Legal Awareness & Legal Aptitude- 2 Previous Year Questions with Solutions

Q.46. Legal Principles:
1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a person's reputation; decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile, or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-thinking members of society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
4. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken statements, called slander.
5. A public official or public figure can recover damages for defamation on a matter of public concern only if he proves that the speaker acted with actual malice.
Facts: In 2018, a police officer, Suresh Singh, shot and killed Dayal. After the officer was convicted of culpable homicide not amounting to murder, Dayal's family retained a lawyer, Kaushal, to represent them in civil litigation against the officer. In a magazine called Indian Opinion, the Anti-Communist Society accused Kaushal of being a "Naxalite" and a "Communist-fronter" because he chose to represent clients who were suing a law enforcement officer. Because the statements contained serious inaccuracies, Kaushal filed a libel action against the editors of the magazine. Decide whether he will succeed.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) No, as it is mere vulgar abuse.
(b) The statement may be defamatory but the editors of the magazine are not liable unless Kaushal is able to establish actual malice in making the statement.
(c) No, as the statement does not tend to lower Kaushal in the estimation of right-thinking members of society and print media is known for such type of journalism.
(d) Yes, as statement is defamatory and Kaushal is not required to establish actual malice to successfully bring a claim of defamation.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.47. Legal principle: A contract may, in some circumstances, be discharged by a breach of contract. Where there exists a breach of condition this will enable the innocent party the right to repudiate the contract (bring the contract to an end) in addition to claiming damages.
Facts: in April, Sagar Tour &Travels agreed to employ Hiten as his courier for three months from 1 June 2020, to go on a trip around the European continent. On 11 May, Sagar Tour & Travels wrote to say that Iliteai was no longer needed. On 22 May, Hiten sued Sagar Tour & Travels for breach of contract. Sagar Tour & Travels argued that Hiten was still under an obligation to stay ready and willing to perform till the day when performance was due, and therefore could commence no action before June 1, 2020.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) A breach of contract by renouncing the duty to perform the future obligation does not render the party liable immediately to a suit of action for damages by the injured party.
(b) The renunciation of a contract of future conduct by one party immediately dissolves the obligation of the other party to perform the contract.
(c) Hiten has suffered no harm and tire offer can be revoked anytime before June 1, 2020 so he cannot claim any damages.
(d) A contract for future conduct do not constitutes an implied promise that, in the meantime, neither party will prejudice the performance of that promise.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.48. Legal Principle: An agreement between two private parties that creates mutual legal obligations. A contract can be either oral or written.
Facts: Mr. Ram and Mr. Rahim were work colleagues who had an arrangement regarding shared lifts to work. Rahim would drive his motorbike and Ram would ride pillion in return for a weekly sum of money. Unfortunately both were killed in a road traffic accident and the wife of Mr. Ram made a claim for damages against the estate of Mr. Rahim. However Rahim's insurance policy did not cover pillion passengers and as his estate had no assets or money to satisfy the judgment, Mrs. Ram pursued the Motor Insurance Bureau (MIB).
The MIB have an agreement whereby accidents and consequential claims would be satisfied by the Government in circumstances where the driver has no relevant policy of insurance. However the rules covering this situation require Mr. Ram was carried for "hire or reward". Mrs. Ram argues that there was a contract in place between Ram and Rahim for the lifts to work. Decide whether there was a contract so as to make Mrs. Ram eligible for claim from MIB.    (N.L.U.D., 2020
(a) Notwithstanding the regular payment of money in return for the lift, it was not a legal obligation as to create a contract. There were no terms as to how long this was to last, what would happen in default of payment or the availability of transport, or anything written down so as to at least make their intention clear.
(b) Yes, there was clearly an offer of transport and this was accepted. In addition, the consideration exchanged by the parties was the sendee of transport and the money paid by Ram.
(c) Yes, the practice of agreements between colleagues sharing a lift to work (or "carpooling") is an accepted and wide spread practice. Parties will usually agree that one will take their car and in return the others will make a contribution towards the petrol costs.
(d) No, unless the wife of Ram can show that the accident happened due to rash and negligent driving of Rahim.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.49. Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Facts: Mr. Kumar visited the Holiday Bliss Hotel. He had not made an in advance booking and upon arrival requested a room for the night. He signed the register and there was no mention at that stage of any other terms or conditions that might impact upon his stay at the hotel. During the course of his slay Mr. Kumar discovered that someone had broken into his room and stolen certain property including a coat. Kumar filed a case of negligence on the Hotel administration. Nevertheless, the Hotel sought to rely upon an exclusion clause that was placed in the bedroom the claimant stayed in. This stated that the hotel would not accept liability for lost or stolen items belonging to customers. Decide whether the exclusion clause that was displayed in the bedroom constituted a valid term of the contract.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) The contract was made when Kumar signed the register at the reception and so the acceptance of the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer.
(b) There is a valid contract between Kumar and Hotel and the Hotel has taken reasonable steps to bring exclusion clause to Kumar's attention in the room.
(c) Terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer or party against whom they are trying to be enforced at the moment the contract was entered into. Kumar was not given notice of this exclusion clause until he had already entered into the contract and therefore it was unenforceable against him.
(d) Though the terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer or party against whom they are trying to be enforced at the moment the contract was entered into. But, such types of clauses are generally part of all contracts and customers should be aware of such exclusion of liability clauses.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.50. Legal Principles:
1. When one person signifies to another person his willingness to do or not do something (abstain) with a view to obtain the assent of such person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal or an offer.
2. The communication of the offer is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
3. Communication of acceptance is complete when it is put in the course of transmission to him as to be out of the power of the acceptor to withdraw the same and when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
