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 Page 1


   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
CHANDIGARH NTSE STAGE – I (2019-20) 
 
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2019 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
Scholastic Aptitude Test  
   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question: 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer 
Sheet as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against 
the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 questions in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before 
beginning to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on 
to the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left 
in the first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best 
use of it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose 
paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 
Please turn over the page and start your work. 
 
H 2O 
ROLL NUMBER: 
Page 2


   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
CHANDIGARH NTSE STAGE – I (2019-20) 
 
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2019 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
Scholastic Aptitude Test  
   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question: 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer 
Sheet as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against 
the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 questions in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before 
beginning to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on 
to the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left 
in the first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best 
use of it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose 
paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 
Please turn over the page and start your work. 
 
H 2O 
ROLL NUMBER: 
  
   
 
 
 
SST 
1. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in ___________.  
 (A) 1848 (B) 1815 
 (C) 1804 (D) 1884 
 
2. Put the following events in sequence.  
 (i)  Return of Lenin  
 (ii) October Revolution  
 (iii) Russian peace with Germany  
 (iv)  February Revolution  
 (v) Centralised Planning  
 (A) i, iii, iv, v, ii (B) iv, i, ii, iii, v  
 (C) iv, ii, i, iii, v  (D) ii, v, i, iii, v  
 
3. Name the minister of propaganda under the Hitler Rule.  
 (A) Joseph Goebbels  (B) Hindenburg  
 (C) Hjalmar Schacht  (D) Ernest Heimer  
 
4. Name the axis powers in second world war  
 (A) Germany, ltaly, Japan  (B) Germany, Austria, Prussia  
 (C) Germany, Austria, Russia  (D) Germany, Japan, Russia  
 
5. Consider the following Indian leaders.  
 i  Motilal Nehru  
 ii  Dada Bhai Naoroji  
 iii  Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 iv  Mahatma Gandhi  
 The correct Chronological order in which they appeared on national scene is  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv  (B) iv, iii, ii, i 
 (C) iii, ii, i, iv  (D) ii, i, iii, iv  
 
6. Who founded SATYASHODHAK SAMAJ.  
 (A) Jyotiba Phule  (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 (C) Swami Vivekanand  (D) Swami Dayanand  
 
7. Which of the following picture was on cover page of music book by E.T. Paul  
 (A) Dawn of century  (B) Dawn of industrial age  
 (C) Dawn of Agricultural age  (D) Dawn of 21
st
 Century  
 
8. Choose the correct statements:  
 i.   The Zollverein was formed in 1834  
 ii.  It abolished tariff barriers. 
 iii. It reduced the number of currencies from thirty to one  
 iv.  It was initiative of prussia and joined by all German states  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) ii and iii 
 (C) i, ii and iv  (D) ii, iii and iv  
 
9. The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest of two leaders They were___________.  
 (A) Bhagat Singh and Dr. Satyapal  (B) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru  
 (C) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Mahatma Gandhi  (D) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal  
 
10. The national assembly of France voted in April 1792 to declare war against ___________. 
 (A) Germany and Austria  (B) Germany and England  
 (C) Prussia and England  (D) Prussia and Austria  
 
11. Out of 250 members of Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by president.  
 (A) 11 (B) 10 
 (C) 14 (D) 12 
 
12. Which article in Indian Constitution stipulates that there shall be vice- President of India  
 (A) Article 63 (B) Article 65 
 (C) Article 66 (D) Article 62 
 
CHANDIGARH STAGE 1- 2019-20 
Scholastic Aptitude Test 
 
Page 3


   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
CHANDIGARH NTSE STAGE – I (2019-20) 
 
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2019 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
Scholastic Aptitude Test  
   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question: 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer 
Sheet as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against 
the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 questions in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before 
beginning to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on 
to the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left 
in the first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best 
use of it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose 
paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 
Please turn over the page and start your work. 
 
