Kerala: State Level Question Paper & Answer Key (SAT) - 2017-18 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


KERALA NTSE STAGE 1 2017-18 
SAT 
1. Identity the wrongly matched pairs 
 (A) Monocyte - Actively phagocytic 
 (B) Thrombolytic -  Produces antibodies 
 (C) Lymphocyte  -  initiates blood clotting 
 (D) Eosin Phil -  Associated with allergy 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (C) and (D) 
  
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil 
 (A) Rhizobium melioti    (B) Bacillus thuringiensis  
 (C) Pseudomonas putida   (D) Escherichia Coil 
 
3. Pick out the feature of picot plant 
 (A) Leaves are isobilateral   (B) Mesoptyil is undifferentiated 
 (C) Roots show secondary growth  (D) Vascular bundies are closed 
 
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis? 
 (A) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half (B) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis 
 (C) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells  (D) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis 
 
5. The plant that shows hydrophily 
 (A) Vallisneria  (B) Maize   (C) Pea   (D) Raffiesia 
 
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing? 
 (A) Tympanum  (B) Semicircular canals (C) Cochlea  (D) Auditory canal 
 
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is 
 (A) Hinge joint  (B) Ball and socket joint (C) Gliding joint  (D) Pivot joint 
 
8. The part of the nucleolus that plays major role for the synthesis of ribosome 
 (A) Chromatin Reticulum (B) Nuclear pore (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Nucleolus 
 
9.  Which is fungal disease? 
 (A) Athlete’s foot  (B) Filariasis   (C) Measles’s  (D) Rabies 
 
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis 
 (A) Takes place in the stroma    (B) Formation of ATP 
 (C) Formation of glucose    (D) Evolution of oxygen 
 (A) (A) and (B0  (B) (B0 and (C)  (C) (A) and (C)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium? 
 (A) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus  (B) Polar, nuclei, stigma, ovule, style  
 (C) Style stamen, stigma, generative nucleus  (D) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei 
 
12. Which is NOT TRUE about acid fermentation? 
 (A) Glycolysis is the initial phase    (B) Glucose is broken down incompletely  
 (C) Only two ATP molecules are generated   (D) Carbon dioxide is liberated 
 
Page 2


KERALA NTSE STAGE 1 2017-18 
SAT 
1. Identity the wrongly matched pairs 
 (A) Monocyte - Actively phagocytic 
 (B) Thrombolytic -  Produces antibodies 
 (C) Lymphocyte  -  initiates blood clotting 
 (D) Eosin Phil -  Associated with allergy 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (C) and (D) 
  
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil 
 (A) Rhizobium melioti    (B) Bacillus thuringiensis  
 (C) Pseudomonas putida   (D) Escherichia Coil 
 
3. Pick out the feature of picot plant 
 (A) Leaves are isobilateral   (B) Mesoptyil is undifferentiated 
 (C) Roots show secondary growth  (D) Vascular bundies are closed 
 
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis? 
 (A) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half (B) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis 
 (C) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells  (D) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis 
 
5. The plant that shows hydrophily 
 (A) Vallisneria  (B) Maize   (C) Pea   (D) Raffiesia 
 
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing? 
 (A) Tympanum  (B) Semicircular canals (C) Cochlea  (D) Auditory canal 
 
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is 
 (A) Hinge joint  (B) Ball and socket joint (C) Gliding joint  (D) Pivot joint 
 
8. The part of the nucleolus that plays major role for the synthesis of ribosome 
 (A) Chromatin Reticulum (B) Nuclear pore (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Nucleolus 
 
9.  Which is fungal disease? 
 (A) Athlete’s foot  (B) Filariasis   (C) Measles’s  (D) Rabies 
 
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis 
 (A) Takes place in the stroma    (B) Formation of ATP 
 (C) Formation of glucose    (D) Evolution of oxygen 
 (A) (A) and (B0  (B) (B0 and (C)  (C) (A) and (C)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium? 
 (A) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus  (B) Polar, nuclei, stigma, ovule, style  
 (C) Style stamen, stigma, generative nucleus  (D) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei 
 