4. In case of the proposer, the communication of the acceptance is complete when he puts such acceptance in the course of transmission.
5. The communication in case of the acceptor is complete when the proposer acquires knowledge of such acceptance.
6. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.
Facts: G offered to sell the L fleeces of wool for a certain price. G requested that the response be made by post. This letter was misdirected by G so that it was not received for 3 days after it was sent. L decided to accept the offer and responded on the same day. This was posted on the 5th July but not received until the 9th July. However, G decided on the 8th July that as he had not received a response so decided to sell the wool to someone else. But L argued that a contract had been created as he had accepted their offer. Decide.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) No contract was formed as L accepted the offer even before he received the offer by post. Contract will be entered upon when L had received the offer and then written to him saying that the terms were agreed.
(b) The contract was entered on the 9th September when the acceptance was received by G.
(c) G is free to withdraw his offer before 9th September.
(d) The contract was entered on the 5th September when the acceptance was posted, not when it was received.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.51. Legal Principles:
1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
2. Acceptance must be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner, unless the proposal prescribes the manner in which it is to be accepted. If the proposal prescribes a manner in which it is to be accepted, and the acceptance is not made in such manner, the proposer may, within a reasonable time after the acceptance is communicated to him, insist that his proposal shall be accepted in the prescribed manner, and not otherwise; but, if he fails to do so, he accepts the acceptance.
Facts: TUV's employee performing installation on Motorola's premises was injured dueto the negligence of Motorola employees. TUV had executed a purchase order that contained an indemnity form. First purchase order contained indemnity provision which narrowly applied to damages caused by the negligence of TUV's employees. It attached a broader indemnity form page which would make TUV also responsible for the negligence of Motorola employees in connection with the work. This page was marked VOID. Amendment 2 to Purchase order contained same provision and attached same additional indemnity form which this time was not marked VOID. But also contained the additional language that "acceptance should be executed on acknowledgement copy which should be returned to the buyer." Employee was injured several months before the acknowledgement copy of the second purchase order was executed, but was in the course of performing work related to the second purchase order. Decide whether TUV liable under the broader indemnity provision.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) TUV is liable as workers have sustained injury during the course of their employment even though TUV has not accepted the amended purchase order as it did not execute the acknowledgement.
(b) Motorola's amendment gave a suggested mode of acceptance which did not preclude TUV's acceptance by another method. TUV accepted when TUV undertook performance of the work called for by the amendment with the "consent and acquiescence" of Motorola.
(c) TUV is not liable under the broader indemnity provision as it did not execute the acknowledgement copy until several months after the employee sustained his injury.
(d) TUV is not liable as commencement of work was acceptance to the first purchase order in which the broader indemnity provision was marked as void.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.52. Legal Principles:
1. A contract can become void when: It is unfairly one-sided; it goes against public policy; its  subject matter is illegal; it is impossible to perform; it unfairly restricts one side's actions (such as the right to work); one of the parties is not legally competent to enter into a binding contract. 2. A contract is void as against public policy if:
(1) it is a contract by the defendant to pay the plaintiff for inducing a public official to act in a certain manner;
(2) it is a contract to do an illegal act; or
(3) it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
Facts: BR Industries, a company manufacturing drills, machine parts and components thereof and a purchaser of subcontract work from other suppliers, won the bid from the HLK Company to supply certain parts to it at a specified price. BR industries then contracted with SU Co. to supply the parts under the contract for a much lower price. BR Industries then intended to keep the difference between the amount it billed the HLK Company and the amount SU Co. charged for the parts. BR Industries initiated an action for breach of contract when SU Co. failed to complete the order. In its defense, SU Co. asserts that the contract is void as against public policy because Defendant turned a profit of 84.09% on anvils, 39.13% on holder primers and 68.33% on plunger supports. Did plaintiff receive too much compensation deeming it unconscionable and against public policy?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) The contract is void as against public policy as it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
(b) The Contract is void as it unfairly one sided.
(c) Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men at "arms- length" without fraud will not affect the validity of the contract.
(d) Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men will affect the validity of the contract as it amounts to abuse of dominance and unconscionable.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.53. Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree. 
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement. 
Facts: In Dec. 2019, a convicted murderer who was sentenced to death escaped from the custody of Ramesh, a prison official. Ramesh later offered a reward of I NR 50,000 to anyone who captured the fugitive and returned him to the authorities. In Jan. 2020, without knowledge or notice of the reward, Sunil captured the fugitive and took him to Ramesh's jail house. Ramesh refused Sunil's demands for the reward money. Sunil filed a case against Ramesh to recover the reward. Ramesh alleges that there is no contract between Ramesh and Sunil.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) A mere offer or promise to pay did not give rise to a contract. Rather, the assent or meeting of two minds gave rise to a contract, and therefore it was not complete until the offer was accepted. Having notice or knowledge of the existence of the reward when he captured the fugitive is essential to Iris right to recover the reward offered by Ramesh.
(b) The act of capturing the fugitive was acceptance of the offer of reward through conduct and so a valid contract is entered upon.
(c) There was an offer by Ramesh and acceptance by Sunil and it is immaterial whether Sunil had notice or knowledge of the existence of the reward when he captured the fugitive.
(d) Such an offer, like the reward here, could be accepted by anyone who performs the service called for, when the acceptor knows that it has been made and acts in performance of it.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.54. Which of the following States have passed a Bill providing for life imprisonment and fine up to 1NR 5 Lakhs against accused in case of mob lynching leading to death of the victim?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Haryana

