Constitution & Political System - Solved Questions (1995- 2005) | UPSC Topic Wise Previous Year Questions PDF Download

Question 1: Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)

73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament in December, 1992. Through these amendments local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts came into force as the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993 and the constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 on June 1, 1993. These amendments added two new parts to the constitution, namely, 73rd Amendment added part IX titled "The Panchayats" and 74th Amendment added part IXA titled "The Municipalities". The Local bodies-'Panchayats' and 'Municipalities' came under Part IX and IXA of the Constitution after 43 years of India becoming a republic.

Question 2: Consider the following statements:     [2005]

1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single cititzenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Article 371 A to I deals with special provisions to - Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.

Question 3: The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:    [2005]

(a) empowering the centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The Constitution 98th Amendment Bill, 2003, seeks to constitute a National Judicial Commission (NJC) by including Chapter IV-A in Part V of the Constitution which will be in charge of appointing judges to the higher judiciary and for transferring High Court Judges.

Question 4: Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The Constitution of India has 24 parts, 12 schedules and more than 444 articles at present. In the original constitution, there were 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Question 5: Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?    [2005]

(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly: Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar, Flag Committee – J B Kriplani, Fundamental Rights and Minority Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel, Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee.

Question 6: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2004]

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament).

Question 7: Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?     [2004]

(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 358

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Article 257 in the Constitution states that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on the States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies.

Question 8: Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:    [2004]

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.

Question 9: Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?    [2004]

(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Article 24 of the constitution states that, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Question 10: The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by: [2003]

(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Ninth Schedule was added by First Amendment Act of 1951, which relates to Land Reforms.

Question 11: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002) ?     [2003]

(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123

(d) Article 124

Correct Answer is Option (c)

President can issue Ordinance under Article 123.

Question 12: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002) ?     [2003]

(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Article 143 provides power to the President to consult the Supreme Court.

Question 13: Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?    [2003]

(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355

Correct Answer is Option (d)

According Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

Question 14: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2
(b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
(c) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Borrowed features from different countries are correct.

Question 15: Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?    [2003]

(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd

Correct Answer is Option (c)

7th Amendment Act 1956 provides for composition of the House of the People and re-adjustment after every census. 31st amendment act 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.

Question 16: Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?     [2003]

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Correct Answer is Option (a)

The 'First Schedule' of the constitution deals with list of States and Union Territories.

Question 17: Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?     [2002]

(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th

Correct Answer is Option (d)

44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74(1) stated that, "there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions". However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, "act in accordance with such advice". The amendment went into effect from 3 January, 1977. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.

Question 18: The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:    [2002]

(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Correct Answer is Option (b)

According to 93rd Amendment every Child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have right to free and compulsory Education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ capitation fee/ charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.

Question 19:  Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Correct Answer is Option (a)

These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitutionm, runs from Art 14 – 32.

Question 20: The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:    [2002]

(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.

Question 21: Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?     [2002]

(a) 51
(b) 48 A
(c) 43 A
(d) 41

Correct Answer is Option (a)

This comes under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Constitution. Article 51 states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.

Question 22: Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?    [2001]

(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Article 350A was inserted by 7th Constitutional Amendment act 1956. It says, it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mothertongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Article 349 – Special Procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350 – Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 351 – Directive for development of the Hindi language.

Question 23 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?     [2001]

(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.

Question 24: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:    [2001]

(a) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2

 Correct Answer is Option (a)

Question 25: If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?    [2001] 

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth

Correct Answer is Option (a)

First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that’s why it should be amended, if a new state is created.

Question 26: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:     [2001]

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Question 27: The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the:    [2000]

(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural areas
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination

Correct Answer is Option (c)

73rd Amendment Act added Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for the Panchayati Raj System.

Question 28: The Constitution of India recognises:   [1999]
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities under article 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational rights). However it does not define the term Minority

Question 29: Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct? [1999]

(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require the President's recommendation.

Question 30: Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:    [1999]
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Statement 3 is incorrect as a candidate shall not be allowed to contest from more than two constituencies, it also adds options 1 and 2.

Question 31: Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?    [1998]

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.

Question 32: Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rdConstitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?   [1997]

(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 33: Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment:

Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?     [1997]

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Assertion is wrong as reservation for women in Parliament and state legislature would require a constitutional amendment.

Question 34: Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?     [1997]
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 59. Statement 2 is correct as according to Article 79, Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.

Question 35: In the following quotation,
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”, ‘X’ stands for:     [1997]

(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.

Question 36: Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?   [1995]
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c)  3 and 4
(d) 4 only

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Best answer is 1, 2 and 3. Because only Inter State Council is a constitutional body under article 263. So option 4 should not be included.

Question 37:  Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?   [1995]

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State

(a) 1, 2 and 3 
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a council or for the creation of such a council in a state having no such council, if the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.

Question 38: Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?   [1995]

1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option  (d)

According to Article 156, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

Question 39: Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?   [1995]

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a State

(a) 1, 2 and 3 
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Abolition of Legislative Council of a state does not need the ratification of not less than one half states. Under Art. 169, it has been mentioned that Parliament can create or abolish the council if that every State passes a resolution to do so with special majority. So drop point 4.

Question 40: What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?   [1995]

(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President

Correct Answer is Option (b)

PM resigns, if he loses the majority in the house is a convention and not mentioned in the constitution. Conventions are unwritten practices which are binding on the three organs of the State. Unlike the President, the Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenure. The full term of the Prime Minister is five years, which coincides with the normal life of the Lok Sabha. However, the term can end sooner if he loses the vote of confidence in the Lower House. So, it can be said that he remains in power as long as he enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister can also resign by writing to the President. There are no term limits on the office of the Prime Minister. There is also no official retirement age.