Government & Administration - Solved Questions (2018-2024) | UPSC Topic Wise Previous Year Questions PDF Download

Question 1: With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :(2023)

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Ans: (b)

• ‘Home Guards’ is a voluntary force, first raised in India in December 1946, to assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.
• Subsequently, the concept of the voluntary citizen’s force was adopted by several States. In the wake of Chinese aggression in 1962, the Centre advised the States and Union Territories to merge their existing voluntary organisation into one uniform voluntary force known as Home Guards.
• Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories, NOT the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is NOT correct.
• The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area at the time of external aggression. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Question 2: 

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022)
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Information System Manpower

Ans: (c)
Statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in India is an annual publication of the Labour Bureau which is an attached office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Labour Bureau:

• Labour Bureau, an attached office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, was set up on 1st October 1946.
• Labour Bureau collects and publishes statistics and related information on wages, earnings, productivity, absenteeism, labour turnover, industrial relations, working and living conditions and evaluation of working of various labour enactments etc. Besides important economic indicators like Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial, Agricultural and Rural Labourers; wage rate indices and data on industrial relations, socio-economic conditions in the organised and unorganised sector of industry etc are also released by the office.

Question 3: In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? (2022)

1. CCO is the major source of Coal. Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal- bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans: (a)
Coal Controller Organisation: Office of Coal Controller (earlier Coal Commissioner), established in 1916, is one of the oldest offices in Indian Coal sector. Main aim behind setting up this office was to have Government control to adequately meet the coal requirement during First World War.
Functions of Coal Controller’s Organisation are listed as below:

• Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal. To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
• Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched. Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of Central and State Government, national and international organization. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The Coal Controller’s Organisation monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite Blocks and their associated end-use projects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It does not ensure that coal mining company deliver the coal to end user in prescribed time. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Question 4: 

Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: (d)
India Sanitation Coalition:

• India Sanitation Coalition was formed under the aegis of FICCI.
• The vision of the Coalition is to enable and support an ecosystem for sustainable sanitation through a partnership mode. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

National Institute of Urban Affairs:

• Established in 1976, the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development.
• As a hub for the generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanizing India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.
• In 1976, NIUA was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify key areas of research, and address the lacunae in urban policy and planning. NIUA is associated with MoHUA but not the apex body of MoHUA. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Question 5: 

With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Ten Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 

Ans: (d)

• Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It comes under the Ministry of Commerce. Hence, statement 2 is not correct
• The Board is constituted of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea producing states, and trade unions. The Board is reconstituted every three years.
• Foreign Offices: Currently Tea Board has two overseas offices located at Dubai, and Moscow. All these foreign offices of the Board are designed to undertake the various promotional measures to boost up export of Indian tea. These offices also act as a liaison office for interaction between importers of Indian tea of the respective regions as well as Indian Exporters. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Its headquarters is situated in Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 6: 

At the national level, which ministry is nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?   [2021]
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Correct Answer is Option (d)

• The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs. The forest management policies, including the Acts, Rules and Forest Policies of Participatory Forest Management policies in both colonial and post-colonial India, did not, till the enactment of this Act, recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of the forests.
• The Ministry of the Central Government dealing with Tribal Affairs or any officer or authority authorised by the Central Government on this behalf shall be the nodal agency for the implementation of the provisions of this Act. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 7: 

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?   [2021]
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• The court exercises control over delegation of discretionary powers to the administration by adjudicating upon the constitutionality of the law under which such powers are delegated with reference to the fundamental rights enunciated in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, if the law confers vague and wide discretionary power on any administrative authority, it may be declared ultra vires Article 14, Article 19 and other provisions of the Constitution.
• Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law but the courts have permitted reasonable classification to be made. Where the law is valid under the article, a discriminatory action would still be violative of the equality clause.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Also, by elimination, Art. 28, and Art.44 are unrelated to the question and Art. 44 is to protect the FR of the citizens.

Question 8: 

With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   [2021]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Statement 2 is correct: Being A Court Of Record, High Court can review its own judgments under Article 226 Of the Constitution. The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders. A Division Bench of Chief Justice S. Manikumar and Shaji P. Chaly were confronted with an appeal against a review petition.

