West Bengal: State Level Question Paper (SAT) - 2015-16 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015-16 
(STATE LEVEL) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
Page 2


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015-16 
(STATE LEVEL) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
 
1. If  ? ?
2
2
11
f 2x x 1 x 0 ,
x 4x
??
? ? ? ? ?
??
??
the value of f(x) is  
(a) 
2
4x   (b) 
2
11
2x
4x
??
?
??
??
  (c) 
2
1
x
4
  (d) 
2
1
4 2x
x
??
?
??
??
 
 
2. 
If x 2 x 3, ?? then the value of x is  
(a) 1   (b) 3   (c) 9   (d) – 1  
 
 
3. 
The value of 5 2 6 ? is 
(a) 
? ?
32 ??  (b) 32 ?  (c) 23 ?  (d) All of the above 
 
 
4. 
If x ay,y bx, ?? the value of 
11
a 1 1 b
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) x + y   (c) 
1
xy ?
  (d) 1 
 
5. 
The least value of 
22
2x 4x 3y 18y 31 ? ? ? ? is  
(a) 3   (b) – 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
6. 
If 
22
2r h r h ? ? ? , the value of r : h is ? ? r,h 0 ? 
(a) 4 : 3   (b) 3 : 4   (c) 1 : 2   (d) 2 : 1 
 
7. If x = cy + bz, y = cx + az, z = bx + ay, the value of a
2
 + b
2
 + c
2
 – 1 is 
(a) abc   (b) – abc   (c) 2abc   (c) – 2abc 
 
8. If x(x
3
 – 1) < 0, then 
(a) x < 0  (b) 0 < x < 1  (c) x > 1  (d) None of the above 
 
9. Among the numbers 2
250
, 3
200
, 4
150
 and 5
100
, the greatest is  
(a) 2
250
   (b) 3
200
   (c) 4
150
   (d) 5
100 
 
10. If a*b = a + b – ab, the value of 4 * 5 + 5 * 6 is  
(a) 20   (b) – 20   (c) 30   (d) – 30 
 
 
11. 
When the rate of interest being increased from 10% to 
1
12 %
2
, the yearly income of a person 
increases by Rs. 1,250. The principal amount was 
(a) Rs. 50,000  (b) Rs. 5,000  (c) Rs. 15,000  (d) 37,500 
 
12. A man sells two articles each at Rs. 198. He makes a profit of 10% on one article and a loss of 10% 
on the other. Net profit or loss of the person 
(a) 2% profit  (b) 2% loss  (c) 1% profit  (d) 1% loss 
 
13. The price of a house is Rs.6,76,000. If the price increases every year by 4%, before two years back 
the price of the house was 
(a) Rs. 6,00,000  (b) Rs. 6,25,000  (c) Rs. 6,50,000  (d) Rs. 5,75,000 
 
14. ‘O’ is any point inside the rectangle PQRS, then  
(a) OP
2
 + OR
2
 = OQ
2
 + OS
2
   (b) OP
2
 + OQ
2
 = OR
2
 + OS
2
 
(c) OP
2
 + OS
2
 = OQ
2
 + QR
2
   (d) None of the above  
Page 3


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015-16 
(STATE LEVEL) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
 
1. If  ? ?
2
2
11
f 2x x 1 x 0 ,
x 4x
??
? ? ? ? ?
??
??
the value of f(x) is  
(a) 
2
4x   (b) 
2
11
2x
4x
??
?
??
??
  (c) 
2
1
x
4
  (d) 
2
1
4 2x
x
??
?
??
??
 
 
2. 
If x 2 x 3, ?? then the value of x is  
(a) 1   (b) 3   (c) 9   (d) – 1  
 
 
3. 
The value of 5 2 6 ? is 
(a) 
? ?
32 ??  (b) 32 ?  (c) 23 ?  (d) All of the above 
 
 
4. 
If x ay,y bx, ?? the value of 
11
a 1 1 b
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) x + y   (c) 
1
xy ?
  (d) 1 
 
5. 
The least value of 
22
2x 4x 3y 18y 31 ? ? ? ? is  
(a) 3   (b) – 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
6. 
If 
22
2r h r h ? ? ? , the value of r : h is ? ? r,h 0 ? 
(a) 4 : 3   (b) 3 : 4   (c) 1 : 2   (d) 2 : 1 
 
