only on current flowing through the conductor. 
 3. On both (1) and (2) 
 4. Neither on (1) nor on (2) 
 
113. An ammeter has 10 divisions between mark 0 and mark 2 on its scale. Which of the 
following reading the ammeter cannot read 
 1. 0.2A 2. 1.0A 3. 1.8A 4. 1.9A 
 
114. A mirror which can produce a magnification of +1 is 
 1. Convex mirror   2. Concave mirror  
 3. Plane mirror    4. Both concave mirror & plane mirror. 
 
115.  When a clear aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolyzed with dil sulphuric acid 
to make a thicker protective and attractive oxide layer around it, then the process is called 
 1. Galvanisation    2. Anodising  
 3. Leaching    4. Thermite process  
 
116. A white coloured compound ‘XY’ is used in photochromic lenses. Choose the incorrect 
statement from the following: 
 1. The compound ‘XY’ decomposes into a metal and a non-metal on exposure to sunlight  
 2. The compound ‘XY’ is completely soluble in aq. ammonia solution  
 3. The metal part of ‘XY’ is grey coloured in elemental form  
 4. The non-metal part of ‘XY’ is violet coloured in elemental form  
 
117. ‘Milk of magnesia’ is often used as  
 1. Indicator    2. Synthetic milk   
 3. Source of magnesium   4. Antacid  
 
118. Which of the following statement is incorrect statement about the trends when going from left 
to right across the periods of modern periodic table? 
 1. The number of valence electrons increases   
 2. The atoms lose their electrons more easily   
 3. The oxides become more acidic  
 4. The elements become less metallic in nature  
 
119. Match the items of column I with the items of column II  
 Column – I (Polymers)  Column – II  
a) aq. NaCl solution i) Acidic  
b) aq. Na
2
CO
3
 solution ii) Basic  
c) aq. NH
4
Cl solution iii) Neutral  
d) aq. CaO solution iv) Amphoteric  
 
1. (c)i (d)iii (b)ii (a)i
2. (d)i (b)iv (a)iii (c)iv
3. (a)iii (b)ii (c)i (d)iii
4. (b)ii (a)iiii (d)ii (c)i
 
 
120. The total number of electrons present in 16 g of methane gas is  
 1. 96.352 ?10
23
 2. 48.176 ?10
23
 3. 60.22 ?10
23
 4. 30.110 ?10
23
 
 
121. Identify the correct oxidant and reductant in the following reaction: 
 PbS + 4H
2
O
2
 ?? ? PbSO
4
 + 4H
2
O 
Page 4


 
     
 
 
 
            
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
(QUESTION No. 101 – 200) 
 
SAT 
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the questions booklet. 
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking. 
2. This test booklet contains 100 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory. 
3. Answer each questions by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the 
OMR SHEET with black/blue ball point pen. 
        
 
Q.No. Alternatives 
Q.No. Alternatives 
1 1 2  4 
1 1 2 3 4 
? 
Example : 
Correct way : 
Wrong way : 
  
 Student must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR sheet. 
4. Students must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on the OMR sheet. 
5. Students can not scratch/alter/change out an incorrect answer once marked on OMR sheet, by 
using white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form. 
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet. 
7. * Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination hall. 
 * Take all your question booklets with you. 
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR sheet in the time limit allotted for that 
particular paper. 
9. Your OMR sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and 
incorrect entries may render your OMR sheet invalid. 
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc. is strictly prohibited. 
 
  
 
     
 
 
 
Physics 
 
101. A body starts from rest at t=0, the acceleration time 
graph is shown. The distance travelled by the body 
from t=4s to t=8s will be 
 1. 0m 
 2. 16m 
 3. 32m 
 4. 64m 
 
4 8 
12 t(sec) 
O 
–4 
+4 
a 
 
  
 
102. Which of the following situation is not possible: 
 1. An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in perpendicular direction.  
 2. An object moving with constant acceleration but zero velocity. 
 3. An object moving with variable speed and uniform velocity. 
 4. None of the above  
 
103. A large truck and a car are moving with same velocity have a head on collision. Which of the 
following is an INCORRECT statement? 
 1. Both vehicles experience equal force of impact. 
 2. The car will experience greater force of impact. 
 3. The truck will experience lesser acceleration. 
 4. The car will experience greater acceleration. 
 