12. Which is NOT TRUE about acid fermentation? 
 (A) Glycolysis is the initial phase    (B) Glucose is broken down incompletely  
 (C) Only two ATP molecules are generated   (D) Carbon dioxide is liberated 
 
13.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Mutualism P Lion and Rabbit  
B Commensailsm Q Loranthus on mango tree 
C Parasistism R Flower and butterfly 
D Predation  S Banda on flcus tree 
 (A) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q   (B) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P 
 (C) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R   (D) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 
 
14. The hormone that promotes lactation and simulates the uterus to contract 
 (A) Calcitionin  (B) Thyroxine  (C) Oxytocin  (D) Vasopressin 
 
15. A box measures 10 11.2 10 cm xm cm ?? Assume that this box is filled with neon gas at 1 atm pressure and 273K 
temperature. How many electrons will be there in the box? 
 (A) 
23
6.022 10 ?  (B) 
23
3.011 10 ? (C) 
22
6.022 10 ? (D) 
22
3.011 10 ? 
 
16. The key step for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is given below which of the following are 
favorable for the contact process? 
 (A) Pressure of 2 atm and temperature of about 450 C ? (B) Removal of 
2
SO and 
2
O 
 (C) Use of 
22
VO as catalyst    (D) Removal of 
2
SO 
 Choose the correct alternative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) (B) and (C) (C) (B), (C), and (D) (D) (A), (C), and (D) 
 
17. Which of the following sets contain molecules with double or triple bonds? 
 (A) 
2 2 2 3
, , , H Br H O NH (B)
2 2 2 2
, , , F O CO Cl (C) 
2 2 2 3
, , , CO N H NH (D) 
2 2 4 4
, , , NH Cl CH CCl 
 (A) (A) and (C)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
18. The number of electrons present in d – sub shell of copper atom 
 (A) 3   (B) 9   (C) 10   (D) 8 
19.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Eye wash P Carbonic acid 
B Food preservation Q Tartaric acid 
C Baking poered  R Cliric acid 
D Flavouring drinks S Boric acid oxalic acid 
  T Oxatic acid 
 (A) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P   (B) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – S 
 (C) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – T   (D) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P 
 
 
 
 
Page 3


KERALA NTSE STAGE 1 2017-18 
SAT 
1. Identity the wrongly matched pairs 
 (A) Monocyte - Actively phagocytic 
 (B) Thrombolytic -  Produces antibodies 
 (C) Lymphocyte  -  initiates blood clotting 
 (D) Eosin Phil -  Associated with allergy 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (C) and (D) 
  
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil 
 (A) Rhizobium melioti    (B) Bacillus thuringiensis  
 (C) Pseudomonas putida   (D) Escherichia Coil 
 
3. Pick out the feature of picot plant 
 (A) Leaves are isobilateral   (B) Mesoptyil is undifferentiated 
 (C) Roots show secondary growth  (D) Vascular bundies are closed 
 
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis? 
 (A) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half (B) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis 
 (C) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells  (D) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis 
 
5. The plant that shows hydrophily 
 (A) Vallisneria  (B) Maize   (C) Pea   (D) Raffiesia 
 
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing? 
 (A) Tympanum  (B) Semicircular canals (C) Cochlea  (D) Auditory canal 
 
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is 
 (A) Hinge joint  (B) Ball and socket joint (C) Gliding joint  (D) Pivot joint 
 
8. The part of the nucleolus that plays major role for the synthesis of ribosome 
 (A) Chromatin Reticulum (B) Nuclear pore (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Nucleolus 
 
9.  Which is fungal disease? 
 (A) Athlete’s foot  (B) Filariasis   (C) Measles’s  (D) Rabies 
 
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis 
 (A) Takes place in the stroma    (B) Formation of ATP 
 (C) Formation of glucose    (D) Evolution of oxygen 
 (A) (A) and (B0  (B) (B0 and (C)  (C) (A) and (C)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium? 
 (A) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus  (B) Polar, nuclei, stigma, ovule, style  
 (C) Style stamen, stigma, generative nucleus  (D) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei 
 
