PU LLB 2025: Past Year Question Paper | All Law Entrance Exams Past Year Papers (2015-2025) - CLAT PDF Download

 Page 1


[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(1) 
 
1) Ceremonies of marriage are provided under which section of Hindu Marriage Act,  
  1955? 
(A) Section 7  (B) Section 17  (C) Section 27  (D) Section 37 
2) Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of  
  judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Sec. 13(1A) (i) of the Hindu  
  Marriage Act, 1955. Non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period  
  of: 
(A) 6 Months  (B) 1 Year  (C) 18 Months  (D) 2 Years 
3) Prompt Dower is also known as: 
(A) Izl   (B) Muwajjal  (C) Musamma  (D) Muajjal   
4) Tuhr means: 
(A) Period of menstruation   (B) Period of Iddat 
(C) Period of Purity    (D) Period between three successive menstruations 
5) Guardian of Property in Muslim Law is called: 
(A) Wali  (B) Wasi  (C) Wilaya  (D) Wakki 
6) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: 
(A) Coupled with force 
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five persons 
(C) Committed by five or more persons 
(D) Coupled with imminent danger of life 
7) Which of the following is an inchoate crime? 
(A) Public nuisance    (B) Criminal attempt 
(C) Unlawful assembly   (D) Riot 
8) Which section of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition has been removed in  
  the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita? 
(A) Section 124A (B) Section 302 (C) Section 376 (D) Section 420 
9) On which day Parliament has received the assent of the President on THE  
  BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA: 
(A) 21
st
 November, 2023   (B) 25
th
 November, 2023 
(C) 21
st
 December, 2023   (D) 25
th
 December, 2023 
10) Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of ________, or having  
  the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention  
  of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either  
  description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both. 
(A) 10 years  (B) 12 years  (C) 14 years  (D) 16 years 
11) “Grievous”, hurt is defined under which section of BNS? namely: 
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 186 (C) Section 224 (D) Section 232 
Page 2


[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(1) 
 
1) Ceremonies of marriage are provided under which section of Hindu Marriage Act,  
  1955? 
(A) Section 7  (B) Section 17  (C) Section 27  (D) Section 37 
2) Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of  
  judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Sec. 13(1A) (i) of the Hindu  
  Marriage Act, 1955. Non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period  
  of: 
(A) 6 Months  (B) 1 Year  (C) 18 Months  (D) 2 Years 
3) Prompt Dower is also known as: 
(A) Izl   (B) Muwajjal  (C) Musamma  (D) Muajjal   
4) Tuhr means: 
(A) Period of menstruation   (B) Period of Iddat 
(C) Period of Purity    (D) Period between three successive menstruations 
5) Guardian of Property in Muslim Law is called: 
(A) Wali  (B) Wasi  (C) Wilaya  (D) Wakki 
6) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: 
(A) Coupled with force 
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five persons 
(C) Committed by five or more persons 
(D) Coupled with imminent danger of life 
7) Which of the following is an inchoate crime? 
(A) Public nuisance    (B) Criminal attempt 
(C) Unlawful assembly   (D) Riot 
8) Which section of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition has been removed in  
  the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita? 
(A) Section 124A (B) Section 302 (C) Section 376 (D) Section 420 
9) On which day Parliament has received the assent of the President on THE  
  BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA: 
(A) 21
st
 November, 2023   (B) 25
th
 November, 2023 
(C) 21
st
 December, 2023   (D) 25
th
 December, 2023 
10) Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of ________, or having  
  the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention  
  of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either  
  description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both. 
(A) 10 years  (B) 12 years  (C) 14 years  (D) 16 years 
11) “Grievous”, hurt is defined under which section of BNS? namely: 
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 186 (C) Section 224 (D) Section 232 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(2) 
 