H 2O 
ROLL NUMBER: 
  
   
 
 
 
SST 
1. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in ___________.  
 (A) 1848 (B) 1815 
 (C) 1804 (D) 1884 
 
2. Put the following events in sequence.  
 (i)  Return of Lenin  
 (ii) October Revolution  
 (iii) Russian peace with Germany  
 (iv)  February Revolution  
 (v) Centralised Planning  
 (A) i, iii, iv, v, ii (B) iv, i, ii, iii, v  
 (C) iv, ii, i, iii, v  (D) ii, v, i, iii, v  
 
3. Name the minister of propaganda under the Hitler Rule.  
 (A) Joseph Goebbels  (B) Hindenburg  
 (C) Hjalmar Schacht  (D) Ernest Heimer  
 
4. Name the axis powers in second world war  
 (A) Germany, ltaly, Japan  (B) Germany, Austria, Prussia  
 (C) Germany, Austria, Russia  (D) Germany, Japan, Russia  
 
5. Consider the following Indian leaders.  
 i  Motilal Nehru  
 ii  Dada Bhai Naoroji  
 iii  Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 iv  Mahatma Gandhi  
 The correct Chronological order in which they appeared on national scene is  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv  (B) iv, iii, ii, i 
 (C) iii, ii, i, iv  (D) ii, i, iii, iv  
 
6. Who founded SATYASHODHAK SAMAJ.  
 (A) Jyotiba Phule  (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 (C) Swami Vivekanand  (D) Swami Dayanand  
 
7. Which of the following picture was on cover page of music book by E.T. Paul  
 (A) Dawn of century  (B) Dawn of industrial age  
 (C) Dawn of Agricultural age  (D) Dawn of 21
st
 Century  
 
8. Choose the correct statements:  
 i.   The Zollverein was formed in 1834  
 ii.  It abolished tariff barriers. 
 iii. It reduced the number of currencies from thirty to one  
 iv.  It was initiative of prussia and joined by all German states  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) ii and iii 
 (C) i, ii and iv  (D) ii, iii and iv  
 
9. The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest of two leaders They were___________.  
 (A) Bhagat Singh and Dr. Satyapal  (B) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru  
 (C) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Mahatma Gandhi  (D) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal  
 
10. The national assembly of France voted in April 1792 to declare war against ___________. 
 (A) Germany and Austria  (B) Germany and England  
 (C) Prussia and England  (D) Prussia and Austria  
 
11. Out of 250 members of Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by president.  
 (A) 11 (B) 10 
 (C) 14 (D) 12 
 
12. Which article in Indian Constitution stipulates that there shall be vice- President of India  
 (A) Article 63 (B) Article 65 
 (C) Article 66 (D) Article 62 
 
CHANDIGARH STAGE 1- 2019-20 
Scholastic Aptitude Test 
 
 
   
  
13. Point out the difference between the local government in India before and after the constitutional amendment in 
1992. 
 i.  It became mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies  
 ii. One third positions reserved for women    
 iii. Elected officials exercise supreme    
 (A) Only i  (B) i and ii 
 (C) i, ii and iii (D) ii and iii 
 
14. When did the civil rights movement take place in USA  
 (A) 1953-1958 (B) 1954-1968 
 (C) 1960-1970 (D) 1946-1978 
 
15. When was Bhartiya Janta Party formed?  
 (A) 10
th
 April, 1975 (B) 6
th
 April, 1970 
 (C) 6
th
 April, 1980 (D) 10
th
 April, 1985 
 
16. In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by democracies?  
 (A) Eliminated conflicts among people  
 (B) Eliminated economic inequalities among people  
 (C) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalized actions are to be treated  
 (D) Rejected the ideal of political inequality  
 