12. Which is NOT TRUE about acid fermentation? 
 (A) Glycolysis is the initial phase    (B) Glucose is broken down incompletely  
 (C) Only two ATP molecules are generated   (D) Carbon dioxide is liberated 
 
13.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Mutualism P Lion and Rabbit  
B Commensailsm Q Loranthus on mango tree 
C Parasistism R Flower and butterfly 
D Predation  S Banda on flcus tree 
 (A) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q   (B) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P 
 (C) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R   (D) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 
 
14. The hormone that promotes lactation and simulates the uterus to contract 
 (A) Calcitionin  (B) Thyroxine  (C) Oxytocin  (D) Vasopressin 
 
15. A box measures 10 11.2 10 cm xm cm ?? Assume that this box is filled with neon gas at 1 atm pressure and 273K 
temperature. How many electrons will be there in the box? 
 (A) 
23
6.022 10 ?  (B) 
23
3.011 10 ? (C) 
22
6.022 10 ? (D) 
22
3.011 10 ? 
 
16. The key step for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is given below which of the following are 
favorable for the contact process? 
 (A) Pressure of 2 atm and temperature of about 450 C ? (B) Removal of 
2
SO and 
2
O 
 (C) Use of 
22
VO as catalyst    (D) Removal of 
2
SO 
 Choose the correct alternative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) (B) and (C) (C) (B), (C), and (D) (D) (A), (C), and (D) 
 
17. Which of the following sets contain molecules with double or triple bonds? 
 (A) 
2 2 2 3
, , , H Br H O NH (B)
2 2 2 2
, , , F O CO Cl (C) 
2 2 2 3
, , , CO N H NH (D) 
2 2 4 4
, , , NH Cl CH CCl 
 (A) (A) and (C)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
18. The number of electrons present in d – sub shell of copper atom 
 (A) 3   (B) 9   (C) 10   (D) 8 
19.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Eye wash P Carbonic acid 
B Food preservation Q Tartaric acid 
C Baking poered  R Cliric acid 
D Flavouring drinks S Boric acid oxalic acid 
  T Oxatic acid 
 (A) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P   (B) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – S 
 (C) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – T   (D) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P 
 
 
 
 
 
20. Which of the folowing is the IUPAC name of the compound? 
 
 (A) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane  (B) 3 – Ethyl -2, 3 – dimethyl hexance 
 (C) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane  (D) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane 
 
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled before opening the seal. Which of the followng laws is appled here? 
 (A) Boyle’s law  (B) Charle’s law  (C) Avogadro’s law (D) Graham’s law 
 
22. The components of alloy used for making permanent magnets 
 (A) ,, Fe Cr Ni and G  (B) ,, Fe Co Ni and Al (C) ,, Fe Ni Cu and C (D) ,, Fe Cu Cr and C 
 
23. Which of the following are true? 
 (A) Lonisation energy icreses from left to right across a period 
 (B) Atomic size deceaes one going down a group 
 (C) Metallic Chaacter deceaese from left to right across a period 
 (D) Electronegativity increaese on going down a group 
 Choose the correct altenative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) and (D)  (C) (B) and (D)   (D) (A) and (C) 
 
24. Type of isomerism exhibited by copound 
48
CH 
 (A) Chain isomerism only    (B) Chain isomerism and position isomerism 
 (C) Position isomerism only    (D) Functional isomerism only 
 
25. Which of the following methods is used for the concentration of the are galena? 
 (A) Froth floatation     (B) Magnetic separation 
 (C) Leaching     (D) Gravity separation method 
 
26. The number of moles of 
2
O required for the complete combustion of 11.6g of butane 
 (A) 
2
6.5molO  (B) 
2
11.6molO  (C) 
2
13molO  (D) 
2
1.3molO 
 
27. The gas produced when manganese dioxide is treated with hydrochloric acid 
 (A) 
2
Cl   (B) 
2
O   (C)
2
H   (D) 
2
HO 
 