104. A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower after 6s. The ball is 5m below the 
highest point at t=2s. The time at which the body will be at same position, (take g=10 m/s
2
) 
 1. 2.5s 2. 3s 3. 4s 4. 5s 
 
105. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance 
covered in first 10s is S
1
 and that covered in first 20s is S
2
 then 
 1. S
2
=S
1
 2. S
2
=2S
1
 3. S
2
=3S
1
 4. S
2
=4S
1
 
 
106. The volume of a substance is 20 cm
3
. The mass of the substances if its relative density is 
2.5 will be 
 1. 5g 2. 50g 3. 500g 4. 5 kg 
 
107. Sound travels fastest in 
 1. Aluminium 2. Water 3. Hydrogen 4. Oxygen 
 
108. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo. The minimum distance of the 
cliff from the person if the speed of sound is taken as 346 m/s is 
 1. 17.1m 2. 17.2m 3. 17.3m 4. 34.6m 
 
109. A car with K.E. 100J is moving on a horizontal road. Now 200J work is done on the car. The 
change in K.E. is 
 1. Zero 2. 100J 3. 200J 4. 300J 
 
110. Two lamps ‘A’ rated 100 Watt 220V and ‘B’ rated 60 Watt 220 are connected in series to 
electric main supply of 220V. The ratio of heat produced in lamp ‘A’ to the lamp ‘B’ would be 
 1. 3 : 5 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 5 4. 5 : 4 
 
111. A particle is moving towards east enters in a magnetic field directed towards north and 
deflected in vertically downward direction. The charged particle is 
 1. an electron 2. a proton 3. an alpha particle 4. a neutron 
 
 
     
 
 
112. The resistance of a conductor depends- 
 1. Only on potential difference across the ends of the conductor. 
 2. Only on current flowing through the conductor. 
 3. On both (1) and (2) 
 4. Neither on (1) nor on (2) 
 
113. An ammeter has 10 divisions between mark 0 and mark 2 on its scale. Which of the 
following reading the ammeter cannot read 
 1. 0.2A 2. 1.0A 3. 1.8A 4. 1.9A 
 
114. A mirror which can produce a magnification of +1 is 
 1. Convex mirror   2. Concave mirror  
 3. Plane mirror    4. Both concave mirror & plane mirror. 
 
115.  When a clear aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolyzed with dil sulphuric acid 
to make a thicker protective and attractive oxide layer around it, then the process is called 
 1. Galvanisation    2. Anodising  
 3. Leaching    4. Thermite process  
 
116. A white coloured compound ‘XY’ is used in photochromic lenses. Choose the incorrect 
statement from the following: 
 1. The compound ‘XY’ decomposes into a metal and a non-metal on exposure to sunlight  
 2. The compound ‘XY’ is completely soluble in aq. ammonia solution  
 3. The metal part of ‘XY’ is grey coloured in elemental form  
 4. The non-metal part of ‘XY’ is violet coloured in elemental form  
 
117. ‘Milk of magnesia’ is often used as  
 1. Indicator    2. Synthetic milk   
 3. Source of magnesium   4. Antacid  
 
118. Which of the following statement is incorrect statement about the trends when going from left 
to right across the periods of modern periodic table? 
 1. The number of valence electrons increases   
 2. The atoms lose their electrons more easily   
 3. The oxides become more acidic  
 4. The elements become less metallic in nature  
 
119. Match the items of column I with the items of column II  
 Column – I (Polymers)  Column – II  
a) aq. NaCl solution i) Acidic  
b) aq. Na
2
CO
3
 solution ii) Basic  
c) aq. NH
4
Cl solution iii) Neutral  
d) aq. CaO solution iv) Amphoteric  
 
1. (c)i (d)iii (b)ii (a)i
2. (d)i (b)iv (a)iii (c)iv
3. (a)iii (b)ii (c)i (d)iii
4. (b)ii (a)iiii (d)ii (c)i
 
 
120. The total number of electrons present in 16 g of methane gas is  
 1. 96.352 ?10
23
 2. 48.176 ?10
23
 3. 60.22 ?10
23
 4. 30.110 ?10
23
 
 
121. Identify the correct oxidant and reductant in the following reaction: 
 PbS + 4H
2
O
2
 ?? ? PbSO
4
 + 4H
2
O 
 
     
 
 
 
22
1. PbS Oxidant
H O Reduc tant
?
?
   
4
2. PbS Reduc tant
PbSO Oxidant
?
?
 
 
22
3. PbS Reduc tant
H O Oxidant
?
?
   
22
2
4. H O Oxidant
H O Reduc tant
?
?
 