7. If x = cy + bz, y = cx + az, z = bx + ay, the value of a
2
 + b
2
 + c
2
 – 1 is 
(a) abc   (b) – abc   (c) 2abc   (c) – 2abc 
 
8. If x(x
3
 – 1) < 0, then 
(a) x < 0  (b) 0 < x < 1  (c) x > 1  (d) None of the above 
 
9. Among the numbers 2
250
, 3
200
, 4
150
 and 5
100
, the greatest is  
(a) 2
250
   (b) 3
200
   (c) 4
150
   (d) 5
100 
 
10. If a*b = a + b – ab, the value of 4 * 5 + 5 * 6 is  
(a) 20   (b) – 20   (c) 30   (d) – 30 
 
 
11. 
When the rate of interest being increased from 10% to 
1
12 %
2
, the yearly income of a person 
increases by Rs. 1,250. The principal amount was 
(a) Rs. 50,000  (b) Rs. 5,000  (c) Rs. 15,000  (d) 37,500 
 
12. A man sells two articles each at Rs. 198. He makes a profit of 10% on one article and a loss of 10% 
on the other. Net profit or loss of the person 
(a) 2% profit  (b) 2% loss  (c) 1% profit  (d) 1% loss 
 
13. The price of a house is Rs.6,76,000. If the price increases every year by 4%, before two years back 
the price of the house was 
(a) Rs. 6,00,000  (b) Rs. 6,25,000  (c) Rs. 6,50,000  (d) Rs. 5,75,000 
 
14. ‘O’ is any point inside the rectangle PQRS, then  
(a) OP
2
 + OR
2
 = OQ
2
 + OS
2
   (b) OP
2
 + OQ
2
 = OR
2
 + OS
2
 
(c) OP
2
 + OS
2
 = OQ
2
 + QR
2
   (d) None of the above  
        
     
       
 
15. The vertical angles of two isosceles triangles are equal. If the ratio of the areas is 9 : 16, the ratio of 
the heights of the triangle is  
(a) 9 : 16  (b) 16 : 9  (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3  
 
16. If the edge of a regular tetrahedron is 1 cm, then its volume is  
(a) 
3
1
cm
12
  (b) 
3
2
cm
6
  (c) 
3
2
cm
12
  (d) 
3
2
cm
4
 
 
17. The length, breadth and height of a solid rectangular parallelepiped made of copper are 11 cm, 9 cm 
and 6 cm respectively. How many coins of radius 1.5 cm having thickness 0.25 cm can be produced 
by melting it? 
(a) 168   (b) 170   (c) 336   (d) 340 
 
18. If sin
2
A + sin
4
A = 1, the value of tan
2
A – tan
4
A is  
(a) – 1    (b) 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
19. 
The least value of 
22
sin x cos x
22
?
is  
(a) 4   (b) 22  (c) 2   (d) 2 
 
20. 
If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, the value of 
A C B D
tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2
? is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) – 1    (d) 2 
 
PHYSICS 
21. The linear momentum ‘p’ of a body having mass ‘m’ and kinetic energy ‘E’ is  
(a) p 2mE ?  (b) p E / 2m ? (c) p 2m / E ?  (d) p mE ? 
 
22. In the adjacent V – T diagram what is the relation between pressures P
1
 and P
2
? 
 
2
P
1
P
? ? V VOLUME
? ? T TEMPERATURE
 
 
(a) P
2
 = P
1
  (b) P
2
 > P
1
  (c) P
2
 < P
1
  (d) Cannot be predicted 
 
23. A musical instrument has tones of frequencies 256 Hz, 502 Hz, 1020 Hz and 1280 Hz. The 
frequencies of the fundamental and its harmonic are given by  
(a) 256 Hz and 502 Hz respectively  (b) 256 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively 
(c) 502 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively   (d) 256 Hz and 1280 Hz respectively   
24. The total energy of a particle executing Simple Harmonic Motion of amplitude ‘A’ is proportional to  
(a) A
2
   (b) A
-2
   (c) A   (d) 1/A 
 
25. 
Refractive index of a medium with respect to air is 2 ?? , find the critical angle between the two 
medium 
(a) 30
o
   (b) 90
o
   (c) 45
o
   (d) 60
o 
 