12) A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, A not believing in good faith  
  that he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. Which  
  offence is committed by A 
(A) Wrongfully restrains   (B) Illegal prevention 
(C) Wrongful confinement   (D) Abstraction  
13) Right of private defence of the body begins: 
(A) When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises  
(B) When there is an attack on the body  
(C) When public authorities have refused protection  
(D) When mental peace is disturbed  
14) Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duty with  
  respect to The Scientific Temper: 
(A) Article 51(e) (B) Article 51(g) (C) Article 51(h) (D) Article 51(i) 
15) As per Article 13 sub-clause 3 of the Indian Constitution, Law includes: 
(A)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(B)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, amendment, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(C)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, deceleration, notification, custom or usage having  
   in the territory of India the force of law. 
(D)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule regulation, notification, custom, practice or usage  
   having in the territory of India the force of law. 
16) On which of the following grounds the President of India can be impeached: 
(A) Corruption or Incapacity   (B) Misuse of Power 
(C) Proved miss-behaviour   (D) Violation of the Constitution 
17) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of  
  the constitution under Article 368 was “Law” within the meaning of Article 13: 
(A) Keshvananda Bharti v State of Kerala 
(B) Golakhnath v State of Punjab 
(C) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 
(D) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan 
18) During the proclamation of National Emergency, life of the House of People can be  
  extended by Parliament for a period: 
(A) Three months    (B) Six months 
(C) Not exceeding 1 year at a time  (D) One and half year  
19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides powers, privileges, etc., of the  
  House of Parliament and of the Members and Committees thereof: 
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 105 (C) Article 113 (D) Article 118 
Page 3


[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(1) 
 
1) Ceremonies of marriage are provided under which section of Hindu Marriage Act,  
  1955? 
(A) Section 7  (B) Section 17  (C) Section 27  (D) Section 37 
2) Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of  
  judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Sec. 13(1A) (i) of the Hindu  
  Marriage Act, 1955. Non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period  
  of: 
(A) 6 Months  (B) 1 Year  (C) 18 Months  (D) 2 Years 
3) Prompt Dower is also known as: 
(A) Izl   (B) Muwajjal  (C) Musamma  (D) Muajjal   
4) Tuhr means: 
(A) Period of menstruation   (B) Period of Iddat 
(C) Period of Purity    (D) Period between three successive menstruations 
5) Guardian of Property in Muslim Law is called: 
(A) Wali  (B) Wasi  (C) Wilaya  (D) Wakki 
6) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: 
(A) Coupled with force 
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five persons 
(C) Committed by five or more persons 
(D) Coupled with imminent danger of life 
7) Which of the following is an inchoate crime? 
(A) Public nuisance    (B) Criminal attempt 
(C) Unlawful assembly   (D) Riot 
8) Which section of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition has been removed in  
  the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita? 
(A) Section 124A (B) Section 302 (C) Section 376 (D) Section 420 
9) On which day Parliament has received the assent of the President on THE  
  BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA: 
(A) 21
st
 November, 2023   (B) 25
th
 November, 2023 
(C) 21
st
 December, 2023   (D) 25
th
 December, 2023 
10) Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of ________, or having  
  the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention  
  of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either  
  description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both. 
(A) 10 years  (B) 12 years  (C) 14 years  (D) 16 years 
11) “Grievous”, hurt is defined under which section of BNS? namely: 
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 186 (C) Section 224 (D) Section 232 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(2) 
 