 
122. The pH of pure water at 25 ?C is 7. If water is heated to boil, then  
 1. pH will decrease and water will become acidic   
 2. pH will increase and water will become basic  
 3. pH will decrease but water will remain neutral  
 4. pH will remain 7  
 
123. The correct order of acidic strength of the following oxides is: 
 1. CaO<Na
2
O<CO
2
<ZnO  2. Na
2
O<CaO<ZnO<CO
2
 
 3. ZnO<CO
2
<CaO<Na
2
O  4. CO
2
<ZnO<Na
2
O<CaO 
 
124. Consider the chemical formulae CH
3
COOH and HCOOCH
3
 and choose the incorrect 
statement: 
 1. Both have the equal boiling point   
 2. Both have the equal molecular weight  
 3. Both have the equal number of covalent bonds   
 4. Both are not the same compound  
 
125. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element ‘X’ is 16.2u. What are the percentage of 
isotopes 
16 18
88
X and X in the sample? 
 1. 
16 18
88
X 80%, X 20% ?? 2. 
16 18
88
X 60%, X 40% ?? 
 3. 
16 18
88
X 90%, X 10% ?? 4. 
16 18
88
X 45%, X 55% ?? 
 
126. The path of light gets illuminated when passed through the solution: 
 1. Blood solution(aq)   2. Brine solution (aq) 
 3. Copper sulphate solution(aq) 4. Acetic acid solution(aq) 
 
127. If 10
21
 molecules of CO
2
 are removed from 200 mg of CO
2
 sample, then the number of moles 
of CO
2
 left are 
 1. 2.88 ?10
?3
 2. 4.54 ?10
?3
 3. 1.66 ?10
?3
 4. 1.66 ?10
?2
 
 
128. If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then the event in the stomach will be affected: 
 1. Digestion of starch into sugars 2. Proteins break down into peptides  
 3. Breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids 4. Digestion of nucleic acids  
 
129. The lipids and proteins essential for the formation of cell membrane are synthesized in  
 1. Golgi bodies   2. Mitochondria   
 3. Endoplasmic reticulum   4. Lysosomes  
 
130. The part of brain which controls the balance and posture of the body is  
 1. Cerebellum 2. Cerebrum  3. Pons 4. Medulla  
 
131. Uric acid is the main excretory product of: 
 A) Insects B) Birds   
 C) Terrestrial reptiles D) Human being    
 1. A, B and C are correct   2. A and B are only correct  
 3. Only B and D are correct   4. Only A and C are correct  
 
Page 5


 
     
 
 
 
            
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) 
(QUESTION No. 101 – 200) 
 
SAT 
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the questions booklet. 
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking. 
2. This test booklet contains 100 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory. 
3. Answer each questions by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the 
OMR SHEET with black/blue ball point pen. 
        
 
Q.No. Alternatives 
Q.No. Alternatives 
1 1 2  4 
1 1 2 3 4 
? 
Example : 
Correct way : 
Wrong way : 
  
 Student must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR sheet. 
4. Students must darken the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on the OMR sheet. 
5. Students can not scratch/alter/change out an incorrect answer once marked on OMR sheet, by 
using white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form. 
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet. 
7. * Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination hall. 
 * Take all your question booklets with you. 
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR sheet in the time limit allotted for that 
particular paper. 
9. Your OMR sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and 
incorrect entries may render your OMR sheet invalid. 
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc. is strictly prohibited. 
 
  
 
     
 
 
 
Physics 
 
101. A body starts from rest at t=0, the acceleration time 
graph is shown. The distance travelled by the body 
from t=4s to t=8s will be 
 1. 0m 
 2. 16m 
 3. 32m 
 4. 64m 
 
4 8 
12 t(sec) 
O 
–4 
+4 
a 
 
  
 
102. Which of the following situation is not possible: 
 1. An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in perpendicular direction.  
 2. An object moving with constant acceleration but zero velocity. 
 3. An object moving with variable speed and uniform velocity. 
 4. None of the above  
 
103. A large truck and a car are moving with same velocity have a head on collision. Which of the 
following is an INCORRECT statement? 
 1. Both vehicles experience equal force of impact. 
 2. The car will experience greater force of impact. 
 3. The truck will experience lesser acceleration. 
 4. The car will experience greater acceleration. 
 
104. A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower after 6s. The ball is 5m below the 
highest point at t=2s. The time at which the body will be at same position, (take g=10 m/s
2
) 
 1. 2.5s 2. 3s 3. 4s 4. 5s 
 
105. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance 
covered in first 10s is S
1
 and that covered in first 20s is S
2
 then 
 1. S
2
=S
1
 2. S
2
=2S
1
 3. S
2
=3S
1
 4. S
2
=4S
1
 
 
106. The volume of a substance is 20 cm
3
. The mass of the substances if its relative density is 
2.5 will be 
 1. 5g 2. 50g 3. 500g 4. 5 kg 
 