26. What will be the colour of the sky as seen from the earth if there is no atmosphere? 
(a) Black  (b) Blue  (c) Orange   (d) Red 
 
27. A convex lens of glass has power P in air. If it is immersed in water, its power will be  
(a) more than P      
(b) less than P   
(c) P       
(d) More the P for some colours and less than P for others 
Page 4


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015-16 
(STATE LEVEL) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
 
1. If  ? ?
2
2
11
f 2x x 1 x 0 ,
x 4x
??
? ? ? ? ?
??
??
the value of f(x) is  
(a) 
2
4x   (b) 
2
11
2x
4x
??
?
??
??
  (c) 
2
1
x
4
  (d) 
2
1
4 2x
x
??
?
??
??
 
 
2. 
If x 2 x 3, ?? then the value of x is  
(a) 1   (b) 3   (c) 9   (d) – 1  
 
 
3. 
The value of 5 2 6 ? is 
(a) 
? ?
32 ??  (b) 32 ?  (c) 23 ?  (d) All of the above 
 
 
4. 
If x ay,y bx, ?? the value of 
11
a 1 1 b
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) x + y   (c) 
1
xy ?
  (d) 1 
 
5. 
The least value of 
22
2x 4x 3y 18y 31 ? ? ? ? is  
(a) 3   (b) – 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
6. 
If 
22
2r h r h ? ? ? , the value of r : h is ? ? r,h 0 ? 
(a) 4 : 3   (b) 3 : 4   (c) 1 : 2   (d) 2 : 1 
 
7. If x = cy + bz, y = cx + az, z = bx + ay, the value of a
2
 + b
2
 + c
2
 – 1 is 
(a) abc   (b) – abc   (c) 2abc   (c) – 2abc 
 
8. If x(x
3
 – 1) < 0, then 
(a) x < 0  (b) 0 < x < 1  (c) x > 1  (d) None of the above 
 
9. Among the numbers 2
250
, 3
200
, 4
150
 and 5
100
, the greatest is  
(a) 2
250
   (b) 3
200
   (c) 4
150
   (d) 5
100 
 
10. If a*b = a + b – ab, the value of 4 * 5 + 5 * 6 is  
(a) 20   (b) – 20   (c) 30   (d) – 30 
 
 
11. 
When the rate of interest being increased from 10% to 
1
12 %
2
, the yearly income of a person 
increases by Rs. 1,250. The principal amount was 
(a) Rs. 50,000  (b) Rs. 5,000  (c) Rs. 15,000  (d) 37,500 
 
12. A man sells two articles each at Rs. 198. He makes a profit of 10% on one article and a loss of 10% 
on the other. Net profit or loss of the person 
(a) 2% profit  (b) 2% loss  (c) 1% profit  (d) 1% loss 
 
13. The price of a house is Rs.6,76,000. If the price increases every year by 4%, before two years back 
the price of the house was 
(a) Rs. 6,00,000  (b) Rs. 6,25,000  (c) Rs. 6,50,000  (d) Rs. 5,75,000 
 
14. ‘O’ is any point inside the rectangle PQRS, then  
(a) OP
2
 + OR
2
 = OQ
2
 + OS
2
   (b) OP
2
 + OQ
2
 = OR
2
 + OS
2
 
(c) OP
2
 + OS
2
 = OQ
2
 + QR
2
   (d) None of the above  
        
     
       
 
15. The vertical angles of two isosceles triangles are equal. If the ratio of the areas is 9 : 16, the ratio of 
the heights of the triangle is  
(a) 9 : 16  (b) 16 : 9  (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3  
 
16. If the edge of a regular tetrahedron is 1 cm, then its volume is  
(a) 
3
1
cm
12
  (b) 
3
2
cm
6
  (c) 
3
2
cm
12
  (d) 
3
2
cm
4
 
 
17. The length, breadth and height of a solid rectangular parallelepiped made of copper are 11 cm, 9 cm 
and 6 cm respectively. How many coins of radius 1.5 cm having thickness 0.25 cm can be produced 
by melting it? 
(a) 168   (b) 170   (c) 336   (d) 340 
 
18. If sin
2
A + sin
4
A = 1, the value of tan
2
A – tan
4
A is  
(a) – 1    (b) 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
19. 
The least value of 
22
sin x cos x
22
?
is  
(a) 4   (b) 22  (c) 2   (d) 2 
 
20. 
If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, the value of 
A C B D
tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2
? is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) – 1    (d) 2 
 
PHYSICS 
21. The linear momentum ‘p’ of a body having mass ‘m’ and kinetic energy ‘E’ is  
(a) p 2mE ?  (b) p E / 2m ? (c) p 2m / E ?  (d) p mE ? 
 