17. Who passed “Legal Frame work Order 2002”?  
 (A) Zanu  (B) Robert Mugabe  
 (C) General Musharraf  (D) Allende  
 
18. Select the right combination of subjects under union list.  
 (A) Defence, Atomic energy, Post and telegraphs, war and peace  
 (B) Railways, Land, Trade, Police  
 (C) Education, Agricultural land, Trade, Defence  
 (D) Cyber laws, Adoption, Trade, Forests  
 
19. Which one of the following countries was the first one to grant Universal Suffrage?  
 (A) Russia  (B) Germany  
 (C) New Zealand  (D) The Netherland  
 
20. Which of the following is working capital?  
 (A) Electricity bill (B) Tube well  
 (C) Tractor  (D) Machines  
 
21. Coins in India are minted by  
 (A) Ministry of Finance, Government of India  
 (B) Reserve Bank of India  
 (C) State Bank of India  
 (D) Central Bank of India  
 
22. What should be includced in national income by expenditure method  
 i.   Self-produced final product  
 ii.  Expenditure on second hand goods  
 iii. Expenditure on shares  
 iv. Expenditure on intermediate goods  
 (A) ii, iii, iv  (B) i and ii  
 (C) i only  (D) iii and iv  
 
23. What is the definition of overweight? 
 (A) BMI > 25 kg/m
2
 (B) BMI = 25 kg/m
2
 
 (C) BMI = 25-29.9 kg/m
2
 (D) BMI = 25-30 kg/m
2
 
 
24. Name one of the following Agency that develops standards for goods and services.  
 (A) COPRA  (B) National Consumer forum  
 (C) Consumer protection council  (D) Bureau of Indian Standards  
 
25. National Food for work programme was Launched in__________.  
 (A) 2003 (B) 2001 
 (C) 2004 (D) 2005 
 
26. Which of the following countries has poor natural resources but rich human resources  
 (A) India  (B) Nepal  
 (C) Japan  (D) Sri Lanka  
 
Page 4


   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
CHANDIGARH NTSE STAGE – I (2019-20) 
 
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2019 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
Scholastic Aptitude Test  
   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question: 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer 
Sheet as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against 
the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 questions in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before 
beginning to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on 
to the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left 
in the first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best 
use of it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose 
paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 
Please turn over the page and start your work. 
 
H 2O 
ROLL NUMBER: 
  
   
 
 
 
SST 
1. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in ___________.  
 (A) 1848 (B) 1815 
 (C) 1804 (D) 1884 
 
2. Put the following events in sequence.  
 (i)  Return of Lenin  
 (ii) October Revolution  
 (iii) Russian peace with Germany  
 (iv)  February Revolution  
 (v) Centralised Planning  
 (A) i, iii, iv, v, ii (B) iv, i, ii, iii, v  
 (C) iv, ii, i, iii, v  (D) ii, v, i, iii, v  
 
3. Name the minister of propaganda under the Hitler Rule.  
 (A) Joseph Goebbels  (B) Hindenburg  
 (C) Hjalmar Schacht  (D) Ernest Heimer  
 
4. Name the axis powers in second world war  
 (A) Germany, ltaly, Japan  (B) Germany, Austria, Prussia  
 (C) Germany, Austria, Russia  (D) Germany, Japan, Russia  
 
5. Consider the following Indian leaders.  
 i  Motilal Nehru  
 ii  Dada Bhai Naoroji  
 iii  Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 iv  Mahatma Gandhi  
 The correct Chronological order in which they appeared on national scene is  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv  (B) iv, iii, ii, i 
 (C) iii, ii, i, iv  (D) ii, i, iii, iv  
 
6. Who founded SATYASHODHAK SAMAJ.  
 (A) Jyotiba Phule  (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 (C) Swami Vivekanand  (D) Swami Dayanand  
 
7. Which of the following picture was on cover page of music book by E.T. Paul  
 (A) Dawn of century  (B) Dawn of industrial age  
 (C) Dawn of Agricultural age  (D) Dawn of 21
st
 Century  
 