Question9:  

Constitutional government means
(a) a representative government of nation with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Correct Answer is Option (d)

• The core element of constitutional government is, the existence of a “Rule-of Law” or set of “basic laws” that binds both public office-holders and all members of a society (i.e. citizens) within a given territory. Presently most states avail of a constitution, which directs the organization of the state, the relations between the public offices within the state, as well the human and civil rights of the individual.

Question 10: 

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?    [2020-I]
(a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Bureaucrats are appointed by the President / Governor of India for implementing the policies of the government of the day. Other options are less suitable.

Question 11: Consider the following statements: [2020-I]

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state.
2. According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a,d)

(why two answers possible)
As per the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. There is no clause of “permanent disqualification” in the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. So, answer could be (a) or (d). It all depends on the validity of the first statement#1.
According to some experts, #1 is right because

• A citizen becomes eligible to vote upon attaining the age of 18.
• Whereas to become a member of the Vidhan Sabha, he must be minimum 25 years old.
• Article 164(4) of the Indian Constitution → A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
• So, accordingly, some experts interpret that even 18 or 19 year old person (Who is eligible to vote), can become minister for at least 6 months. So#1 is right.
• Other experts differ, that “since Constitution itself has not specifically said this, so statement#1 is wrong”, so answer is “d”.
• Final judge: we’ve to wait for the official answer key of UPSC

Question 12: Consider the following statements:    [2020-I]

1. The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.

2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions

3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer is Option (a,c)

• Article 85 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit. (Hence, 1st statement is correct)
• The Constitution of India does not mention the anything about the number of Parliamentary sessions in a year. (Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect)
• There is some ambiguity in the 3rd statement.
• If the UPSC interprets it in a narrow and literal sense, then exact number of days for which the Parliament is supposed to meet in a year is not mentioned in the Constitution and hence, 3rd statement is correct.
• However, if we interpret the question in a broader manner, then Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mentions that 6 months shall not intervene the 2 sessions of the Parliament. Interpreting this clause, it essentially means that Parliament has to meet at least for 2 days in a year to prevent the violation of Article 85. In such a scenario, 3rd statement is incorrect.

Question 13: Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in    [2020-I]
(a) The matter of creating new all India services
(b) Amending the Constitution
(c) The removal of the government
(d) Making cut motions

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• Article 312: With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers such that if Rajya Sabha is passing a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest. So A is wrong.
• Article 75(3) hold the government collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, in this regards, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. So C is wrong.
• Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. So d is wrong. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. So b is right.

Question 14: A constitutional government by definition is a    [2020-I]
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) Multi party government
(d) Limited government

Correct Answer is Option (d)

In India, the constitutional government is a limited government. The powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part-III of the Indian Constitution, that are essentially given to us against the state actions.

Question 15: If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do ?    [2020-I]
1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• During the Expansionary Money / Cheap Money /Dovish Monetary Policy, RBI will try to increase the supply of money and/or reduce the loan interest rates.
• So reducing the SLR, bank rate and repo rate will help in that regard. So, RBI may do 1 and 3. So, here question is asking, “WHAT RBI WILL NOT DO?” So, Option a, c and d are eliminated. we are left with answer b: Only 2.
• Increasing the MSF will raise the loan interest rates, so, if RBI pursues Expansionary policy, it’ll not do it.
• Some candidates engage in hair splittery (बाल की खाल निकलना), that under the external benchmark system, loans are linked with repo rate so #2 unlikely to have any impact. But such hair splittery is not required for the scope of exam.

Question 16: The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime membership of    [2019-I]

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• "Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to reduce the scope of Judicial review in the matters of land reforms and Zamindari-Abolition. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2016) their number is 282."
• So, if it was made the 50s, then it must be the Prime Minister Nehru.

Question 17: Consider the following statements:    [2019-I]

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)

If 'Office of Profit' was well defined in Constitution, then there wouldn't have been controversies related to AAP-MLAs' disqualification (2018-Jan), and Kejriwal & Co. wouldn't have been running from pillar to post between EC and SC to prevent their disqualification. So, #3 is wrong, and by elimination we are left with Answer A:1 and 2 only.