22. In the adjacent V – T diagram what is the relation between pressures P
1
 and P
2
? 
 
2
P
1
P
? ? V VOLUME
? ? T TEMPERATURE
 
 
(a) P
2
 = P
1
  (b) P
2
 > P
1
  (c) P
2
 < P
1
  (d) Cannot be predicted 
 
23. A musical instrument has tones of frequencies 256 Hz, 502 Hz, 1020 Hz and 1280 Hz. The 
frequencies of the fundamental and its harmonic are given by  
(a) 256 Hz and 502 Hz respectively  (b) 256 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively 
(c) 502 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively   (d) 256 Hz and 1280 Hz respectively   
24. The total energy of a particle executing Simple Harmonic Motion of amplitude ‘A’ is proportional to  
(a) A
2
   (b) A
-2
   (c) A   (d) 1/A 
 
25. 
Refractive index of a medium with respect to air is 2 ?? , find the critical angle between the two 
medium 
(a) 30
o
   (b) 90
o
   (c) 45
o
   (d) 60
o 
 
26. What will be the colour of the sky as seen from the earth if there is no atmosphere? 
(a) Black  (b) Blue  (c) Orange   (d) Red 
 
27. A convex lens of glass has power P in air. If it is immersed in water, its power will be  
(a) more than P      
(b) less than P   
(c) P       
(d) More the P for some colours and less than P for others 
        
     
       
 
 
28. Two electrodes are maintained at a potential difference of 100 V. An electron moving from cathode 
to anode gains kinetic energy 
(a) 160 × 10
-19
 Erg (b) 100 Joule   (c) 160 × 10
-19
 Joule (d) 100 Erg 
 
29. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary is 4 A then the current in the secondary is  
(a) 4 A   (b) 2 A   (c) 6 A   (d) 10 A 
30. What is the equivalent resistance between any two vertex of a triangle if the sides of the triangle are 
of equal resistance? 
(a) 3R   (b) 2R   (c) R   (d) 2R/3 
31. Fill in the gap 
25 1 22
12 1 11
Mg H Na _____ ? ? ? 
(a) 
1
H
1
   (b) 
2
He
4
   (c) 
1
H
3
   (d) 
1
H
2
 
32. Gamma ray is highly energetic  
(a) Electron     (b) Proton   
(c) Electromagnetic wave   (d) Neutron 
33. The radius of the nucleus of an atom of mass number A is proportional to  
(a) A
3/4
   (b) A
2/3
   (c) A
1/3
   (d) A
5/3
 
CHEMISTRY 
34. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is 
(a) 6.026 × 10
22
  (b) 1.806 × 10
23
  (c) 3.6 × 10
23
  (d) 1.8 × 10
22
 
 
35. An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than 
electrons. Atomic number of the element is 
(a) 24   (b) 25   (c) 26   (d) 27. 
 
36. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented? 
(a) H
–
 > H
+
 > H  (b) Na
+
 > F
–
 > O
2–
 (c) F
–
 > Na
+
 > O
2–
 (D) H
–
 > H > H
+
 
 
37. In the structure of Napthalene the difference between the number of sigma bonds and the number of 
pi bond is 
(a) 6   (b) 7   (c) 12   (d) 14. 
 
38. x mole of oxygen gas is kept in a container of definite volume at a pressure of P atmosphere at TK. 
At the same temperature another y mole of oxygen gas introduced in that container. The total 
pressure will be  
(a) x(1 +  y)P  (b) 
y x
xP
?
  (c) 
y x
yP
?
  (d) . P
x
y x
?
?
?
?
?
? ?
 