8. Choose the correct statements:  
 i.   The Zollverein was formed in 1834  
 ii.  It abolished tariff barriers. 
 iii. It reduced the number of currencies from thirty to one  
 iv.  It was initiative of prussia and joined by all German states  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) ii and iii 
 (C) i, ii and iv  (D) ii, iii and iv  
 
9. The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest of two leaders They were___________.  
 (A) Bhagat Singh and Dr. Satyapal  (B) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru  
 (C) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Mahatma Gandhi  (D) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal  
 
10. The national assembly of France voted in April 1792 to declare war against ___________. 
 (A) Germany and Austria  (B) Germany and England  
 (C) Prussia and England  (D) Prussia and Austria  
 
11. Out of 250 members of Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by president.  
 (A) 11 (B) 10 
 (C) 14 (D) 12 
 
12. Which article in Indian Constitution stipulates that there shall be vice- President of India  
 (A) Article 63 (B) Article 65 
 (C) Article 66 (D) Article 62 
 
CHANDIGARH STAGE 1- 2019-20 
Scholastic Aptitude Test 
 
 
   
  
13. Point out the difference between the local government in India before and after the constitutional amendment in 
1992. 
 i.  It became mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies  
 ii. One third positions reserved for women    
 iii. Elected officials exercise supreme    
 (A) Only i  (B) i and ii 
 (C) i, ii and iii (D) ii and iii 
 
14. When did the civil rights movement take place in USA  
 (A) 1953-1958 (B) 1954-1968 
 (C) 1960-1970 (D) 1946-1978 
 
15. When was Bhartiya Janta Party formed?  
 (A) 10
th
 April, 1975 (B) 6
th
 April, 1970 
 (C) 6
th
 April, 1980 (D) 10
th
 April, 1985 
 
16. In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by democracies?  
 (A) Eliminated conflicts among people  
 (B) Eliminated economic inequalities among people  
 (C) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalized actions are to be treated  
 (D) Rejected the ideal of political inequality  
 
17. Who passed “Legal Frame work Order 2002”?  
 (A) Zanu  (B) Robert Mugabe  
 (C) General Musharraf  (D) Allende  
 
18. Select the right combination of subjects under union list.  
 (A) Defence, Atomic energy, Post and telegraphs, war and peace  
 (B) Railways, Land, Trade, Police  
 (C) Education, Agricultural land, Trade, Defence  
 (D) Cyber laws, Adoption, Trade, Forests  
 
19. Which one of the following countries was the first one to grant Universal Suffrage?  
 (A) Russia  (B) Germany  
 (C) New Zealand  (D) The Netherland  
 
20. Which of the following is working capital?  
 (A) Electricity bill (B) Tube well  
 (C) Tractor  (D) Machines  
 
21. Coins in India are minted by  
 (A) Ministry of Finance, Government of India  
 (B) Reserve Bank of India  
 (C) State Bank of India  
 (D) Central Bank of India  
 
22. What should be includced in national income by expenditure method  
 i.   Self-produced final product  
 ii.  Expenditure on second hand goods  
 iii. Expenditure on shares  
 iv. Expenditure on intermediate goods  
 (A) ii, iii, iv  (B) i and ii  
 (C) i only  (D) iii and iv  
 
23. What is the definition of overweight? 
 (A) BMI > 25 kg/m
2
 (B) BMI = 25 kg/m
2
 
 (C) BMI = 25-29.9 kg/m
2
 (D) BMI = 25-30 kg/m
2
 
 
24. Name one of the following Agency that develops standards for goods and services.  
 (A) COPRA  (B) National Consumer forum  
 (C) Consumer protection council  (D) Bureau of Indian Standards  
 
25. National Food for work programme was Launched in__________.  
 (A) 2003 (B) 2001 
 (C) 2004 (D) 2005 
 
26. Which of the following countries has poor natural resources but rich human resources  
 (A) India  (B) Nepal  
 (C) Japan  (D) Sri Lanka  
 
  
   
 
27. What is the Gross National Product?  
 (A) The total value of Goods and services manufactured in the country  
 (B) The total value of all the transactions in the country  
 (C) Reduction in the total value of goods and services produced in the country  
 (D) The total worth of goods and services generated in the country and net factor income from abroad.  
 