Question 18: With reference to the legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following Statements:    [2019-I]

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the particular matter, it follows the lok Sabha rule on that matter.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

• Governor can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. So #1 is right.
• Article 208 of the Constitution: A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Thus, it’s not mandated in the Constitution for the State legislature to (ALWAYS) follow/ copy the rules of Lok Sabha. So, #2 is wrong. Thus, answer A: only 1.
• Counterview: As per IndianExpress Article in 2016-September, second statement is correct so answer should be C: Both 1 and 2.
• Final verdict: UPSC official Answer key says “C: both statements are correct”.

Question 19: Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?    [2019-I]
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Centre-State relations:

• While selecting Governors, the Central Government should adopt the following strict guidelines as recommended in the Sarkaria Commission report: He should be a detached figure and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the states.

Question 20: In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc.?   [2019-I]
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 , 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission was setup for a limited time period under Justice B.N. Srikrishna's chairmanship. And its mandate did not include reviewing the electricity regulator. #4 is wrong. Similar reason eliminates Finance Commission (#3) which is setup periodically for the tax distribution between Union and States. Thus B and C are eliminated. 
• NITI Ayog is a think tank and policy advisor for the Government. Yes, it reviews development work in the Aspirational districts and SDG implementation across India but reviewing independent regulators is not under its purview. So, #5 is wrong. This eliminates D. Thus by elimination, we are left with Answer A: only 1 and 2.

Question 21: In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?     [2019-I]
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Correct Answer is Option (d)

• Historically speaking, the term liberty was initially defined as absence of all restraints on an individual. This is known as the negative concept of liberty. Early liberalism championed negative liberty. John Stuart Mill, the nineteenth century English political philosopher, described, “Restraint as an evil”. So, (d) is appropriate. 
• However, after the examination, many of the coaching classes felt that answer should be “b” based on another interpretation by D. D. Basu. But as per the official UPSC Answer key, correct answer is “d”.

Question 22: Consider the following statements:    [2018-I]

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognized for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

2 only

• The results of the first general election did not surprise anyone…Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats. [NCERT Class12: Politics in India since Independence, p30]. So, statement#1 is wrong
• In the remaining options b and c, both contain statement#2, so as such we've to accept it as true, and no need to waste time finding proofs, Nonetheless, to satiate the curiosity: It was Ram Subhag Singh- who became the first leader of opposition in Lok Sabha in 1969. Ref: Indian Express
• In each House of Parliament, there is the 'Leader of the Opposition'. The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 so minimum 10% doesn't translate to 75 in any case. Hence statement#3 is wrong, by elimination, we get Answer (b)

Question 23: With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, et(c) conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?(Pre18 Set-D)    [2018-I]
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• Committee on government assurances- checks the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953.
• Committee on Subordinate legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
• Rules committee considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules of the House. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 16 members including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman
• Business advisory committee regulates the programme and time table of the House. It allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other business brought before the House by the government. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it has 11 members including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman.
  

Question 24: Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?    [2018-I]
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of Indi(a)
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of Indi(a)
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of Indi(a)

Correct Answer is Option (c)

• Article 110(1)(A): a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision related to relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
• Article 110(1)(c): the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund.
• Article 110(1)(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) depending on how you interpret these provisions, it is difficult to outline any of the given statement as a wrong statement. But, UPSC has kept ‘C’ as the official answer.

Question 25: With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:    [2018-I]
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabh(a)
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Statement 1- Correct: Value of 1 MLA’s vote is based on total population of state to be divided by the total MLAs. Hence it ought to vary from state to state. Statement 2- vaguely worded, and open to multiple interpretation: Interpretation 2(i): While the value of an MLA’s vote depends on the population of the state he or she belongs to, the value of an MP’s vote remains the same at 708 so statement#2 is wrong. However if you interpret it as ‘collective’ value then LS has more seats than RS, the (collective) value of vote of MPs of LS > RS then #2 should be right. Accordingly, experts were divided over answer A or C. UPSC has also kept ‘A’ as the official answer.

Question 26: Consider the following statements: [2018-I]
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases: 1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly….. So statement#1 is right.
• Constitution of India, Art 179: "…Provided further that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution." So, statement#2 is wrong.

Question 27: Consider the following statements:  [2018-I]
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

• Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisone(d)
• His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office. Thus both statements are right.

Question 28: If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then    [2018-I]
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolve(d)
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356… He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So "B" is the right answer.