28. Which of the following does NOT describe a ray that can be drawn for a concave mirror? 
 (A) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting right back throught the centre of curvature 
 (B) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting through the local point 
 (C) An incident ray throught the focal point, reflecting parallel to the principal axis 
 (D) An incident ray parallel to the principal axis, reflecting throught the local point 
 
 
Page 4


KERALA NTSE STAGE 1 2017-18 
SAT 
1. Identity the wrongly matched pairs 
 (A) Monocyte - Actively phagocytic 
 (B) Thrombolytic -  Produces antibodies 
 (C) Lymphocyte  -  initiates blood clotting 
 (D) Eosin Phil -  Associated with allergy 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (C) and (D) 
  
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil 
 (A) Rhizobium melioti    (B) Bacillus thuringiensis  
 (C) Pseudomonas putida   (D) Escherichia Coil 
 
3. Pick out the feature of picot plant 
 (A) Leaves are isobilateral   (B) Mesoptyil is undifferentiated 
 (C) Roots show secondary growth  (D) Vascular bundies are closed 
 
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis? 
 (A) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half (B) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis 
 (C) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells  (D) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis 
 
5. The plant that shows hydrophily 
 (A) Vallisneria  (B) Maize   (C) Pea   (D) Raffiesia 
 
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing? 
 (A) Tympanum  (B) Semicircular canals (C) Cochlea  (D) Auditory canal 
 
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is 
 (A) Hinge joint  (B) Ball and socket joint (C) Gliding joint  (D) Pivot joint 
 
8. The part of the nucleolus that plays major role for the synthesis of ribosome 
 (A) Chromatin Reticulum (B) Nuclear pore (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Nucleolus 
 
9.  Which is fungal disease? 
 (A) Athlete’s foot  (B) Filariasis   (C) Measles’s  (D) Rabies 
 
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis 
 (A) Takes place in the stroma    (B) Formation of ATP 
 (C) Formation of glucose    (D) Evolution of oxygen 
 (A) (A) and (B0  (B) (B0 and (C)  (C) (A) and (C)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium? 
 (A) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus  (B) Polar, nuclei, stigma, ovule, style  
 (C) Style stamen, stigma, generative nucleus  (D) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei 
 
12. Which is NOT TRUE about acid fermentation? 
 (A) Glycolysis is the initial phase    (B) Glucose is broken down incompletely  
 (C) Only two ATP molecules are generated   (D) Carbon dioxide is liberated 
 
13.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Mutualism P Lion and Rabbit  
B Commensailsm Q Loranthus on mango tree 
C Parasistism R Flower and butterfly 
D Predation  S Banda on flcus tree 
 (A) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q   (B) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P 
 (C) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R   (D) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 
 
14. The hormone that promotes lactation and simulates the uterus to contract 
 (A) Calcitionin  (B) Thyroxine  (C) Oxytocin  (D) Vasopressin 
 
15. A box measures 10 11.2 10 cm xm cm ?? Assume that this box is filled with neon gas at 1 atm pressure and 273K 
temperature. How many electrons will be there in the box? 
 (A) 
23
6.022 10 ?  (B) 
23
3.011 10 ? (C) 
22
6.022 10 ? (D) 
22
3.011 10 ? 
 
16. The key step for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is given below which of the following are 
favorable for the contact process? 
 (A) Pressure of 2 atm and temperature of about 450 C ? (B) Removal of 
2
SO and 
2
O 
 (C) Use of 
22
VO as catalyst    (D) Removal of 
2
SO 
 Choose the correct alternative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) (B) and (C) (C) (B), (C), and (D) (D) (A), (C), and (D) 
 