28. Which one of the following is an incorrect fact regarding south India.  
 (A) Diurnal range of temperature is less  (B) Annual range of temperature is less  
 (C) Temperatures are high throughout the year.  (D) Extreme climatic conditions are found here.  
 
29. Read the two statements A and B and choose the best answer.  
 A.  Assertion: Petrochemical Industry is a fast-growing Industry.  
 B. Reason: Synthetic rubber, plastics, insecticides etc are the products of petro chemical industry  
 (A) A and B both are correct and B explains A  
 (B) A and B are both correct but B does not explain A  
 (C) A is correct but B is incorrect  
 (D) A and B are both incorrect  
 
30. The process of “ Retting” is associated with which of the following?  
 (A) Tea  (B) Coffee 
 (C) Jute  (D) Rubber  
 
31. The “Golden Quadrilateral” which connects Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-and Kolkata passes through....  
 (A) AMRITSAR-AHMEDABAD-PUNE-PATNA   
 (B) JAIPUR-PORBANDER-HYDERABAD-VARANASI  
 (C) VADODARA-PUNE-VISHAKHAPATNAM-VARANASI 
 (D) NAGPUR-BHOPAL-SURAT-AMRITSAR  
 
32. The Narmada river in the peninsular plateau flows westward with a remarkably straight channel. It is because 
_____. 
 (A) Slope gradient in this part controls the river channel pattern  
 (B) River carries huge amount of water which has created straight channel course  
 (C) River forms the boundary between central highlands and the Deccan  Plateau  
 (D) River flows through the trough of a rift valley inclined westward  
 
33. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90
o
 W longitude, what would be time in a city located on 105
o
W longitude  
 (A) 13:00 (B) 12:30 
 (C) 11:30 (D) 11:00 
 
34. Iron ore from kudermukh is most likely to be exported through  
 (A) Goa  (B) Kochi  
 (C) Mangalore  (D) Ennore  
 
35. Marble is a type of ______________rock.  
 (A) Sedimentary  (B) Metamorphic  
 (C) Basalt  (D) Igneous  
 
36. Match the following:  
  
I Iron  a Digboi  
II Coal  b Singhbhum  
III Manganese  c Balaghat  
IV Oil  d Raniganj  
 
 (A) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a  
 (C) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (D) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a  
 
37. Which of the following is found on the foothills and river valley placer deposits:  
 (A) lead  (B) gypsum  
 (C) bauxite  (D) gold  
 
38. Choose the false statement among the following statements:  
 (A) The southwest monsoon is a continuation of the southeast trade wind, deflected towards the Indian 
subcontinent after crossing the equator.  
 (B) In winter, India is under the influence of North west monsoon due to westerly jet stream  
 (C) The southwest monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by 1
st
 june.  
 (D) The shift in the position of the ITCZ is related to the phenomena of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream 
from its position over the north Indian plain.  
 
 
Page 5


   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
CHANDIGARH NTSE STAGE – I (2019-20) 
 
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2019 
 
 
 
 
 
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 
 
Please read the instructions carefully. 
 
Scholastic Aptitude Test  
   
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
             
           
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Instructions to the Candidates 
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question: 
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET. 
2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer 
Sheet as given in your admission card. 
3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers. 
4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against 
the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 
5. There are 100 questions in the test. 
6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try read the whole question paper before 
beginning to answer it. 
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on 
to the next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left 
in the first instance and try them again. 
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best 
use of it by not spending too much time on any one question. 
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose 
paper. 
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. 
11. Please return the answer sheet to the invigilator after the test. 
Please turn over the page and start your work. 
 