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.55. The strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India has been increased from 31 to ____ .    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) 34
(b) 38
(c) 33
(d) 35

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.56.  In September 2019, High Court of ____ has held that the right to have access to the internet is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Delhi
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Mumbai

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.57. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be challenged in a court of law.
III. Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV. The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha seats to a maximum of 550 & 250 respectively    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) I, II,III, IV
(b) I, II,III
(c) II, III
(d) I, IV

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.58. The Enemy Property Act applies to the property of which of the following?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) people who took citizenship of China & Pakistan
(b) People who took citizenship of Bangladesh, China & Pakistan
(c) people who took citizenship of Bangladesh & China
(d) people who took citizenship of China & Myanmar

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.59. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 provides for which of the following powers to prevent the spread of an epidemic disease?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. Inspection of person
II. detention of persons
III. penalties for disobeying provisions of the Act under Section 188, 269 & 271 Indian Penal Code
IV. legal protection of implementing officers
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) I, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.60. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Second Order 2020 under J&K Civil Services (Decentralization and Recruitment) Act provides for which of the following:    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. Anyone who has lived in the Union Territory of J&K for at least 10 years is a domicile.
II. Anyone who has studied there for at least seven years and appeared in Class X or Class XII examinations in any school in the region is a domicile.
III. Anyone who is registered as a migrant by the Relief and Rehabilitation Commissioner (Migrants) in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is a domicile.
IV. A domicile of the UT shall be eligible for appointment to any post with a pay scale of not more than Level-4 under the UT or any local authority within the territory.
(a) II, III
(b) I, II, III
(c) I, IV
(d) II, III, IV

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.61. Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th Schedule to the Constitution.
II. If 1/3rd of the members of the political party' defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti-Defection Law cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
(a) I, II
(b) I, II, IV
(c) II, III
(d) I, II, III, IV

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.62. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. The Ordinance seeks to increase competition in the agriculture sector and enhance farmers' income.
II. The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on certain specified items must be based on price rise.
III. The provisions of the Ordinance regarding the regulation of food items and the imposition of stock limits will apply to any government order relating to the Public Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
IV. Recently, sanitizers, masks and oxygen cylinders are included under the Act till June 30, 2020.
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, II
(c) III, IV
(d) only I

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.63. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has held that women officers are also entitled to Perm anent Commission in _____.    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Indian Navy
(b) Indian Army
(c) Indian Air Force
(d) all of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.64. In February 2020, the Supreme Court has held that reservations in promotion, in government jobs, is not a fundamental right and refused to give directions to provide reservations to the government of which of the following States?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Kerala
(d) Delhi

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.65. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendments Act?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) No arrest can be made without prior permission.
(b) No anticipatory bail can be granted to the accused under the Act.
(c) The Police must file an FIR and arrest the accused on receiving the complaint.
(d) The offences under the Act are cognizable.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.66. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya but apply to all other states and UTs in India.
II. The Act provides that that no order of cancellation of registration shall be passed unless the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
III. The Act increases the period of naturalisation for such group of persons from six years to eight years.
IV. The Act applies to those who were "forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion". It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration.
(a) I, IV
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) II, IV

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.67. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for preventive detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a lawyer.
(a) I, II
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) I, II, IV

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.68. Which of the following countries joined the International Criminal Court (ICC) in 2019?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Turkey
(b) Malaysia
(c) Myanmar
(d) India

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.69. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act grants citizenship to the Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains and Parsis ____ from ____ who had arrived in India before ____.     (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014
(b) Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014
(c) Myanmar, Pakistan and Tibet; 31 December 2011
(d) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Myanmar; 31 December 2011

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.70. Which of the following countries have abolished flogging as a form of punishment in April 2020?    (N.L.U.D., 2020)
(a) Indonesia
(b) Maldives
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Singapore

