Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Class 10: Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

The document Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10 is a part of the Class 10 Course CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10.
All you need of Class 10 at this link: Class 10

Class X
Time: 90 Minutes
M.M: 40

General Instructions: 
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case-Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

Section - A

Q.1: Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Congress of Vienna
(c) The French Revolution
(d) Greek war of Independence 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The French Revolution – 1789
Giuseppe Garibaldi – 1807
Congress of Vienna – 1815
Greek war of Independence 1821


Q.2: Find the incorrect option:
(a) The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the German nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism.
(b) When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin Clubs.
(c) Their activities and campaigns prepared the way but the French armies moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland, and much of Italy in the 1790s.
(d) With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad. 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The revolutionaries declared that it was the mission and destiny of France national to literate the peoples of Europe from despotism, because all these points are related to the French Revolution and not German.


Q.3: Which new spirit-guided European nations after Napoleons’ defeat?
(a) Fascism
(b) Nazism
(c) Conservatism
(d) Communism 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
After the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European government were driven by a spirit of conservatism. It is a political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs, and preferred gradual development to quick change.


Q.4: The three leaders who helped in unification of Italy were:
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garobaldi
(c) Victor Emmanuel II, Bismarck, Cavour
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour and Giuseppe Garibaldi were the three French revolutioners who helped in unification of Italy.


Q.5: Under which of the following type of resources can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishers
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-renewable

Correct Answer is Option (d) 
It French painter Delacroix pained ‘The Massacre at Chios’ in 1824. The painting depicts the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were said to have been killed by Turks on the island of Chios. By dramatizing the incident, focusing the suffering of women and children, and using vivid colours, Delacroix sought to appeal to the emotions of the spectators, and create sympathy for the Greeks.


Q.6: Wheat requires annual rainfall between:
(a) less than 20 cm
(b) 50 to 75 cm
(c) about 200 cm
(d) 200 to 300 cm 

Correct Answer is Option (a) 
Tidal energy is produced by water. These types of resources can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes and are called renewable or replaceable resources.


Q.7: The name three major cropping seasons of India is
(a) Aus, Aman, and Boro
(b) Baisakh, Paus and Chait
(c) Rabi, Kharif, and Zaid
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b) 
Wheat requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly-distributed over the growing season.


Q.8: In which one of the following States in terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttarakhand 

Correct Answer is Option (c) 
India has three cropping seasons
• Rabi crops are sown in winter (October- December) and harvested in summer (April- June)
• Kharif crops sown with the onset of Monsoon and harvested in September October
• In between the Rabi and Kharif seasons there is a short season during the summer months known as Zaid season.


Q.9: Which is the correct condition for the growth of Maize:
(a) Temperature below 17°C and shallow Black Soil
(b) Temperature between 21°C to 27°C and old Alluvial Soil
(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm rainfall
(d) None of the above 

Correct Answer is Option (d) 
Uttarakhand lies in Himalayas. The western and central Himalayas have well developed Terrace forming. Steps are cut on the slopes making terraces, which restricts soil erosion.


Q.10: Find the incorrect option:
(a) In the Fifteenth Century when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported to different countries of the world.
(b) During the British period, the cotton belts of India attracted the British.
(c) Ultimately cotton was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries.
(d) Champaran movement which started in 1917 in Bihar was because farmers of that region were forced to grow Indigo and their land because it was necessary for the Textile Industries which were located in Britain. 

Correct Answer is Option (a) 
European traders came to India  in the nineteenth century not in fifteenth century


Q.11: Important non-food crops are
(a) Millets and Pulses
(b) Tea and Coffee
(c) Sugarcane and Paddy
(d) Cotton and Jute
 

Correct Answer is Option (d) 
Millets, Pulses, Tea, Coffee, Sugarcane and  Paddy are  all food  crops.  But Cotton and Jute are non-food crops


Q.12: In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from .............. to ................. sector in developed countries.
(a) Primary to secondary
(b) Primary to tertiary
(c) Secondary to tertiary
(d) Tertiary to primary 

Correct Answer is Option (c) 
Over a long time, more and more services are introduced in tertiary sectors. These are activities that help in development of the primary and secondary sectors and they create lot of employment. Even secondary sector is shifted from secondary to tertiary sector, for this reason. Hence, a shift had taken place and importance of sectors had changed.