107. Sound travels fastest in 
 1. Aluminium 2. Water 3. Hydrogen 4. Oxygen 
 
108. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo. The minimum distance of the 
cliff from the person if the speed of sound is taken as 346 m/s is 
 1. 17.1m 2. 17.2m 3. 17.3m 4. 34.6m 
 
109. A car with K.E. 100J is moving on a horizontal road. Now 200J work is done on the car. The 
change in K.E. is 
 1. Zero 2. 100J 3. 200J 4. 300J 
 
110. Two lamps ‘A’ rated 100 Watt 220V and ‘B’ rated 60 Watt 220 are connected in series to 
electric main supply of 220V. The ratio of heat produced in lamp ‘A’ to the lamp ‘B’ would be 
 1. 3 : 5 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 5 4. 5 : 4 
 
111. A particle is moving towards east enters in a magnetic field directed towards north and 
deflected in vertically downward direction. The charged particle is 
 1. an electron 2. a proton 3. an alpha particle 4. a neutron 
 
 
     
 
 
112. The resistance of a conductor depends- 
 1. Only on potential difference across the ends of the conductor. 
 2. Only on current flowing through the conductor. 
 3. On both (1) and (2) 
 4. Neither on (1) nor on (2) 
 
113. An ammeter has 10 divisions between mark 0 and mark 2 on its scale. Which of the 
following reading the ammeter cannot read 
 1. 0.2A 2. 1.0A 3. 1.8A 4. 1.9A 
 
114. A mirror which can produce a magnification of +1 is 
 1. Convex mirror   2. Concave mirror  
 3. Plane mirror    4. Both concave mirror & plane mirror. 
 
115.  When a clear aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolyzed with dil sulphuric acid 
to make a thicker protective and attractive oxide layer around it, then the process is called 
 1. Galvanisation    2. Anodising  
 3. Leaching    4. Thermite process  
 
116. A white coloured compound ‘XY’ is used in photochromic lenses. Choose the incorrect 
statement from the following: 
 1. The compound ‘XY’ decomposes into a metal and a non-metal on exposure to sunlight  
 2. The compound ‘XY’ is completely soluble in aq. ammonia solution  
 3. The metal part of ‘XY’ is grey coloured in elemental form  
 4. The non-metal part of ‘XY’ is violet coloured in elemental form  
 
117. ‘Milk of magnesia’ is often used as  
 1. Indicator    2. Synthetic milk   
 3. Source of magnesium   4. Antacid  
 
118. Which of the following statement is incorrect statement about the trends when going from left 
to right across the periods of modern periodic table? 
 1. The number of valence electrons increases   
 2. The atoms lose their electrons more easily   
 3. The oxides become more acidic  
 4. The elements become less metallic in nature  
 
119. Match the items of column I with the items of column II  
 Column – I (Polymers)  Column – II  
a) aq. NaCl solution i) Acidic  
b) aq. Na
2
CO
3
 solution ii) Basic  
c) aq. NH
4
Cl solution iii) Neutral  
d) aq. CaO solution iv) Amphoteric  
 
1. (c)i (d)iii (b)ii (a)i
2. (d)i (b)iv (a)iii (c)iv
3. (a)iii (b)ii (c)i (d)iii
4. (b)ii (a)iiii (d)ii (c)i
 
 
120. The total number of electrons present in 16 g of methane gas is  
 1. 96.352 ?10
23
 2. 48.176 ?10
23
 3. 60.22 ?10
23
 4. 30.110 ?10
23
 
 
121. Identify the correct oxidant and reductant in the following reaction: 
 PbS + 4H
2
O
2
 ?? ? PbSO
4
 + 4H
2
O 
 
     
 
 
 
22
1. PbS Oxidant
H O Reduc tant
?
?
   
4
2. PbS Reduc tant
PbSO Oxidant
?
?
 
 
22
3. PbS Reduc tant
H O Oxidant
?
?
   
22
2
4. H O Oxidant
H O Reduc tant
?
?
 
 
122. The pH of pure water at 25 ?C is 7. If water is heated to boil, then  
 1. pH will decrease and water will become acidic   
 2. pH will increase and water will become basic  
 3. pH will decrease but water will remain neutral  
 4. pH will remain 7  
 
123. The correct order of acidic strength of the following oxides is: 
 1. CaO<Na
2
O<CO
2
<ZnO  2. Na
2
O<CaO<ZnO<CO
2
 
 3. ZnO<CO
2
<CaO<Na
2
O  4. CO
2
<ZnO<Na
2
O<CaO 
 
124. Consider the chemical formulae CH
3
COOH and HCOOCH
3
 and choose the incorrect 
statement: 
 1. Both have the equal boiling point   
 2. Both have the equal molecular weight  
 3. Both have the equal number of covalent bonds   
 4. Both are not the same compound  
 
125. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element ‘X’ is 16.2u. What are the percentage of 
isotopes 
16 18
88
X and X in the sample? 
 1. 
16 18
88
X 80%, X 20% ?? 2. 
16 18
88
X 60%, X 40% ?? 
 3. 
16 18
88
X 90%, X 10% ?? 4. 
16 18
88
X 45%, X 55% ?? 
 