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.71. In India, the writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is _______    (D.U. I.LB.,2020)
(a) Both an absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & violation of principles of natural justice
(b) Violation of principles of natural justice
(c) An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction
(d) A request to produce the body of the person

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.72. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950 prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for constitutional?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
functionaries?
(a) Sixth Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Third Schedule

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.73. Who declared a state of emergency in India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India in the year 1975?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Giani Zail Singh
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(d) Sanjay Gandhi

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.74. Who among the following has a casting vote over a bill in a joint parliamentary session?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
(d) President of India

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.75. Exchange of Enclaves between India and Bangladesh was executed through    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 100 Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 101 Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 102 Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 99 Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.76. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is related to    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Uniform Civil Code for citizens
(b) Provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years
(c) The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition
(d) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.77. Supreme Court of India's judgement in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. v Union of India and Ors is related to    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Right to Privacy
(b) 2G Spectrum
(c) Coal gate Scam
(d) Section 377 of I PC

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.78. Indian legal system confers citizenship in the following manner
Choose the correct option:    D.U. LL.B., 2020
A. By Birth
B. By Descent
C. By Naturalisation
D. By Registration
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.79. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides for special provisions for citizenship for migrants from the following countries: 
A. Myanmar 
B. Afghanistan 
C. Bangladesh 
D. Pakistan 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) A, C and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.80. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during national?     (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
emergency?
(a) Article 19 and 21
(b) Article 14 and 21
(c) Article 14 and 19
(d) Article 20 and 21

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.81. The pardoning power of the Governor of a state includes:
A. Power to pardon a sentence of life imprisonment
B. Power to grant pardon where the punishment or sentence is by Court Martial
C. Power to remit a sentence.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.82. Which among the following recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Nehru Committee
(c) Gadgill Committee
(d) Mandal Commission

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.83. Which of the following option(s) are available for a party aggrieved by a decision of the Supreme Court of India?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
A. Curative Petition
B. Review Petition
C. Writ Petition
D. Public Interest Litigation
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.84. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, the right to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to the following restrictions:
A. Public Interest
B. Morality
C. Health
D. Other Provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.85. The provision relating to ex post facto law is embodied in    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Article 20(1)
(b) Article 20 (2)
(c) Article 20 (3)
(d) Article 13 (2)

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.86. Which of the following terms was inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42 Constitutional Amendment Act?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Sovereign
(b) Democratic
(c) Secular
(d) Unity

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.87. Which of the following grounds can be invoked to restrict freedom of speech and expression according to the Constitution of India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Sovereignty and Integrity of India
B. Friendly relations with foreign States
C. Security of the State
D. Contempt of court
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.88. Which is not true with regard to "common intention” under the Indian Penal Code?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Acts done by several persons  
(b) Pre - arranged plan
(c) Prior meeting of minds
(d) Membership of an unlawful assembly

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.89. Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Marital rape
(b) Adultery
(c) Stalking
(d) Both, Marital rape and Stalking

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.90. Which chapter of the Indian Penal Code deals with general exceptions?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Chapter III
(b) Chapter IV
(c) Chapter V
(d) Chapter VI

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.91. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being his penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Rape
(b) Sexual Harassment
(c) Sexual Assault
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.92.  The Doctrine of Rarest of Rare was established in    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Buchan Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) Mithu v. State of Punjab
(c) Shatrughan Singh Chauhan v. Union of India
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.93. Mensrea is not a necessary condition for    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Kidnapping
(b) Murder
(c) Theft
(d) Wrongful Restraint

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.94. The Maxim 'ignorantia facti excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat’ means    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Ignorance of fact excuses, ignorance of law does not excuse
(b) Ignorance of law excuses, ignorance of fact does not excuse
(c) Ignorance due to which mistake occurs is excused if done in good faith
(d) Ignorance due to which a vital mistake occurs, is not excused even if done in good faith

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.95. Under the Indian Penal Code, nothing is considered to be an offence if it is done by a child under ____ years of age.    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Nine

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.96. The right of private defence under the Indian Penal Code is available for the protection of    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Other humans only
(b) Only self
(c) Self and other humans
(d) Only property

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.97. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives you money. He thus induces Y to give him money. Here X has committed the offense of    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Defamation
(b) Mischief
(c) Criminal Intimidation
(d) Extortion

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.98. In Navtej Singh Johar case, dealing with transgender issues, the Supreme Court of India asked the Centre to include them in    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Other Backward Classes
(b) Scheduled Castes/Tribes
(c) Economically Backward Classes
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.99. 'A' in his madness, attempts to kill 'B'. 'B' hits 'A' with an iron rod seriously injuring him. Choose the correct option from below.    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 'B' has no right of private defence since 'A' is mad '
(b) 'B' has right of private defence though ‘A’ is mad
(c) 'B' is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on A’
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.100. The Fundamental Duties towards environment were imposed on the citizens in the year    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 1978
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1992