Q.13: What is the Per capita Income of Low-Income countries according to the World Development Report of 2019?
(a) US $ 5000 or less
(b) US $ 4000 or less
(c) US $ 2500 or less
(d) US $ 1500 or less 

Correct Answer is Option (c) 
According to World Development Report of 2019 the country with Per Capita Income of US$ 2500 or less are called Low- Income Countries.


Q.14: What is the developmental goal of a landless rural laborer?
(a) More days of work
(b) Better ways
(c) No social discrimination in the society
(d) All of the above
 

Correct Answer is Option (d) 
Jharkhand because it has many mining sites, which are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over broadening of land.


Q.15: Identify the natural product from the list of items given below:
(a) Textile
(b) Wheat flour
(c) Cotton
(d) Tomato Sauce 

Correct Answer is Option (c) 
Belgium has borders with France, the Netherland, Germany and Luxembourg.


Q.16: Who owns TISCO and Reliance Industries?
(a) The government
(b) Private company
(c) A Cooperative society
(d) Both (B) and (C) 

Correct Answer is Option (c) 
There are total 195 countries in the world out of which 193 are member of UN and among these only 25 largest democracies have federal political system.


Q.17: Which of the following treaty recognized Greece as an independent nation? 
(a) Treaty of Sevres 
(b) Treaty of Versailles 
(c) Treaty of Lausanne 
(d) Treaty of Constantinople

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The borders of the Ottoman Empire were restated which confirmed the terms of the Constantinople Arrangement and marked the end of the Greek War of Independence creating modern Greece as an independent state.


Q.18: Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of 'Nationalism' ? 
(a) French Revolution 
(b) Russian Revolution 
(c) Glorious Revolution 
(d) The Revolution of the liberals

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Till 1789, France was a territorial state under the rule of an absolute monarch and through French Revolution the idea of nationalism brighten up that motivated people to own the country.


Q.19: Who said "When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold"? 
(a) Garibaldi 
(b) Mazzini 
(c) Bismarck 
(d) Metternich

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Metternich said so when French Revolution overthrew the monarch that impacts other European countries as well.


Q.20: Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka? 
(a) Christian and Tamil 
(b) Buddhist and Hindu 
(c) Sinhali and Tamil
(d) Sinhali and Christian

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Sri Lanka is few kilometres off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. The major social groups are the Sinhalese and the Tamils.


Q.21: Which language is spoken by majority of Sri Lankans ? 
(a) Tamil 
(b) Sinhala 
(c) Hindi 
(d) Urdu

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.22: When was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka? 
(a) In 1954 
(b) In 1955 
(c) In 1956 
(d) In 1958

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.23: Which is a federal division of power? 
(a) Governments at the provincial or regional level. 
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary 
(c) Among different social groups 
(d) Political parties, pressure groups and movements

Correct Answer is Option (a)

General government at the provincial or regional level for the entire country is known as federal government.


Q.24: How many Union Territories are there in the Indian Federation? 
(a) 7 
(b) 9 
(c) 5 
(d) 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

India has been divided into Union Territories in order to maintain effective administration, maintain law and order, provide citizens their necessities and for overall development.

Section - B

Q.25: Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows:

Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania”?

(a) Heroism and Justice
(b) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(c) Austerity and Asceticism
(d) Revenge and Vengeance

Correct Answer is Option (a)

In the given image, Germania wears a crown of Oak leaves and in German oak stands for heroism.


Q.26:  

Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement. 
(a) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(b) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(c) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(d) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.27: Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: 
While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a statue, how does one go about giving a face to a nation? Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by personifying a nation. In other words, they represented a country as if it were a person. 
(a) Portrait of a nation 
(b) Idol of a nation 
(c) Personification of a nation 
(d) Visualising a nation

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.28: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives. 

Reason (R): Metternich described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of the social order’. 
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.29: Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: 
(i) Contour ploughing 
(ii) Terrace farming 
(iii) Strip cropping 
(iv) Afforestation
(a) Measures for ploughing
(b) Measures for soil conservation
(c) Measures for terrace farming
(d) Measures for afforestation

Correct Answer is Option (b)

(i) Contour Ploughing can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.

(ii) Terrace cultivation restricts erosion. 

(iii) Strips cropping breaks up the force of the wind. 

(iv) Afforestation manages wastelands.


Q.30: Find the incorrect option from the following: 
(a) The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from rest of the country. 
(b) It has very rich cultural heritage. 
(c) It has sufficiency in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. 
(d) This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The Cold Desert of Ladakh has deficiency in water, infrastructure and vital minerals.