12) A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, A not believing in good faith  
  that he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. Which  
  offence is committed by A 
(A) Wrongfully restrains   (B) Illegal prevention 
(C) Wrongful confinement   (D) Abstraction  
13) Right of private defence of the body begins: 
(A) When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises  
(B) When there is an attack on the body  
(C) When public authorities have refused protection  
(D) When mental peace is disturbed  
14) Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duty with  
  respect to The Scientific Temper: 
(A) Article 51(e) (B) Article 51(g) (C) Article 51(h) (D) Article 51(i) 
15) As per Article 13 sub-clause 3 of the Indian Constitution, Law includes: 
(A)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(B)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, amendment, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(C)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, deceleration, notification, custom or usage having  
   in the territory of India the force of law. 
(D)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule regulation, notification, custom, practice or usage  
   having in the territory of India the force of law. 
16) On which of the following grounds the President of India can be impeached: 
(A) Corruption or Incapacity   (B) Misuse of Power 
(C) Proved miss-behaviour   (D) Violation of the Constitution 
17) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of  
  the constitution under Article 368 was “Law” within the meaning of Article 13: 
(A) Keshvananda Bharti v State of Kerala 
(B) Golakhnath v State of Punjab 
(C) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 
(D) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan 
18) During the proclamation of National Emergency, life of the House of People can be  
  extended by Parliament for a period: 
(A) Three months    (B) Six months 
(C) Not exceeding 1 year at a time  (D) One and half year  
19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides powers, privileges, etc., of the  
  House of Parliament and of the Members and Committees thereof: 
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 105 (C) Article 113 (D) Article 118 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(3) 
 
20) Who Prorogue the house/houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) Chairman  (C) President  (D) Prime Minister 
21) Total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall in no case be less  
  than: 
(A) 40   (B) 50   (C) 60   (D) 70 
22) In King v. Philips, (1953) KB 433, the facts of the case were – “A small boy, Michael  
  Charles King was on his tricycle on Bristall Road, London. A taxicab driver while  
  backing his cab hit the tricycle. The mother of the child, who was inside her house  
  some 70 to 80 yards away, heard boy's scream, she came out and saw tricycle of his  
  son under the taxicab, but the child was not there who came to home with slight  
  injury. The lady suffered nervous shock followed by illness, for which she claimed  
  damages”. Who was allowed to claim damages in the above case? 
(A) The boy     (B) The mother 
(C) Both the boy and his mother  (D) None of the above 
23) In the case of Page v. Smith, (1995) 2 All ER 736, the plaintiff in the motor accident  
  remained unhurt but suffered 'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis', a psychiatric illness  
  with which he had earlier suffered but was in remission that time. While deciding  
  the case, House of Lords laid down that tortfeasor must take his victim as he finds  
  him. Which of the following is correct in the light of above information? 
(A)  The defendant was not held liable for damages since the Plaintiff once suffered  
   'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis' 
(B) The defendant was not held liable for damages since its difficult to pin point the  
   starting point for a psychiatric illness 
(C)  Defendant is liable since during the time of accident, plaintiff was healthy 
(D)  Defendant is not liable since he did not physically injure the plaintiff  
24) A civil claim for defamation can be brought against the defendant if –    
(A)  The statement (relevant to the case) is made while cross examining the witness in  
   another litigation  
(B) The defendant proves they hold absolute privilege 
(C)  The statement is misogynistic slur, questioning the character, made by one person  
   to another, in private 
(D)  The statement is against the diseased person 
25) Which of the following maxims are not relevant for law of torts? 
(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium   (B) V olenti non fit injuria 
(C) Qui facit per alium facit per se  (D) Pacta sunt servanda 
Page 4


[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(1) 
 
1) Ceremonies of marriage are provided under which section of Hindu Marriage Act,  
  1955? 
(A) Section 7  (B) Section 17  (C) Section 27  (D) Section 37 
2) Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of  
  judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Sec. 13(1A) (i) of the Hindu  
  Marriage Act, 1955. Non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period  
  of: 
(A) 6 Months  (B) 1 Year  (C) 18 Months  (D) 2 Years 
3) Prompt Dower is also known as: 
(A) Izl   (B) Muwajjal  (C) Musamma  (D) Muajjal   
4) Tuhr means: 
(A) Period of menstruation   (B) Period of Iddat 
(C) Period of Purity    (D) Period between three successive menstruations 
5) Guardian of Property in Muslim Law is called: 
(A) Wali  (B) Wasi  (C) Wilaya  (D) Wakki 
6) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: 
(A) Coupled with force 
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five persons 
(C) Committed by five or more persons 
(D) Coupled with imminent danger of life 
7) Which of the following is an inchoate crime? 
(A) Public nuisance    (B) Criminal attempt 
(C) Unlawful assembly   (D) Riot 
8) Which section of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition has been removed in  
  the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita? 
(A) Section 124A (B) Section 302 (C) Section 376 (D) Section 420 
9) On which day Parliament has received the assent of the President on THE  
  BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA: 
(A) 21
st
 November, 2023   (B) 25
th
 November, 2023 
(C) 21
st
 December, 2023   (D) 25
th
 December, 2023 
10) Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of ________, or having  
  the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention  
  of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either  
  description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both. 
(A) 10 years  (B) 12 years  (C) 14 years  (D) 16 years 
11) “Grievous”, hurt is defined under which section of BNS? namely: 
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 186 (C) Section 224 (D) Section 232 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(2) 
 