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.101. Bharat Stage Emission Standards (BSES) are set by the    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Ministry of Transport and Highways
(d) Supreme Court of India

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.102. The Blue Flag, a certification that a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator meets its stringent standards, is awarded by.    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE)
(c) United Nations
(d) International Seabed Authority

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.103. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is also known as the    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Earth Summit
(b) Paris Convention
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Montreal Protocol

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.104. Which among the following is an international treaty related to the protection of the ozone layer?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Paris Agreement
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) Aarhus Convention

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.105. The United Nations Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (or UN - REDD Programme) is a collaborative programme of the ____
A. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) None
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.106. Which of the following is a legal effect of adoption?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) An adopted child shall be deemed to be the child of his or her adoptive father or mother.
(b) All the ties of the child in the family of his or her birth shall be deemed to be severed.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.107. Under Muslim law, a legal guardian may    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Sell the movable property in the interest of the child
(b) Exercise right of pre - emption on behalf of the child
(c) Acknowledge a debt on behalf of the child
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.108. Which among the following is not a ground for divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Adultery
(b) Desertion
(c) Mental disorder
(d) Irretrievable breakdown of marriage

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.109.  Degrees of prohibited relationships is applicable between two persons if they are related by    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Full blood
(b) Half or uterine blood
(c) Adoption
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.110. Which of the following is provided in section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?     (D.U. LL..B., 2020)
(a) Registration
(b) Ceremonies for solemnising a Hindu marriage
(c) Adoption of child
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.111. The manager of Waqf is known as    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Mujwar
(b) Mutawalli
(c) Khadim
(d) Sajjada Nashin

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.112. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(b) 69th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 61st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 83rd Constitutional Amendment

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.113. The Election Commission of India does not have the power to    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Register a political party
(b) Re - register a political party
(c) Conduct election to State Legislatures
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.114. Who elects the representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
(b) All registered voters in India
(c) Elected Members of Parliament
(d) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Parliament

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.115. Which practices among the following constitute 'corrupt practice' in the Parliamentary election?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Bribery
(b) Procuring assistance of the government servants
(c) Promoting the feeling of hatred and enmity between different classes of citizens on ground of religion, caste etc.
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.116. What can be the maximum number of representatives of States and Union Territories in the Council of States?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 238
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 250

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.117. An agreement consists of reciprocal promises between at least ____    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Four parties
(b) Six parties
(c) Three parties
(d) Two parties

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.118. Who among the following does not have the capacity to enter into a contract?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Corporation
(b) Minor
(c) A person convicted of an offence 
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.119. The age of majority for entering into a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 25 years

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.120. A contract of insurance is an example of    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Quasi Contract
(b) Contingent Contract
(c) Both
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.121. Agreement of social nature is unenforceable because it lacks    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Intention to create moral relationship
(b) Intention to create social relationship
(c) Intention to create legal relationship
(d) Intention to create an agreement

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.122. Doctrine of privity of contract implies    (D.U. LL.B.; 2020)
(a) Only those persons who are party to a contract can enforce the same 
(b) Only those persons who are not party to a contract can enforce the same
(c) Only those persons who are known to the promisor can enforce the contract
(d) Only those persons who are known to the promisee can enforce the contract

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.123. In India, provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 apply to    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Citizens
(b) Persons
(c) Companies
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.124. Product patent in India was introduced in    (D.U. LI..B., 2020)
(a) 2004
(b) 2005
(c) 2003
(d) 2006

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.125. Industrial design specifically refers to    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Form of expression
(b) Functionality
(c) Form of expression with aesthetic appeal
(d) Invention

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.126. Which among the following combinations is not mentioned under the TRIPS?    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Patents, Trademarks and Copyright
(b) Patents, Trademarks and Industrial Designs
(c) Patents, Copyright and Data Exclusivity
(d) Patents, Copyright and Undisclosed Information

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.127. Intellectual property rights are ________ in their enforcement.    (D.U. LL. B„ 2020)
(a) Territorial
(b) Regional
(c) International
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.128. The trade - related intellectual property disputes are settled by    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) WIPO
(b) WTO
(c) ICJ
(d) World Economic Forum

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.129. The formula of making Coca Cola is protected under    (D.U. LL.B., 2020)
(a) Copyright
(b) Trademarks
(c) Trade Secrets
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.130. In 2017, Special Leave Petition for reinvestigation in the Mahatma Gandhi murder case was filed by ________ .     (AI LET, 2018)
(a) Amrendra Sharan
(b) Pankaj K. Phadnis
(c) Tushar Gandhi
(d) Raju Ramachandran

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.131. Who is the first Indian woman to be elected as the Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of Sea?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Dr. Neeru Chadha
(b) Justice Gita Mittal
(c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) Dr. Menaka Guruswamy

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.132. Which of the following river(s) is/are declared as a legal entity by an Act of Parliament?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Ganga
(b) Whanganui
(c) Yamuna
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.133. Which of the following lawyers approached the Supreme Court challenging the existing system of 'designation of Senior Advocates'?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Meenakashi Lekhi
(b) Vrinda Grover
(c) Indira Jaisingh
(d) Meenakshi Arora