Q.31: 


Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

(a) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B) 
(b) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(E), (v)-(B)
(c) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(A), (v)-(D)
(d) (i)-(E), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(D), (v)-(C)

Correct Answer is Option (a)

(i) Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary and that

separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.

(ii) Sri Lanka has 74% Sinhala- speakers and 18% Tamil-speakers.
(iii) In Brussels, 80% French speakers and 20% Dutch speakers.
(iv) When two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power.



Q.32: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option 

Assertion (A): Belgium is larger in volume compared to Indian States of Haryana. 
Reason (R): It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.33: Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. 
(a) Concurrent List 
(b) Union List 
(c) State List 
(d) Government List

Correct Answer is Option (a)

The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the concurrent list is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.


Q.34: When independent states come together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security. This type of ‘Coming together’ federations are practiced by which countries? 
(a) Switzerland and Canada 
(b) USA and Britain 
(c) USA, Australia and Switzerland 
(d) Britain, Canada, USA

Correct Answer is Option (c)

‘Coming Together’ is a federation in which several independent states come together on their own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity, they can increase their security. It includes the USA, Australia and Switzerland.


Q.35: Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct options: A belief that: Majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority. 
(a) Totalitarianism 
(b) Socialism 
(c) Majoritarianism 
(d) Oligarchy

Correct Answer is Option (c)

As the word reflects majority itself. It is an idea that the numerical majority of a population should have the final say in determining the outcome of a decision Majoritarianism is followed in Sri Lanka by Sinhala supremacy.


Q.36: Which of the following is very important fort or for better understanding between centre and state government? 
(a) Emergence of regional political party. 
(b) The beginning of the era of coalition government. 
(c) When no single party got a clear majority. 
(d) All of the above.

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.37: The first and major test for democratic politics in our country was 
(a) Caste problem 
(b) Language problem 
(c) Problems related to Union Territories 
(d) Creation of linguistic states

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.38: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. 

Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium is elected by one language community. 
Reason (R): Community government helped in resolving conflict between linguistic groups.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.39: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
(a) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
(b) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(c) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
(d) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)

Correct Answer is Option (b)
There are three sectors in the Indian economy- primary economy, secondary economy, and tertiary economy. The various production activities in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors produce a very large number of goods and services. All the three sectors are interdependent on each other.


Q.40:Arrange the following in the correct sequence: 
(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops 
(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms 
(iii) Spinning the yarn 
(iv) Weaving of the fabric Options: 
(a) (i) - (iv) - (iii) - (ii) 
(b) (iii) - (iv) - (i) - (ii) 
(c) (iv) - (i) - (ii) - (iii) 
(d) (iii) - (iv) - (ii) - (i)

Correct Answer is Option (b)

These activities contribute to the textile industry which is categorized under the secondary sector. Once the raw materials are received, the process of spinning starts to convert it into yarn which is the predecessor of the fabric to be created. The fibres could be natural or man-made.


Q.41: Rakesh works in an automobile unit in Gurugram. But he does not get any facility like health insurance, medical leave provident fund, gratuity, etc. 
(a) Public sector 
(b) Organised sector 
(c) Private sector 
(d) Unorganised sector

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Rakesh’s works in an unorganised sector wherein his employment is not secure , he is generally low paid and is not regularly paid. His employers do not make provision for overtime payment, paid leaves or holidays, medical facilities, gratuity and provident fund.


Q.42: Find the incorrect option from the following: 
(a) MGNREGA has been implemented in 625 districts of India 
(b) MGNREGA guarantees 200 days of assured work to the people who are able and in need of work 
(c) If the government fails to provide unemployment allowances to the people. 
(d) One third of the jobs are reserved for women.

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.43: Arrange the following in the correct sequence: 
(i) Convert the height recorded in centimeters into meters. 
(ii) Take the weight of each individual in kilograms (kg). 
(iii) Take the height by drawing up a scale on the wall and measure accurately with the head straight. 
(iv) Divide the weight in kg by the square of the height. 
Options are : 
(a) (i) - (ii) - (iv) - (iii) 
(b) (iv) - (ii) - (i) - (iii) 
(c) (ii) - (iii) - (i) - (iv) 
(d) (iii) - (iv) - (i) - (ii)

Correct Answer is Option (c)

BMI=Weight/ Height x Height
weight should be in kilograms & height in meters.