H 2O 
ROLL NUMBER: 
  
   
 
 
 
SST 
1. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in ___________.  
 (A) 1848 (B) 1815 
 (C) 1804 (D) 1884 
 
2. Put the following events in sequence.  
 (i)  Return of Lenin  
 (ii) October Revolution  
 (iii) Russian peace with Germany  
 (iv)  February Revolution  
 (v) Centralised Planning  
 (A) i, iii, iv, v, ii (B) iv, i, ii, iii, v  
 (C) iv, ii, i, iii, v  (D) ii, v, i, iii, v  
 
3. Name the minister of propaganda under the Hitler Rule.  
 (A) Joseph Goebbels  (B) Hindenburg  
 (C) Hjalmar Schacht  (D) Ernest Heimer  
 
4. Name the axis powers in second world war  
 (A) Germany, ltaly, Japan  (B) Germany, Austria, Prussia  
 (C) Germany, Austria, Russia  (D) Germany, Japan, Russia  
 
5. Consider the following Indian leaders.  
 i  Motilal Nehru  
 ii  Dada Bhai Naoroji  
 iii  Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 iv  Mahatma Gandhi  
 The correct Chronological order in which they appeared on national scene is  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv  (B) iv, iii, ii, i 
 (C) iii, ii, i, iv  (D) ii, i, iii, iv  
 
6. Who founded SATYASHODHAK SAMAJ.  
 (A) Jyotiba Phule  (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy  
 (C) Swami Vivekanand  (D) Swami Dayanand  
 
7. Which of the following picture was on cover page of music book by E.T. Paul  
 (A) Dawn of century  (B) Dawn of industrial age  
 (C) Dawn of Agricultural age  (D) Dawn of 21
st
 Century  
 
8. Choose the correct statements:  
 i.   The Zollverein was formed in 1834  
 ii.  It abolished tariff barriers. 
 iii. It reduced the number of currencies from thirty to one  
 iv.  It was initiative of prussia and joined by all German states  
 (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) ii and iii 
 (C) i, ii and iv  (D) ii, iii and iv  
 
9. The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest of two leaders They were___________.  
 (A) Bhagat Singh and Dr. Satyapal  (B) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru  
 (C) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Mahatma Gandhi  (D) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal  
 
10. The national assembly of France voted in April 1792 to declare war against ___________. 
 (A) Germany and Austria  (B) Germany and England  
 (C) Prussia and England  (D) Prussia and Austria  
 
11. Out of 250 members of Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by president.  
 (A) 11 (B) 10 
 (C) 14 (D) 12 
 
12. Which article in Indian Constitution stipulates that there shall be vice- President of India  
 (A) Article 63 (B) Article 65 
 (C) Article 66 (D) Article 62 
 
CHANDIGARH STAGE 1- 2019-20 
Scholastic Aptitude Test 
 
 
   
  
13. Point out the difference between the local government in India before and after the constitutional amendment in 
1992. 
 i.  It became mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies  
 ii. One third positions reserved for women    
 iii. Elected officials exercise supreme    
 (A) Only i  (B) i and ii 
 (C) i, ii and iii (D) ii and iii 
 
14. When did the civil rights movement take place in USA  
 (A) 1953-1958 (B) 1954-1968 
 (C) 1960-1970 (D) 1946-1978 
 
15. When was Bhartiya Janta Party formed?  
 (A) 10
th
 April, 1975 (B) 6
th
 April, 1970 
 (C) 6
th
 April, 1980 (D) 10
th
 April, 1985 
 
16. In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by democracies?  
 (A) Eliminated conflicts among people  
 (B) Eliminated economic inequalities among people  
 (C) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalized actions are to be treated  
 (D) Rejected the ideal of political inequality  
 