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.134. 'Drunken Driving' is punishable under_____.    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Motor Vehicles Act
(c) Road Safety Standards Act
(d) National Highways Act

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.135. The Supreme Court on 12 December 2017 had directed that _ special criminal courts, to be set up to exclusively deal with cases involving _______ , should start functioning from March 1, 2018.    (AILET, 2018)
(a) 12, MPs/MLAs
(b) 12, Rape Accused
(c) 24, child-sexual abuser
(d) 24, Terrorism related offences.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.136. Which State Government, in India, has recently sanctioned stipend for junior lawyers practicing in the courts?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Delhi
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.137. From the field of Law and Justice, who is awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar 2018 on the International Women's Day?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Geeta Mittal
(b) Sudha Bharadwaj
(c) Flavia Agnes 
(d) Indira Jaisingh

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.138. Recently, the Supreme Court allowed ____ euthanasia and right to give advance medical directives on _________ , stating that human beings have the right to die with dignity as part of fundamental right to life.    (AILET, 2018)
(a) active, dying will
(b) passive, living will
(c) active, living will
(d) passive, dying will.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.139. Local self-governance is an example of 
(a) federalism
(b) democratic decentralisation
(c) direct democracy
(d) administrative delegation

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.140. The institutional infrastructure under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, rests on certain pillars:    (AILET, 2018)
I. Insolvency Professionals
II. Information Utilities
III. Adjudication
IV. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
V. Asset Construction Companies Correct code is:
(a) 1, II and III
(b) II, HI and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.141. In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India in the context of ______    (AILET, 2018)
(a) State Surveillance
(b) Power of search & seizure
(c) Homosexuality
(d) Indian Biometric Identification Scheme

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.142. The age of consent for sexual intercourse between a husband and wife has been made _______ from _______ years by the Supreme Court of India.    AILET, 2018
(a) 18,16
(b) 16,15
(c) 21,18
(d) 18,15

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.143. An accused is entitled to statutory bail (default bail) if the police failed to file the charge-sheet within _______ of his arrest for the offence punishable with 'imprisonment up to 10 years'.    (AILET, 2018)
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.144. Nelson Mandela Rules deal with    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Apartheid
(b) Truth and Reconciliation
(c) Prison Management
(d) Global Peace-making

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.145. The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017. Which of the following are true about it?    (AILET, 2018)
I. It declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it.
II. It makes declaration of talaq a bailable offence.
III. A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to two along with a fine.
IV. It entitles Muslim woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
(a) I and TV
(b) I, m and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.146. In August 2017, the Union Ministry of Law & Justice in association with the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) launched Tele-Law' scheme in _____ to provide legal aid services to marginalised communities and citizens living in rural areas through digital technology.    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.147. In March 2018, the Supreme Court of India has held that there cannot be a stay of more than _______ on trial of _________     (AILET, 2018)
(a) 6 months, civil and criminal cases
(b) 6 months, criminal cases
(c) 3 months, rape cases
(d) 3 months, civil and criminal cases

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.148. Which country has withdrawn from the International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reasons of international bias in March, 2018?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Burundi
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) Philippines

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.149. Regarding foreign law firms, the Supreme Court held    (AILET, 2018)
I. That foreign law firms can set up offices in India.
II. Foreign lawyers can practice in India.
III. Foreign lawyers can visit India for a temporary period on a fly in and fly out basis.
IV. Foreign lawyers can give advice to their clients on Indian laws.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, IV
(c) III
(d) III, IV.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.150. Which is the world's first country to enact a law under which companies and government agencies that employ at least 25 people will be fined if they can't prove they pay men and women equally?    (AILET, 2018)
(a) Iceland
(b) India
(c) Sweden
(d) France

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.151. Article 51-A on Fundamental Duties was inserted into the Constitution of India through the     (CLAT, 2018)
(a) 41st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
(b) 44th Constitution (Amendment) Art, 1978
(c) 40th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
(d) 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.152. The highest law officer in India is the    (CLAT, 2018)
(a) Attorney General
(b) Advocate General
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.153. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?    (CLAT, 2018) 
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 19
(d) 18

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.154. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an    (CLAT, 2018)
(a) Administrative authority
(b) Co-ordinating and Supervisory authority
(c) Consultative Committee
(d) Advisory body

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.155. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?    (CLAT, 2018)
(a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(b) To join the Defence Forces of India
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.156. The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to    (CLAT, 2018)
(a) All illiterate children of India
(b) All citizens of India
(c) Children aged between 6 and 14 years
(d) All children up to the age of 10 years.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.157. The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion' (A) and another as 'Reason' (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items from the codes given below.
Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor
Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty.    (CLAT, 2018)
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.158. Which was the law introduced by Sir William Bentinck to prohibit the practice of Sati?    (CLAT, 2018)
(a) Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829
(b) U.P. Sati Prohibition Act, 1828
(c) Indian Sati Prohibition Act, 1827
(d) Rajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act, 1830