Q.44: Read the given date and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income.

Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10
Options: 
(a) Country A
(b) Country B
(c) Country C
(d) Country D

Correct Answer is Option (a)

In country A the variation of income from Citizen 1 to citizen 6 is very less as companed to other countries.


Q.45: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): In India, the Primary sector is the largest employer. 
Reason (R): The demand for services has increased enormously. 
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The Primary Sector remains the largest employer in India because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors. However, the demand for services has increased owing to increase in demand for Education, Health, Communication and Transportation, Development of Agricultural Sector, increase in level of income and development of Information and Technology Sector.


Q.46: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. 

Assertion (A): Normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure you that you get unadulterated medicines.
Reason (R): Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Section - C

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: 

Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the generations. These were popular both among children and adults. 

In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they also published a 33- volume dictionary of the German language.

The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit. They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.


Q.47: Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric character? Choose the correct options from the following 
(a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany. 
(b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales. 
(c) It formed the basis for the science of the language. 
(d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.48: The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best suitable option depicting the same from the following:
(a) Development of cities and towns
(b) Setting up of new political parties
(c) Promotion of ethnic belonging
(d) Emergence of socialist ideology

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.49: Fill in the blank from the given options 

The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They believed in a spirit of ____ and considered it essential for the reflection of national identity. 
(a) Culturalism 
(b) Conservatism 
(c) Extremism 
(d) Liberalism

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Culturalism is a way of life of a group of people--the behaviors, beliefs, values, and symbols that they accept, generally without thinking about them, and that are passed along by communication and imitation from one generation to the next.


Q.50: Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context. 
(a) Exploitation of natural resources 
(b) Erosion of native values and ethos 
(c) Violence and mass killing of people 
(d) Spread of new diseases in the country

Correct Answer is Option (b)

When another country or nation take over or control over other people to establish their supremacy then they lower their culture, feelings and ideologies.


Q.51: How were the Germans able to connect with their own culture? With reference to the above context, infer the appropriate option. 
(a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication 
(b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community 
(c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals 
(d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The folktales collected by Grimms’ brothers were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit and were popular both among children and adults.


Q.52: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. 

Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent. 
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic. 
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 
(c) A is true but R is false. 
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: 

There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables, oilseeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big question mark over the country’s future food security.

The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging and salinity.


Q.53: One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause? 
(a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market. 
(b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand. 
(c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions. 
(d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution.

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.54: Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options: I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern. II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc. III. Jute is in high demand in the Indian market. 
(a) I & II 
(b) II & III 
(c) III Only 
(d) II Only

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane.


Q.55: According to thee information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason. 
(a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses 
(b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector 
(c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses 
(d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Farmers shift cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables, oil-seeds and industrial crops as commercial crops are having more demand and their livelihood

depends on them only because food crops are seasonal.


Q.56: ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier from the following statements: 
(a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity. 
(b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses. 
(c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce. 
(d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Because of the use of Chemical fertilizers, pesticides and high-yield crops, the agricultural industry was able to produce much larger quantities of food which increase in productivity as well with a similar amount of effort.


Q.57: There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent level from the following options. 
(a) Karnataka and Kerala 
(b) Haryana and Punjab 
(c) Punjab and Gujarat 
(d) Haryana and Telangana

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Punjab and Haryana are the largest consumer of pesticides as they contribute highest share in agriculture production.


Q.58: Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in reference to the context. 
(a) To improve the land use pattern 
(b) To use intensive farming techniques 
(c) To improve the fertility of soil 
(d) To fetch more income and high profit

Correct Answer is Option (d)

If India imports cereals while exporting high-value commodities, it will be following successful economies like Italy, Israel and Chile. These countries exports farm products (fruits, olives, speciality seeds and wine) and import cereals.

Section - D

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 2 Notes | Study CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 - Class 10

Q.59: On the political map of India, ‘A‘ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options — 
(a) Krishna 
(b) Chambal 
(c) Narmada 
(d) Tungbhadra

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Marked (A) is Tungbhadra river which is located on river Tungbhadra in Karnataka.


Q.60: On the same map, Identify the (B) state where Alluvial Soil is Found? 
(a) Kerala 
(b) Odisha 
(c) Uttar Pradesh 
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Uttar Pradesh lies in northern part of India. It is called northern plains of India, which made of alluvial soil brought by three important Himalayan rivers.

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