12) A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, A not believing in good faith  
  that he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. Which  
  offence is committed by A 
(A) Wrongfully restrains   (B) Illegal prevention 
(C) Wrongful confinement   (D) Abstraction  
13) Right of private defence of the body begins: 
(A) When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises  
(B) When there is an attack on the body  
(C) When public authorities have refused protection  
(D) When mental peace is disturbed  
14) Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duty with  
  respect to The Scientific Temper: 
(A) Article 51(e) (B) Article 51(g) (C) Article 51(h) (D) Article 51(i) 
15) As per Article 13 sub-clause 3 of the Indian Constitution, Law includes: 
(A)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(B)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, amendment, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(C)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, deceleration, notification, custom or usage having  
   in the territory of India the force of law. 
(D)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule regulation, notification, custom, practice or usage  
   having in the territory of India the force of law. 
16) On which of the following grounds the President of India can be impeached: 
(A) Corruption or Incapacity   (B) Misuse of Power 
(C) Proved miss-behaviour   (D) Violation of the Constitution 
17) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of  
  the constitution under Article 368 was “Law” within the meaning of Article 13: 
(A) Keshvananda Bharti v State of Kerala 
(B) Golakhnath v State of Punjab 
(C) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 
(D) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan 
18) During the proclamation of National Emergency, life of the House of People can be  
  extended by Parliament for a period: 
(A) Three months    (B) Six months 
(C) Not exceeding 1 year at a time  (D) One and half year  
19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides powers, privileges, etc., of the  
  House of Parliament and of the Members and Committees thereof: 
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 105 (C) Article 113 (D) Article 118 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(3) 
 
20) Who Prorogue the house/houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) Chairman  (C) President  (D) Prime Minister 
21) Total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall in no case be less  
  than: 
(A) 40   (B) 50   (C) 60   (D) 70 
22) In King v. Philips, (1953) KB 433, the facts of the case were – “A small boy, Michael  
  Charles King was on his tricycle on Bristall Road, London. A taxicab driver while  
  backing his cab hit the tricycle. The mother of the child, who was inside her house  
  some 70 to 80 yards away, heard boy's scream, she came out and saw tricycle of his  
  son under the taxicab, but the child was not there who came to home with slight  
  injury. The lady suffered nervous shock followed by illness, for which she claimed  
  damages”. Who was allowed to claim damages in the above case? 
(A) The boy     (B) The mother 
(C) Both the boy and his mother  (D) None of the above 
23) In the case of Page v. Smith, (1995) 2 All ER 736, the plaintiff in the motor accident  
  remained unhurt but suffered 'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis', a psychiatric illness  
  with which he had earlier suffered but was in remission that time. While deciding  
  the case, House of Lords laid down that tortfeasor must take his victim as he finds  
  him. Which of the following is correct in the light of above information? 
(A)  The defendant was not held liable for damages since the Plaintiff once suffered  
   'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis' 
(B) The defendant was not held liable for damages since its difficult to pin point the  
   starting point for a psychiatric illness 
(C)  Defendant is liable since during the time of accident, plaintiff was healthy 
(D)  Defendant is not liable since he did not physically injure the plaintiff  
24) A civil claim for defamation can be brought against the defendant if –    
(A)  The statement (relevant to the case) is made while cross examining the witness in  
   another litigation  
(B) The defendant proves they hold absolute privilege 
(C)  The statement is misogynistic slur, questioning the character, made by one person  
   to another, in private 
(D)  The statement is against the diseased person 
25) Which of the following maxims are not relevant for law of torts? 
(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium   (B) V olenti non fit injuria 
(C) Qui facit per alium facit per se  (D) Pacta sunt servanda 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(4) 
 