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.159. Which among the following cities does not have a Bench of the National Green Tribunal?    (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Pune
(d) Kolkata

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.160. Which amongst the following is a committee constituted to inquire into allegations of corruption in Indian Premier League?    (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Satyajit Ray Committee
(b) Shyam Bcnegal Committee
(c) Justice Mukul Mudgal Committee
(d) Justice Khosla Committee

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.161. In India, the National Voter's Day is celebrated on    (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) 25th December
(b) 25th January
(c) 17th March
(d) 17th January

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.162. Who among the following is the current member of the International Law Commission from India?     (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Nagender Singh
(b) P.S.Rao
(c) Aniruddha Rajput
(d) Dalbir Bhandari

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.163. Who amongst the following judges of the Supreme Court of India never served as a High Court judge?     (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Justice A.M. Khanwilkar
(b) Justice Uday Umesh Lalit
(c) Justice Kurian Joseph
(d) Justice Abhay Manohar Sapre

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.164. Who amongst the following did not serve as the Chairman of the Law Commission of India?     (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Mr. M.C. Setalvad
(b) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy
(c) Justice A.P. Shah
(d) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.165. What is the meaning of ex facie?    (D.U. LL.B., 2018)
(a) Making the face down
(b) Beside the face of it
(c) Behind the face it
(d) On the face of it

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.166. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Complaints from three services
(b) Inter-state water disputes
(c) Inter-state boundary disputes.
(d) Election disputes.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.167. The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Norway
(b) Belgium
(c) Denmark
(d) Finland.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.168. Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.169. The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
(b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(c) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
(d) Raipur, Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.170. Which court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?     (CLAT, 2017)
(a) International Court of Justice
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) International Criminal Court
(d) Supreme Court of Pakistan.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.171. As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Andhra Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.172. During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Bhutan
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Nepal.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.173. Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Iran
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Pakistan.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.174. The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of    (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Millicent Fawcett
(b) Mother Theresa
(c) Margaret Thatcher  
(d) Queen Elizabeth - II

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.175. After Delhi and Goa, which is the third Indian State to have child-friendly court?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.176. john Doe order in India is known as    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Ashok Kumar Order
(b) DMCA Order
(c) Take Down Order
(d) Injunction

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.177. In 2016, the Supreme Court has clarified that the 'Third Gender" will include(s)    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Transgender
(b) Gays and Lesbians
(c) Bisexuals
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.178. New Zealand Government has granted legal status of a person to a ____ after a legal battle of 140 years.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) National Park
(b) Tree
(c) Mountain
(d) River

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.179. Central Vigilance Commissioner shall hold office for a term of ____ years from the date on which he enters upon his office.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.180. In Youth Bar Association v Union of India, the Supreme Court directed to upload copies of FIR within ____ hours on police website.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 48
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 48-72

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.181. India's first court-annexed mediation centre was established in    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Delhi
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chennai
(d) Karnataka

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.182. Which is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Estonia
(b) Finland
(c) France
(d) Germany

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.183. All students graduating from academic year ____ onwards need to clear the All India Bar Examination in order to practice law in India.     (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 2007-08
(b) 2009-10
(c) 2008-09
(d) 2010-11

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.184. The 'Public Trust' doctrine is related to    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Charitable Institution
(b) Environment
(c) Journalism
(d) Public Offices

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.185. The Delhi High Court has asked Facebook to ban children below ____ years of age from creating an account.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 16
(d) 18

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.186. Which one of the following decided to set up a website, which will compare the World's Constitutions by themes online "to arm drafters with a better tool for Constitution design and writing"?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) UN 
(b) Google
(c) Microsoft
(d) Amnesty

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.187. Mental Health Care Bill, 2016 seeks to    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
1. Decriminalise suicide
2. Prohibit electro-convulsive therapy
3. Provide right to make Advance Directives
4. Provide for seclusion and solitary confinement in few cases
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.188. What is the new minimum wage of nonagricultural, unskilled workers of the Central Government as announced by the Union Government on August 30, 2016?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) ₹ 350 per day
(b) ₹ 250 per day
(c) ₹ 246 per day
(d) ₹ 400 per day

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.189. Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill, 2016 provides ____ weeks of full paid maternity leave to women who work in organised sector.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 12
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 32

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.190. What is 'Carbon Footprint'?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) A kind of fossil.
(b) A measure to know the availability of petroleum products.
(c) Amount of carbon dioxide released into atmosphere.
(d) Analysis to know the breathing problems.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.191. When a convict is temporarily released from the prison for a fixed period of time, it is called ____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Parole
(b) Bail
(c) Discharge
(d) Acquittal