39. 0.25 mole of a hydrocarbon requires 0.5 mole of hydrogen for complete saturation. Possible formula 
of the hydrocarbon is 
(a) C
3
H
8
  (b) C
3
H
6
  (C) C
4
H
8
  (d) C
3
H
4
. 
40. Which of the following pair of compounds represent functional group isomerism? 
(a) Diethyl ether and ethanol   (b) dimethyl ether and ethanol 
(c) Acetadehyde and Propanal   (d) Isobutane and Butane. 
 
41. Extraction of highly electropositive metal is done by 
(a) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of metal chloride 
(b) Electrolysisi of molten metal chloride. 
(c) Carbon reduction of the oxide of the metal 
(d) Strongly heating the oxide of the metal. 
 
42. Which one is a Redox reaction? 
(a) HCl + AgNO
3
 = AgCl + HNO
3
  (b) NaBr + HCl = NaCl + HBr 
(c) Na
2
O + H
2
SO
4
 = Na
2
SO
4
 + H
2
O  (d) H
2
 + Br
2
 = 2HBr. 
 
 
Page 5


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2015-16 
(STATE LEVEL) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
   
 
 
 
 
    
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
 
1. If  ? ?
2
2
11
f 2x x 1 x 0 ,
x 4x
??
? ? ? ? ?
??
??
the value of f(x) is  
(a) 
2
4x   (b) 
2
11
2x
4x
??
?
??
??
  (c) 
2
1
x
4
  (d) 
2
1
4 2x
x
??
?
??
??
 
 
2. 
If x 2 x 3, ?? then the value of x is  
(a) 1   (b) 3   (c) 9   (d) – 1  
 
 
3. 
The value of 5 2 6 ? is 
(a) 
? ?
32 ??  (b) 32 ?  (c) 23 ?  (d) All of the above 
 
 
4. 
If x ay,y bx, ?? the value of 
11
a 1 1 b
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) x + y   (c) 
1
xy ?
  (d) 1 
 
5. 
The least value of 
22
2x 4x 3y 18y 31 ? ? ? ? is  
(a) 3   (b) – 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
6. 
If 
22
2r h r h ? ? ? , the value of r : h is ? ? r,h 0 ? 
(a) 4 : 3   (b) 3 : 4   (c) 1 : 2   (d) 2 : 1 
 
7. If x = cy + bz, y = cx + az, z = bx + ay, the value of a
2
 + b
2
 + c
2
 – 1 is 
(a) abc   (b) – abc   (c) 2abc   (c) – 2abc 
 
8. If x(x
3
 – 1) < 0, then 
(a) x < 0  (b) 0 < x < 1  (c) x > 1  (d) None of the above 
 
9. Among the numbers 2
250
, 3
200
, 4
150
 and 5
100
, the greatest is  
(a) 2
250
   (b) 3
200
   (c) 4
150
   (d) 5
100 
 
10. If a*b = a + b – ab, the value of 4 * 5 + 5 * 6 is  
(a) 20   (b) – 20   (c) 30   (d) – 30 
 
 
11. 
When the rate of interest being increased from 10% to 
1
12 %
2
, the yearly income of a person 
increases by Rs. 1,250. The principal amount was 
(a) Rs. 50,000  (b) Rs. 5,000  (c) Rs. 15,000  (d) 37,500 
 
12. A man sells two articles each at Rs. 198. He makes a profit of 10% on one article and a loss of 10% 
on the other. Net profit or loss of the person 
(a) 2% profit  (b) 2% loss  (c) 1% profit  (d) 1% loss 
 
13. The price of a house is Rs.6,76,000. If the price increases every year by 4%, before two years back 
the price of the house was 
(a) Rs. 6,00,000  (b) Rs. 6,25,000  (c) Rs. 6,50,000  (d) Rs. 5,75,000 
 
14. ‘O’ is any point inside the rectangle PQRS, then  
(a) OP
2
 + OR
2
 = OQ
2
 + OS
2
   (b) OP
2
 + OQ
2
 = OR
2
 + OS
2
 
(c) OP
2
 + OS
2
 = OQ
2
 + QR
2
   (d) None of the above  
        
     
       
 
15. The vertical angles of two isosceles triangles are equal. If the ratio of the areas is 9 : 16, the ratio of 
the heights of the triangle is  
(a) 9 : 16  (b) 16 : 9  (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3  
 
16. If the edge of a regular tetrahedron is 1 cm, then its volume is  
(a) 
3
1
cm
12
  (b) 
3
2
cm
6
  (c) 
3
2
cm
12
  (d) 
3
2
cm
4
 