126. The path of light gets illuminated when passed through the solution: 
 1. Blood solution(aq)   2. Brine solution (aq) 
 3. Copper sulphate solution(aq) 4. Acetic acid solution(aq) 
 
127. If 10
21
 molecules of CO
2
 are removed from 200 mg of CO
2
 sample, then the number of moles 
of CO
2
 left are 
 1. 2.88 ?10
?3
 2. 4.54 ?10
?3
 3. 1.66 ?10
?3
 4. 1.66 ?10
?2
 
 
128. If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then the event in the stomach will be affected: 
 1. Digestion of starch into sugars 2. Proteins break down into peptides  
 3. Breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids 4. Digestion of nucleic acids  
 
129. The lipids and proteins essential for the formation of cell membrane are synthesized in  
 1. Golgi bodies   2. Mitochondria   
 3. Endoplasmic reticulum   4. Lysosomes  
 
130. The part of brain which controls the balance and posture of the body is  
 1. Cerebellum 2. Cerebrum  3. Pons 4. Medulla  
 
131. Uric acid is the main excretory product of: 
 A) Insects B) Birds   
 C) Terrestrial reptiles D) Human being    
 1. A, B and C are correct   2. A and B are only correct  
 3. Only B and D are correct   4. Only A and C are correct  
 
 
     
 
 
132. Growth of plants is not promoted by  
 1. Cytokinins 2. Auxins  3. Gibberellins  4. Abscisic acid  
 
133. The decomposers in an ecosystem convert  
 1. Inorganic substance into organic substance  
 2. Simpler substance into complex substance  
 3. Solar energy into chemical energy  
 4. Organic substance into inorganic substance  
 
134. The direction of movement of sap in Phloem of higher plants can be    
 1. Unidirectional 2. Multidirectional  3. Bidirectional  4. Direction less  
 
135. Which of the following is an Italian variety of Honey bee?  
 1. Apis florae    2. Apis cerana indica  
 3. Apis mellifera   4. Apis dorsata  
 
136. The group of plants that bears naked seeds 
 1. Gymnosperms 2. Angiosperms 3. Bryophyta  4. Pteridophyta  
 
137. Period of complete development of foetus starting with implantation till the birth of young one 
called as  
 1. Gestation period 2. Parturition 3. Pregnancy  4. both (1) and (3) 
 
138. In seed plants, the non-motile gametes are carried to female gamete by: 
 1. Air 2. Pollen tube  3. Water 4. Insects  
 
139. Menopause is the stage in female when  
 1. Menstruation starts   2. Puberty   
 3. Reproduction capacity arrested   4. Ovaries enlarges  
 
140. Perforations are not found in cell wall of the following cells  
 1. Tracheid  2. Companion  3. Sieve tube  4. Vessels   
 
141. The coefficient of x
49
 in the product (x ?1)(x ?3)(x ?5)…..(x ?99) is 
 (1) 1 (2) ?999 (3) ?2990 (4) ?2500 
 
142. Let 
2
35 , ? ? ? ? ? ? ? and 
2
53 ? ? ? ? .  The quadratic equation whose roots are 
?
?
 and 
?
?
 will 
be 
 (1) 
2
3 19 3 0 xx ? ? ? (2) 
2
3 19 3 0 xx ? ? ? (3) 
2
3 19 3 0 xx ? ? ? (4) 
2
3 3 1 0 xx ? ? ? 
 
143. If x=(5)
1/3
+2, then value of x
3
?6x
2
+12x ?10 is 
 (1) 1 (2) ?2 (3) ?1 (4) 3 
 
144. A point is selected at random from the interior of a circle.  The probability that the selected 
point is closer to the centre then the boundary of the circle is 
 (1) 
1
2
 (2) 
1
3
 (3) 
1
4
 (4) 
1
5
 
145. If 3 sin ? + 4 cos ? = 5 then value of 4 sin ? ?3 cos ? is  
 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) ?1 (4) 2 
 
146. If 
2
1
sin
sin cos
?
??
? ? ? ?
 then 
1
1
sin cos
sin
? ? ? ?
??
 is equal to 
 (1) ? ? (2) ? (3) 
1
?
 (4) 1 ? ?