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.192. Under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, 'child' mean ____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) any child who has not completed 18 years of age
(b) a male child who has not completed 16 years of age and female child who has not completed 18 years of age
(c) any child who is not under guardianship
(d) any person who has not attained sufficient level of maturity and behaves like a child.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.193. "Begar" means    (NLU, Delhi, 2013 ')
(a) Voluntary work without payment
(b) Involuntary work without payment
(c) Involuntary work with payment
(d) Voluntary work with payment.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.194. In India, the reckoning date for the determination of the age of the juvenile is the     (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) date of offence
(b) date of trial
(c) date of judgment
(d) date of arrest

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.195. Which of the following are included in the definition of Sexual Harassment under the new Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Bill?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Physical contact and advances
(b) Demand or request for sexual favours
(c) Making sexually coloured remarks
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.196. The "Ecp-mark" is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest to the consumer products which    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) are degradable
(b) are environment friendly
(c) conform to the standards of ISI
(d) are electricity saver

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.197.  The El A is abbreviated form of    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Environment Impact Assessment
(b) Environment Implementation Arrangement
(c) Environment Impact Apparatus
(d) Environmental Institute of Awareness.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.198. ____ was the leader of "Chipko Movement"    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Medha Patkar
(b) Subhash Gheising
(c) Balasaheb Deoras
(d) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.199. "Pactasunt Servanda" means that    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered into by them
(b) The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them in good faith
(c) The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in good faith
(d) Though the States are bound to recognise an agreement entered into by them but cannot be compelled to follow it.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.200. According to the Doctrine of ____ every generation is obliged to preserve its natural and cultural heritage for the enjoyment of the future generations.     (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Polluter pay principle
(c) Precautionary principle
(d) Inter-generational equity

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.201. When two persons descend from a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by    (NLU, Delhi, 2013) 
(a) Sapinda relationship
(b) Half blood
(c) Full blood
(d) None of the above.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.202. 'Who is, presently, the Director of the National Judicial Academy?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Prof. N.R. Madhava Menon
(b) Justice G. Raghuram (Retd.)
(c) Prof. M.P. Singh
(d) Prof. K.N. Chandrasekharan Pillai

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.203. The act by members of a trade union, persuading others not to work is called as    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Non-cooperation
(b) Picketing
(c) Sit-in-strike
(d) Strike

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.204.  In India, cyber terrorism is an offence punishable under    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Information Technology Act
(b) POTA
(c) TADA
(d) Indian Penal Code

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.205. When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgment, which are said "by the way" and do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are called     (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Ratio Decidendi
(b) Obiter Dictum
(c) Observations
(d) Comments ordinaralis

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.206. In Extradition Treaty, extradition means    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Order of Indian Court will apply to Indian living elsewhere than India
(b) Export without double taxation
(c) Two countries will deport criminal on reciprocal basis to each other
(d) None of the above.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.207. ____ of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are juristic person and can sue and be sued.    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Article 225
(b) Article 268
(c) Article 300
(d) Article 348

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.208. A post-dated cheque bears ____ date.    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) past
(b) no
(c) future
(d) present

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.209. Which of the following is not recommended by the Justice Verma Committee?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Minimum sentence for a rapist should be enhanced from 7 years to 10 years
(b) The age of juvenile should not be lowered from 18 to 16 years
(c) Life imprisonment must always mean jail for "the entire natural life of the convict"
(d) Death sentence for "rarest of rare cases" of rape.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.210. "Justice must not only be done but also appear to be done and may I add, must be paid for being done." Who is the author of this statement?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Henry Cecil
(b) Francis Bacon
(c) Voltaire
(d) Seneca

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.211. Who described international law as positive morality?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Vladimir Lenin
(b) Mao Zodong
(c) Alexander Dworkin
(d) John Austin

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.212. To be tried under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2000 the accused must be below the age of:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 18
(b) 16 
(c) 14 
(d) 12

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.213. The principle that agreements must be respected in good faith, is known as:     (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Pactadantlegemcontractri
(b) Pactum de non petendo
(c) Raison d'etre
(d) Pactasuntservanda

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.214. Remarks of a judge, which are made casually and are not relevant to the case in-hand are known as:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Obiter dicta
(b) Ratio decidendi
(c) Precedent
(d) Binding source of law

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.215. Ignorance of law is:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Excused 
(b) Not excused
(c) Many times excused
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.216.  Full form of TRIPS is:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Traffic-related aspects of international ports
(b) Technology-related aspects of intellectual property rights
(c) Trade-related aspects of intellectual property rights
(d) Trade-related aspects of industrial property rights

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.217. A patent is granted for a:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) New expression
(b) New invention
(c) New combination
(d) New discovery

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.218.  A film is protected under ____ Act.    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Trade marks
(b) Patents
(c) Copyright
(d) Cinematograph

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.219. A marriage is said to be child marriage if:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) The girl is below 18 years and the boy is below 20 years
(b) The girl and the boy are below 21 years
(c) The girl is below 20 years and the boy the below 21 years
(d) The girl is below 18 years and the boy the below 21 years

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.220. Who is associated with drafting of the Indian Penal Code?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Thomas Macaulay
(b) Frederic Pollock
(c) Firdaus Kanga
(d) Henry S. Maine

Correct Answer is Option (a)