17. Which of the following sets contain molecules with double or triple bonds? 
 (A) 
2 2 2 3
, , , H Br H O NH (B)
2 2 2 2
, , , F O CO Cl (C) 
2 2 2 3
, , , CO N H NH (D) 
2 2 4 4
, , , NH Cl CH CCl 
 (A) (A) and (C)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
18. The number of electrons present in d – sub shell of copper atom 
 (A) 3   (B) 9   (C) 10   (D) 8 
19.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Eye wash P Carbonic acid 
B Food preservation Q Tartaric acid 
C Baking poered  R Cliric acid 
D Flavouring drinks S Boric acid oxalic acid 
  T Oxatic acid 
 (A) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P   (B) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – S 
 (C) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – T   (D) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P 
 
 
 
 
 
20. Which of the folowing is the IUPAC name of the compound? 
 
 (A) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane  (B) 3 – Ethyl -2, 3 – dimethyl hexance 
 (C) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane  (D) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane 
 
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled before opening the seal. Which of the followng laws is appled here? 
 (A) Boyle’s law  (B) Charle’s law  (C) Avogadro’s law (D) Graham’s law 
 
22. The components of alloy used for making permanent magnets 
 (A) ,, Fe Cr Ni and G  (B) ,, Fe Co Ni and Al (C) ,, Fe Ni Cu and C (D) ,, Fe Cu Cr and C 
 
23. Which of the following are true? 
 (A) Lonisation energy icreses from left to right across a period 
 (B) Atomic size deceaes one going down a group 
 (C) Metallic Chaacter deceaese from left to right across a period 
 (D) Electronegativity increaese on going down a group 
 Choose the correct altenative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) and (D)  (C) (B) and (D)   (D) (A) and (C) 
 
24. Type of isomerism exhibited by copound 
48
CH 
 (A) Chain isomerism only    (B) Chain isomerism and position isomerism 
 (C) Position isomerism only    (D) Functional isomerism only 
 
25. Which of the following methods is used for the concentration of the are galena? 
 (A) Froth floatation     (B) Magnetic separation 
 (C) Leaching     (D) Gravity separation method 
 
26. The number of moles of 
2
O required for the complete combustion of 11.6g of butane 
 (A) 
2
6.5molO  (B) 
2
11.6molO  (C) 
2
13molO  (D) 
2
1.3molO 
 
27. The gas produced when manganese dioxide is treated with hydrochloric acid 
 (A) 
2
Cl   (B) 
2
O   (C)
2
H   (D) 
2
HO 
 
28. Which of the following does NOT describe a ray that can be drawn for a concave mirror? 
 (A) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting right back throught the centre of curvature 
 (B) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting through the local point 
 (C) An incident ray throught the focal point, reflecting parallel to the principal axis 
 (D) An incident ray parallel to the principal axis, reflecting throught the local point 
 
 
29. The potential difference between the point P and Q for the given network is 
 
 (A) 8V   (B) 35V   (C) 1V   (D) 7V 
 
30. Which of the following statements about mass is false? 
 (A) Mass remains constant at any place on the Earth 
 (B) SI Unit of mass is kg 
 (C) Mass of an object can be measured using spring balance 
 (D) Mass is a fundamental quantity 
 
31. The SI Unit of specific heat capacity of a substance is 
 (A) 
11
Jkg K
??
  (B) 
1
Calkg
?
  (C) 
1
Jkg
?
  (D) 
1
CalkgK
?
 
 
32. In a transformer the number of turns of primary coil and secondary coil are 5 and 4 respectively. If 240V is applied to 
the primary coil the ration of current in primary coil and secondary coil is 
 (A) 5: 4   (B) 5: 10   (C) 4: 5   (D) 8: 12 
 
33. Identify the circuit in which the diode is forward based  
 
 
Page 5


KERALA NTSE STAGE 1 2017-18 
SAT 
1. Identity the wrongly matched pairs 
 (A) Monocyte - Actively phagocytic 
 (B) Thrombolytic -  Produces antibodies 
 (C) Lymphocyte  -  initiates blood clotting 
 (D) Eosin Phil -  Associated with allergy 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (C) and (D) 
  
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil 
 (A) Rhizobium melioti    (B) Bacillus thuringiensis  
 (C) Pseudomonas putida   (D) Escherichia Coil 
 