26) Which of the following best describes the "Eggshell Skull Rule" in tort law? 
(A) Defendant is only liable for foreseeable injuries to the plaintiff. 
(B) Defendant is liable for all injuries to a plaintiff, even if the plaintiff had a pre-existing 
condition that made the injury worse. 
(C) Defendant is liable only if the plaintiff’s injury is of an ordinary and foreseeable 
nature. 
(D) Plaintiff cannot claim damages if their injury was aggravated due to their own frailty. 
27) In the tort of false imprisonment, which of the following is not required to establish  
  liability? 
(A) The restriction of movement must be total. 
(B) The plaintiff must be aware of the restriction at the time. 
(C) The defendant must intend to restrict the plaintiff’s movement. 
(D) The restriction must be without lawful justification. 
28) In a case involving AI-generated defamation, where a deepfake video misrepresents  
  a public figure endorsing a controversial product, which of the following legal  
  principles would most likely apply under tort law? 
(A)  The AI-generated deepfake would be considered a form of defamation by  
   implication, as it falsely attributes view to the individual, causing harm to their  
   reputation. 
(B) The deepfake video would be protected under the fair use doctrine, as it is  
   considered an artistic expression and does not qualify as defamation. 
(C)  The defamation claim would fail because the AI-generated content cannot be  
   attributed to the defendant unless it can be shown they specifically created the  
   deepfake. 
(D)  The defamation claim would only be actionable if the plaintiff could prove that  
   the AI model intentionally caused harm to their reputation. 
 
29) In the case of Felthouse v. Bindley (1863), what legal principle was established  
  regarding acceptance of an offer? 
(A) Silence can amount to acceptance if the offeree intends to accept. 
(B) An offeror can impose acceptance by stating that silence will be considered as 
consent. 
(C) Acceptance must be clearly communicated to the offeror or their agent to form a 
valid contract. 
(D) An offeree’s internal intention is sufficient to create a binding contract. 
30) What is the meaning of ‘Quantum Meruit’: 
(A) As much as saved    (B) As much as paid 
(C) As much as retained   (D) As much as earned 
Page 5


[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(1) 
 
1) Ceremonies of marriage are provided under which section of Hindu Marriage Act,  
  1955? 
(A) Section 7  (B) Section 17  (C) Section 27  (D) Section 37 
2) Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of  
  judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Sec. 13(1A) (i) of the Hindu  
  Marriage Act, 1955. Non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period  
  of: 
(A) 6 Months  (B) 1 Year  (C) 18 Months  (D) 2 Years 
3) Prompt Dower is also known as: 
(A) Izl   (B) Muwajjal  (C) Musamma  (D) Muajjal   
4) Tuhr means: 
(A) Period of menstruation   (B) Period of Iddat 
(C) Period of Purity    (D) Period between three successive menstruations 
5) Guardian of Property in Muslim Law is called: 
(A) Wali  (B) Wasi  (C) Wilaya  (D) Wakki 
6) The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: 
(A) Coupled with force 
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five persons 
(C) Committed by five or more persons 
(D) Coupled with imminent danger of life 
7) Which of the following is an inchoate crime? 
(A) Public nuisance    (B) Criminal attempt 
(C) Unlawful assembly   (D) Riot 
8) Which section of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition has been removed in  
  the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita? 
(A) Section 124A (B) Section 302 (C) Section 376 (D) Section 420 
9) On which day Parliament has received the assent of the President on THE  
  BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA: 
(A) 21
st
 November, 2023   (B) 25
th
 November, 2023 
(C) 21
st
 December, 2023   (D) 25
th
 December, 2023 
10) Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of ________, or having  
  the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child in any place with the intention  
  of wholly abandoning such child, shall be punished with imprisonment of either  
  description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both. 
(A) 10 years  (B) 12 years  (C) 14 years  (D) 16 years 
11) “Grievous”, hurt is defined under which section of BNS? namely: 
(A) Section 116 (B) Section 186 (C) Section 224 (D) Section 232 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(2) 
 