 
17. The length, breadth and height of a solid rectangular parallelepiped made of copper are 11 cm, 9 cm 
and 6 cm respectively. How many coins of radius 1.5 cm having thickness 0.25 cm can be produced 
by melting it? 
(a) 168   (b) 170   (c) 336   (d) 340 
 
18. If sin
2
A + sin
4
A = 1, the value of tan
2
A – tan
4
A is  
(a) – 1    (b) 1   (c) 0   (d) 2 
 
19. 
The least value of 
22
sin x cos x
22
?
is  
(a) 4   (b) 22  (c) 2   (d) 2 
 
20. 
If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, the value of 
A C B D
tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2
? is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) – 1    (d) 2 
 
PHYSICS 
21. The linear momentum ‘p’ of a body having mass ‘m’ and kinetic energy ‘E’ is  
(a) p 2mE ?  (b) p E / 2m ? (c) p 2m / E ?  (d) p mE ? 
 
22. In the adjacent V – T diagram what is the relation between pressures P
1
 and P
2
? 
 
2
P
1
P
? ? V VOLUME
? ? T TEMPERATURE
 
 
(a) P
2
 = P
1
  (b) P
2
 > P
1
  (c) P
2
 < P
1
  (d) Cannot be predicted 
 
23. A musical instrument has tones of frequencies 256 Hz, 502 Hz, 1020 Hz and 1280 Hz. The 
frequencies of the fundamental and its harmonic are given by  
(a) 256 Hz and 502 Hz respectively  (b) 256 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively 
(c) 502 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively   (d) 256 Hz and 1280 Hz respectively   
24. The total energy of a particle executing Simple Harmonic Motion of amplitude ‘A’ is proportional to  
(a) A
2
   (b) A
-2
   (c) A   (d) 1/A 
 
25. 
Refractive index of a medium with respect to air is 2 ?? , find the critical angle between the two 
medium 
(a) 30
o
   (b) 90
o
   (c) 45
o
   (d) 60
o 
 
26. What will be the colour of the sky as seen from the earth if there is no atmosphere? 
(a) Black  (b) Blue  (c) Orange   (d) Red 
 
27. A convex lens of glass has power P in air. If it is immersed in water, its power will be  
(a) more than P      
(b) less than P   
(c) P       
(d) More the P for some colours and less than P for others 
        
     
       
 
 
28. Two electrodes are maintained at a potential difference of 100 V. An electron moving from cathode 
to anode gains kinetic energy 
(a) 160 × 10
-19
 Erg (b) 100 Joule   (c) 160 × 10
-19
 Joule (d) 100 Erg 
 
29. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary is 4 A then the current in the secondary is  
(a) 4 A   (b) 2 A   (c) 6 A   (d) 10 A 
30. What is the equivalent resistance between any two vertex of a triangle if the sides of the triangle are 
of equal resistance? 
(a) 3R   (b) 2R   (c) R   (d) 2R/3 
31. Fill in the gap 
25 1 22
12 1 11
Mg H Na _____ ? ? ? 
(a) 
1
H
1
   (b) 
2
He
4
   (c) 
1
H
3
   (d) 
1
H
2
 
32. Gamma ray is highly energetic  
(a) Electron     (b) Proton   
(c) Electromagnetic wave   (d) Neutron 
33. The radius of the nucleus of an atom of mass number A is proportional to  
(a) A
3/4
   (b) A
2/3
   (c) A
1/3
   (d) A
5/3
 
CHEMISTRY 
34. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is 
(a) 6.026 × 10
22
  (b) 1.806 × 10
23
  (c) 3.6 × 10
23
  (d) 1.8 × 10
22
 
 
35. An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than 
electrons. Atomic number of the element is 
(a) 24   (b) 25   (c) 26   (d) 27. 
 
36. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented? 
(a) H
–
 > H
+
 > H  (b) Na
+
 > F
–
 > O
2–
 (c) F
–
 > Na
+
 > O
2–
 (D) H
–
 > H > H
+
 
 
37. In the structure of Napthalene the difference between the number of sigma bonds and the number of 
pi bond is 
(a) 6   (b) 7   (c) 12   (d) 14. 
 