3. Pick out the feature of picot plant 
 (A) Leaves are isobilateral   (B) Mesoptyil is undifferentiated 
 (C) Roots show secondary growth  (D) Vascular bundies are closed 
 
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis? 
 (A) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half (B) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis 
 (C) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells  (D) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis 
 
5. The plant that shows hydrophily 
 (A) Vallisneria  (B) Maize   (C) Pea   (D) Raffiesia 
 
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing? 
 (A) Tympanum  (B) Semicircular canals (C) Cochlea  (D) Auditory canal 
 
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is 
 (A) Hinge joint  (B) Ball and socket joint (C) Gliding joint  (D) Pivot joint 
 
8. The part of the nucleolus that plays major role for the synthesis of ribosome 
 (A) Chromatin Reticulum (B) Nuclear pore (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Nucleolus 
 
9.  Which is fungal disease? 
 (A) Athlete’s foot  (B) Filariasis   (C) Measles’s  (D) Rabies 
 
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis 
 (A) Takes place in the stroma    (B) Formation of ATP 
 (C) Formation of glucose    (D) Evolution of oxygen 
 (A) (A) and (B0  (B) (B0 and (C)  (C) (A) and (C)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium? 
 (A) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus  (B) Polar, nuclei, stigma, ovule, style  
 (C) Style stamen, stigma, generative nucleus  (D) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei 
 
12. Which is NOT TRUE about acid fermentation? 
 (A) Glycolysis is the initial phase    (B) Glucose is broken down incompletely  
 (C) Only two ATP molecules are generated   (D) Carbon dioxide is liberated 
 
13.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Mutualism P Lion and Rabbit  
B Commensailsm Q Loranthus on mango tree 
C Parasistism R Flower and butterfly 
D Predation  S Banda on flcus tree 
 (A) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q   (B) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P 
 (C) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R   (D) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 
 
14. The hormone that promotes lactation and simulates the uterus to contract 
 (A) Calcitionin  (B) Thyroxine  (C) Oxytocin  (D) Vasopressin 
 
15. A box measures 10 11.2 10 cm xm cm ?? Assume that this box is filled with neon gas at 1 atm pressure and 273K 
temperature. How many electrons will be there in the box? 
 (A) 
23
6.022 10 ?  (B) 
23
3.011 10 ? (C) 
22
6.022 10 ? (D) 
22
3.011 10 ? 
 
16. The key step for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is given below which of the following are 
favorable for the contact process? 
 (A) Pressure of 2 atm and temperature of about 450 C ? (B) Removal of 
2
SO and 
2
O 
 (C) Use of 
22
VO as catalyst    (D) Removal of 
2
SO 
 Choose the correct alternative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) (B) and (C) (C) (B), (C), and (D) (D) (A), (C), and (D) 
 
17. Which of the following sets contain molecules with double or triple bonds? 
 (A) 
2 2 2 3
, , , H Br H O NH (B)
2 2 2 2
, , , F O CO Cl (C) 
2 2 2 3
, , , CO N H NH (D) 
2 2 4 4
, , , NH Cl CH CCl 
 (A) (A) and (C)  (B) (B) and (C)  (C) (A) and (D)  (D) (B) and (D) 
 
18. The number of electrons present in d – sub shell of copper atom 
 (A) 3   (B) 9   (C) 10   (D) 8 
19.  
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II 
A Eye wash P Carbonic acid 
B Food preservation Q Tartaric acid 
C Baking poered  R Cliric acid 
D Flavouring drinks S Boric acid oxalic acid 
  T Oxatic acid 
 (A) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P   (B) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – S 
 (C) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – T   (D) A – T, B – R, C – Q, D – P 
 
 
 
 
 
20. Which of the folowing is the IUPAC name of the compound? 
 
 (A) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane  (B) 3 – Ethyl -2, 3 – dimethyl hexance 
 (C) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane  (D) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane 
 
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled before opening the seal. Which of the followng laws is appled here? 
 (A) Boyle’s law  (B) Charle’s law  (C) Avogadro’s law (D) Graham’s law 
 