17. Who passed “Legal Frame work Order 2002”?  
 (A) Zanu  (B) Robert Mugabe  
 (C) General Musharraf  (D) Allende  
 
18. Select the right combination of subjects under union list.  
 (A) Defence, Atomic energy, Post and telegraphs, war and peace  
 (B) Railways, Land, Trade, Police  
 (C) Education, Agricultural land, Trade, Defence  
 (D) Cyber laws, Adoption, Trade, Forests  
 
19. Which one of the following countries was the first one to grant Universal Suffrage?  
 (A) Russia  (B) Germany  
 (C) New Zealand  (D) The Netherland  
 
20. Which of the following is working capital?  
 (A) Electricity bill (B) Tube well  
 (C) Tractor  (D) Machines  
 
21. Coins in India are minted by  
 (A) Ministry of Finance, Government of India  
 (B) Reserve Bank of India  
 (C) State Bank of India  
 (D) Central Bank of India  
 
22. What should be includced in national income by expenditure method  
 i.   Self-produced final product  
 ii.  Expenditure on second hand goods  
 iii. Expenditure on shares  
 iv. Expenditure on intermediate goods  
 (A) ii, iii, iv  (B) i and ii  
 (C) i only  (D) iii and iv  
 
23. What is the definition of overweight? 
 (A) BMI > 25 kg/m
2
 (B) BMI = 25 kg/m
2
 
 (C) BMI = 25-29.9 kg/m
2
 (D) BMI = 25-30 kg/m
2
 
 
24. Name one of the following Agency that develops standards for goods and services.  
 (A) COPRA  (B) National Consumer forum  
 (C) Consumer protection council  (D) Bureau of Indian Standards  
 
25. National Food for work programme was Launched in__________.  
 (A) 2003 (B) 2001 
 (C) 2004 (D) 2005 
 
26. Which of the following countries has poor natural resources but rich human resources  
 (A) India  (B) Nepal  
 (C) Japan  (D) Sri Lanka  
 
  
   
 
27. What is the Gross National Product?  
 (A) The total value of Goods and services manufactured in the country  
 (B) The total value of all the transactions in the country  
 (C) Reduction in the total value of goods and services produced in the country  
 (D) The total worth of goods and services generated in the country and net factor income from abroad.  
 
28. Which one of the following is an incorrect fact regarding south India.  
 (A) Diurnal range of temperature is less  (B) Annual range of temperature is less  
 (C) Temperatures are high throughout the year.  (D) Extreme climatic conditions are found here.  
 
29. Read the two statements A and B and choose the best answer.  
 A.  Assertion: Petrochemical Industry is a fast-growing Industry.  
 B. Reason: Synthetic rubber, plastics, insecticides etc are the products of petro chemical industry  
 (A) A and B both are correct and B explains A  
 (B) A and B are both correct but B does not explain A  
 (C) A is correct but B is incorrect  
 (D) A and B are both incorrect  
 
30. The process of “ Retting” is associated with which of the following?  
 (A) Tea  (B) Coffee 
 (C) Jute  (D) Rubber  
 
31. The “Golden Quadrilateral” which connects Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-and Kolkata passes through....  
 (A) AMRITSAR-AHMEDABAD-PUNE-PATNA   
 (B) JAIPUR-PORBANDER-HYDERABAD-VARANASI  
 (C) VADODARA-PUNE-VISHAKHAPATNAM-VARANASI 
 (D) NAGPUR-BHOPAL-SURAT-AMRITSAR  
 
32. The Narmada river in the peninsular plateau flows westward with a remarkably straight channel. It is because 
_____. 
 (A) Slope gradient in this part controls the river channel pattern  
 (B) River carries huge amount of water which has created straight channel course  
 (C) River forms the boundary between central highlands and the Deccan  Plateau  
 (D) River flows through the trough of a rift valley inclined westward  
 
33. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90
o
 W longitude, what would be time in a city located on 105
o
W longitude  
 (A) 13:00 (B) 12:30 
 (C) 11:30 (D) 11:00 
 