38. x mole of oxygen gas is kept in a container of definite volume at a pressure of P atmosphere at TK. 
At the same temperature another y mole of oxygen gas introduced in that container. The total 
pressure will be  
(a) x(1 +  y)P  (b) 
y x
xP
?
  (c) 
y x
yP
?
  (d) . P
x
y x
?
?
?
?
?
? ?
 
39. 0.25 mole of a hydrocarbon requires 0.5 mole of hydrogen for complete saturation. Possible formula 
of the hydrocarbon is 
(a) C
3
H
8
  (b) C
3
H
6
  (C) C
4
H
8
  (d) C
3
H
4
. 
40. Which of the following pair of compounds represent functional group isomerism? 
(a) Diethyl ether and ethanol   (b) dimethyl ether and ethanol 
(c) Acetadehyde and Propanal   (d) Isobutane and Butane. 
 
41. Extraction of highly electropositive metal is done by 
(a) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of metal chloride 
(b) Electrolysisi of molten metal chloride. 
(c) Carbon reduction of the oxide of the metal 
(d) Strongly heating the oxide of the metal. 
 
42. Which one is a Redox reaction? 
(a) HCl + AgNO
3
 = AgCl + HNO
3
  (b) NaBr + HCl = NaCl + HBr 
(c) Na
2
O + H
2
SO
4
 = Na
2
SO
4
 + H
2
O  (d) H
2
 + Br
2
 = 2HBr. 
 
 
        
     
       
 
43. Some amount of air is kept in an open container at 27°C. At what temperature the container should 
be heated in order to eliminate th
8
3
 part of the air from the container? 
(a) 307°C  (b) 207°C  (c) 107°C  (d) 100°C. 
 
44. What is the pH of 0.005 (M) H
2
SO
4
 solution? 
(a) 3   (b) 4   (c) 2   (d) 5. 
 
45. 
A
x
y
 and B
p
q
 are isotopes. Which equation is correct regarding the two atoms? 
(a) ? ? ? ? 0
2 2 2 2
? ? ? q y p x   (b) ? ? ? ? 0
2 2 2 2
? ? ? q y p x 
(c) ? ? ? ? 0
2 2 2 2
? ? ? p y q x   (d) ? ? ? ? . 0
2 2 2 2
? ? ? p y q x 
 
46. A mixture of CH
4
, C
2
H
4
 and C
2
H
2
 is passed through a basic copper (I) chloride solution. Which 
gas/gases will come out? 
(a) Whole mixture (b) CH
4
 and C
2
H
2
 (c) CH
4
 and C
2
H
4
 (d) C
2
H
4
. 
BIOLOGY 
47. In Mandelian monohybrid cross how many offsprings of recessive character will appear in F
2
 
generation out ot total progeny? 
(a) 
2
1
   (b) 
4
3
   (c) 
4
1
   (d) .
3
1
 
 
48. Various trophic levels of an ecological pyramid given below have been indicated as T
1
, T
2
, T
3
 and 
T
4
. In which trophic level maximum energy will be available? 
4
T
3
T
2
T
1
T
 
(a) T
4
   (b) T
3
   (c) T
2
   (d) T
1
. 
 
49. How many carbon is present in Acetyl COA? 
(a) Four   (b) One   (c) Three  (d) Two. 
 
50. Antibodies are complex 
(a) Lipoproteins  (b) Steroids  (c) Prostaglandins (d) Globulin Proteins. 
51. Podocyte cell is found in human 
(a) Glomerulus  (b) Bowman’s Capsule (c) Cerebrum  (d) Cerebellum. 
 
 
52. The simplest amino acid is 
(a) Lysine  (b) Leucine  (c) Glycine  (d) Methionine 
 
53. Gastric juice contains 
(a) Pepsin and trypsin (b) Pepsin and HCl (c) Trypsin ahd HCl (d) Amylase and Pepsin. 
 
54. Maximum amount of water from glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in  
(a) Proximal Convoluted Tubule   (b) Distal Convoluted Tubule 
(c) Descending limb of Henle’s loop  (d) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop. 
 
55. What will happen if diameter of artery is reduced? 
(a) Blood pressure will fall   (b) Blood pressure will increase 
(c) Blood pressure will remain same  (d) Blood will coagulate.