22. The components of alloy used for making permanent magnets 
 (A) ,, Fe Cr Ni and G  (B) ,, Fe Co Ni and Al (C) ,, Fe Ni Cu and C (D) ,, Fe Cu Cr and C 
 
23. Which of the following are true? 
 (A) Lonisation energy icreses from left to right across a period 
 (B) Atomic size deceaes one going down a group 
 (C) Metallic Chaacter deceaese from left to right across a period 
 (D) Electronegativity increaese on going down a group 
 Choose the correct altenative 
 (A) (A) and (B)  (B) (A) and (D)  (C) (B) and (D)   (D) (A) and (C) 
 
24. Type of isomerism exhibited by copound 
48
CH 
 (A) Chain isomerism only    (B) Chain isomerism and position isomerism 
 (C) Position isomerism only    (D) Functional isomerism only 
 
25. Which of the following methods is used for the concentration of the are galena? 
 (A) Froth floatation     (B) Magnetic separation 
 (C) Leaching     (D) Gravity separation method 
 
26. The number of moles of 
2
O required for the complete combustion of 11.6g of butane 
 (A) 
2
6.5molO  (B) 
2
11.6molO  (C) 
2
13molO  (D) 
2
1.3molO 
 
27. The gas produced when manganese dioxide is treated with hydrochloric acid 
 (A) 
2
Cl   (B) 
2
O   (C)
2
H   (D) 
2
HO 
 
28. Which of the following does NOT describe a ray that can be drawn for a concave mirror? 
 (A) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting right back throught the centre of curvature 
 (B) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting through the local point 
 (C) An incident ray throught the focal point, reflecting parallel to the principal axis 
 (D) An incident ray parallel to the principal axis, reflecting throught the local point 
 
 
29. The potential difference between the point P and Q for the given network is 
 
 (A) 8V   (B) 35V   (C) 1V   (D) 7V 
 
30. Which of the following statements about mass is false? 
 (A) Mass remains constant at any place on the Earth 
 (B) SI Unit of mass is kg 
 (C) Mass of an object can be measured using spring balance 
 (D) Mass is a fundamental quantity 
 
31. The SI Unit of specific heat capacity of a substance is 
 (A) 
11
Jkg K
??
  (B) 
1
Calkg
?
  (C) 
1
Jkg
?
  (D) 
1
CalkgK
?
 
 
32. In a transformer the number of turns of primary coil and secondary coil are 5 and 4 respectively. If 240V is applied to 
the primary coil the ration of current in primary coil and secondary coil is 
 (A) 5: 4   (B) 5: 10   (C) 4: 5   (D) 8: 12 
 
33. Identify the circuit in which the diode is forward based  
 
 
34. A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards at an initial speed of 5m/s. the work done by the force of gravity 
during the time the particle Goss up is 
 (A) 1.25J   (B) 0.5J   (C) – 0.5J  (D) – 1.25J 
 
35. On a stationary boat air is blown from an attached to the boat. The boat will 
 (A) Not move 
 (B) Spin around 
 (C) Move in the direction in which air is blown 
 (D) Move in the direction opposite to that in which air is blown 
 
36. Sound signals were sent down from a ship rafter 2s. Find out the depth of the sea, if the sped of sound in water is 
1.5km/s? 
 (A) 3km   (B) 150m   (C) 300m  (D) 1.5m 
 
37. An ice cube is suspended in vacuum in a gravity free hall. As the ice melts it 
 (A) Will retain its cubical shape    (B) Will change its shape to spherical 
 (C) Will fall down on the floor of the hall   (D) Will fly up 
 
38. Which a glass rod rubbed with silk is brought near the cap of an electroscope, then 
 (A) The leaf has an induced negative charge 
 (B) No charge is induced on the leaves 
 (C) Positive charge is induced on one leaf and negative charge on the other leaf 
 (D) The leaf has an induced positive charge 
 
39. Which one of the following graphs shown below represents uniform speed?