34. Iron ore from kudermukh is most likely to be exported through  
 (A) Goa  (B) Kochi  
 (C) Mangalore  (D) Ennore  
 
35. Marble is a type of ______________rock.  
 (A) Sedimentary  (B) Metamorphic  
 (C) Basalt  (D) Igneous  
 
36. Match the following:  
  
I Iron  a Digboi  
II Coal  b Singhbhum  
III Manganese  c Balaghat  
IV Oil  d Raniganj  
 
 (A) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a  
 (C) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (D) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a  
 
37. Which of the following is found on the foothills and river valley placer deposits:  
 (A) lead  (B) gypsum  
 (C) bauxite  (D) gold  
 
38. Choose the false statement among the following statements:  
 (A) The southwest monsoon is a continuation of the southeast trade wind, deflected towards the Indian 
subcontinent after crossing the equator.  
 (B) In winter, India is under the influence of North west monsoon due to westerly jet stream  
 (C) The southwest monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by 1
st
 june.  
 (D) The shift in the position of the ITCZ is related to the phenomena of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream 
from its position over the north Indian plain.  
 
 
 
   
  
39. Aus, Aman and Boro, grown thrice in a year are types of _____________crops.  
 (A) Maize  (B) Rice  
 (C) Millets  (D) Wheat  
 
40. Which of the following is the type of plate boundary of Indian plate along Himalayan mountains.  
 (A) Ocean-Continent Convergence  (B) Divergent boundary  
 (C) Transform boundary  (D) Continent-continent convergence  
 
BIOLOGY 
 
41. The process of formation of seed without the act of fertilization is known as: 
 (A) Parthenogenesis (B) Sporulation  
 (C) Apomixis (D) Vegetative reproduction 
 
42. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the filed, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the 
presence of: 
 (A) Cambium (B) Apical Meristem 
 (C) Lateral Meristem (D) Intercalary Meristem 
 
43. Which among the following has specialized tissue for conduction of water: 
 (i) Thallophyta (ii) Bryophyta 
 (iii) Pteridophyta (iv) Gymnosperms 
 (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) 
 (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv) 
 
44. If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice then which of the following event in stomach will be affected: 
 (A) Digestion of starch into sugars (B) Digestion of fats into glycerol and fatty acids  
 (C) Digestion of Nucleic acids (D) Digestion of proteins into peptides  
 
45. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females due to: 
 (A) Dominant gene of such trait lies on Y chromosomes  
 (B) Dominant gene of such trait lies on X chromosome  
 (C) Recessive gene lies on X chromosome  
 (D) Recessive gene lies on Y chromosome  
 
46. Three cylinders each closed by a membrane permeable to water and containing a different fluid are placed in 
same solution. After adjusting to solution the fluid rises in one of the cylinder, remains the same in another and 
falls in the third. What is the concentration of the solution in which cylinders have been placed: 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 (A) 0% salt solution (B) 2.5% salt solution 
 (C) 5% salt solution (D) 10% salt solution 
 
47. Mitochondria and chloroplast are: 
 (i) Semiautonomous organelles 
 (ii) Formed by division of pre existing organelles and the contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery 
 Which one of the following option is correct: 
 (A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (ii) is true, (i) is false  
 (C) (i) is true but (ii) is false (D) Both (i) and (ii) are false  
 
48. Climbers grow towards and around a support is an example of: 
 (A) Hydrotropism (B) Geotropism 
 (C) Haptotropism (D) Phototropism 
 
49. Which of the following statement about transmission of nerve impulse is incorrect: 
 (A) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end  
 (B) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemicals which generate an 
electrical impulse at the axonal end of another neuron  
 (C) The chemicals released from axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and generate a similar impulse in 
a dendrite of another neuron   
 (D) A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to another neuron but also to muscle and gland cell  
 
10% 
salt 
5% 
salt 
Distilled 
water 
Initial state 
10% 
salt 
5% 
salt 
Distilled 
water 
Final state 
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