12) A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, A not believing in good faith  
  that he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. Which  
  offence is committed by A 
(A) Wrongfully restrains   (B) Illegal prevention 
(C) Wrongful confinement   (D) Abstraction  
13) Right of private defence of the body begins: 
(A) When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises  
(B) When there is an attack on the body  
(C) When public authorities have refused protection  
(D) When mental peace is disturbed  
14) Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duty with  
  respect to The Scientific Temper: 
(A) Article 51(e) (B) Article 51(g) (C) Article 51(h) (D) Article 51(i) 
15) As per Article 13 sub-clause 3 of the Indian Constitution, Law includes: 
(A)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(B)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, regulation, amendment, custom or usage having in  
   the territory of India the force of law. 
(C)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule, deceleration, notification, custom or usage having  
   in the territory of India the force of law. 
(D)  Any ordinance, bye-law, rule regulation, notification, custom, practice or usage  
   having in the territory of India the force of law. 
16) On which of the following grounds the President of India can be impeached: 
(A) Corruption or Incapacity   (B) Misuse of Power 
(C) Proved miss-behaviour   (D) Violation of the Constitution 
17) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of  
  the constitution under Article 368 was “Law” within the meaning of Article 13: 
(A) Keshvananda Bharti v State of Kerala 
(B) Golakhnath v State of Punjab 
(C) Shankari Prasad v Union of India 
(D) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan 
18) During the proclamation of National Emergency, life of the House of People can be  
  extended by Parliament for a period: 
(A) Three months    (B) Six months 
(C) Not exceeding 1 year at a time  (D) One and half year  
19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides powers, privileges, etc., of the  
  House of Parliament and of the Members and Committees thereof: 
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 105 (C) Article 113 (D) Article 118 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(3) 
 
20) Who Prorogue the house/houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) Chairman  (C) President  (D) Prime Minister 
21) Total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall in no case be less  
  than: 
(A) 40   (B) 50   (C) 60   (D) 70 
22) In King v. Philips, (1953) KB 433, the facts of the case were – “A small boy, Michael  
  Charles King was on his tricycle on Bristall Road, London. A taxicab driver while  
  backing his cab hit the tricycle. The mother of the child, who was inside her house  
  some 70 to 80 yards away, heard boy's scream, she came out and saw tricycle of his  
  son under the taxicab, but the child was not there who came to home with slight  
  injury. The lady suffered nervous shock followed by illness, for which she claimed  
  damages”. Who was allowed to claim damages in the above case? 
(A) The boy     (B) The mother 
(C) Both the boy and his mother  (D) None of the above 
23) In the case of Page v. Smith, (1995) 2 All ER 736, the plaintiff in the motor accident  
  remained unhurt but suffered 'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis', a psychiatric illness  
  with which he had earlier suffered but was in remission that time. While deciding  
  the case, House of Lords laid down that tortfeasor must take his victim as he finds  
  him. Which of the following is correct in the light of above information? 
(A)  The defendant was not held liable for damages since the Plaintiff once suffered  
   'Myalgic Encephalomyelitis' 
(B) The defendant was not held liable for damages since its difficult to pin point the  
   starting point for a psychiatric illness 
(C)  Defendant is liable since during the time of accident, plaintiff was healthy 
(D)  Defendant is not liable since he did not physically injure the plaintiff  
24) A civil claim for defamation can be brought against the defendant if –    
(A)  The statement (relevant to the case) is made while cross examining the witness in  
   another litigation  
(B) The defendant proves they hold absolute privilege 
(C)  The statement is misogynistic slur, questioning the character, made by one person  
   to another, in private 
(D)  The statement is against the diseased person 
25) Which of the following maxims are not relevant for law of torts? 
(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium   (B) V olenti non fit injuria 
(C) Qui facit per alium facit per se  (D) Pacta sunt servanda 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(4) 
 
26) Which of the following best describes the "Eggshell Skull Rule" in tort law? 
(A) Defendant is only liable for foreseeable injuries to the plaintiff. 
(B) Defendant is liable for all injuries to a plaintiff, even if the plaintiff had a pre-existing 
condition that made the injury worse. 
(C) Defendant is liable only if the plaintiff’s injury is of an ordinary and foreseeable 
nature. 
(D) Plaintiff cannot claim damages if their injury was aggravated due to their own frailty. 
27) In the tort of false imprisonment, which of the following is not required to establish  
  liability? 
(A) The restriction of movement must be total. 
(B) The plaintiff must be aware of the restriction at the time. 
(C) The defendant must intend to restrict the plaintiff’s movement. 
(D) The restriction must be without lawful justification. 
28) In a case involving AI-generated defamation, where a deepfake video misrepresents  
  a public figure endorsing a controversial product, which of the following legal  
  principles would most likely apply under tort law? 
(A)  The AI-generated deepfake would be considered a form of defamation by  
   implication, as it falsely attributes view to the individual, causing harm to their  
   reputation. 
(B) The deepfake video would be protected under the fair use doctrine, as it is  
   considered an artistic expression and does not qualify as defamation. 
(C)  The defamation claim would fail because the AI-generated content cannot be  
   attributed to the defendant unless it can be shown they specifically created the  
   deepfake. 
(D)  The defamation claim would only be actionable if the plaintiff could prove that  
   the AI model intentionally caused harm to their reputation. 
 
29) In the case of Felthouse v. Bindley (1863), what legal principle was established  
  regarding acceptance of an offer? 
(A) Silence can amount to acceptance if the offeree intends to accept. 
(B) An offeror can impose acceptance by stating that silence will be considered as 
consent. 
(C) Acceptance must be clearly communicated to the offeror or their agent to form a 
valid contract. 
(D) An offeree’s internal intention is sufficient to create a binding contract. 
30) What is the meaning of ‘Quantum Meruit’: 
(A) As much as saved    (B) As much as paid 
(C) As much as retained   (D) As much as earned 
[BA-B.COM-LLB-(A)-2025] 
(5) 
 
31) When a proposal may be revoked: 
(A)  A proposal may be revoked at any time when the communication of its acceptance  
   is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards. 
(B) A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its  
   acceptance is incomplete as against the proposer, but not afterwards. 
(C)  A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its  
   acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards. 
(D) A proposal may be revoked at any time after the communication of its acceptance  
   is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards. 
 
32) A ‘proposal’ is defined as: 
(A)  When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from  
   doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or  
   abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. 
(B) When one person signifies to another his willingness to do, with a view to  
   obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a  
   proposal. 
(C)  When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from  
   doing anything, he is said to make a proposal. 
(D) When one person signifies to many persons his willingness to do or to abstain  
   from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act  
   or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. 
 
33) What is a sound mind for the purposes of contracting: 
(A)   A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, at  
  the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a  
  rational judgement as to its effect upon his interest. 
(B)   A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, at  
  the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it. 
(C)   A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, he  
  is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect  
  upon his interest. 
(D)   A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, at  
  any time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a  
  rational judgement as to its effect upon his interest. 
 
34) Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 lays down the essentials of a valid  
  contract? 
(A) 2(d)  (B) 10   (C) 12   (D) 3 
35) An agreement not supported by consideration is called: 
(A) Consensus ad idem   (B) Ignoratia juris non execuset 
(C) Ab initio     (D) Nudum Pactum