Class 10 Exam > Class 10 Notes > NTSE for Class 10 > Telangana: State Level Question Paper & Answer Key (SAT, MAT & LANG) - 2015-16
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Page 1
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 marks
Language Comprehensive Test : 50 marks
Aptitude Test : 100 marks
Total : 200 marks
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a
SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet
carefully before answering the questions.
1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the
OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing
in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in
the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose, your Center Code Number and Roll
Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part —III (Aptitude Test)
consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If
time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
Page 2
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 marks
Language Comprehensive Test : 50 marks
Aptitude Test : 100 marks
Total : 200 marks
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a
SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet
carefully before answering the questions.
1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the
OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing
in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in
the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose, your Center Code Number and Roll
Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part —III (Aptitude Test)
consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If
time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room.
13. The candidate need not return this Question Paper booklet and can take it after the completion of the
examination. No candidate should leave the examination hail before the end of the examination.
PART I
MENTAL ABILITY (Q. No. 1 – 50)
Note:- SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given
against the corresponding questions in the Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use a HB
Pencil.
Directions:
Questions (1 to 5): In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
1. 2, 7, 14, 23, .…….., 47
(1) 31 (2) 28 (3) 34 (4) 38 (5) 35
2. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, …………
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 62 (4) 60 (5) 48
3. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, …………
(1) 43 (2) 47 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) 59
4. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, …………
(1) 513 (2) 511 (3) 523 (4) 517 (5) 515
5. 14, 26, 50, 98, …………
(1) 78 (2) 194 (3) 196 (4) 190 (5) 148
Directions:
Questions (6 to 10): These questions are based on letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter
combinations in each question. The first (left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In
the second pair one member is missing. Find this out from answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) such that this pair
has similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answer as per the “Instructions”.
6. ABCD: WXYZ : : EFGH : ……?.......
(1) STUV (2) STVU (3) VUTS (4) VTSU (5) SVUT
7. KNQT: LORU : : ADGJ : ……?.......
(1) BCFI (2) BEHI (3) BCHI (4) BEHK (5) BDGJ
8. ABCXYZ : DEFUVW : : GHIRST : ……?.......
(1) JNOPKL (2) MNOLKJ (3) JKLOPQ (4) JOKPLN (5) JKLMNO
9. BDFH : IKMO : : QSUW : ……?.......
Page 3
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 marks
Language Comprehensive Test : 50 marks
Aptitude Test : 100 marks
Total : 200 marks
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a
SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet
carefully before answering the questions.
1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the
OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing
in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in
the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose, your Center Code Number and Roll
Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part —III (Aptitude Test)
consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If
time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room.
13. The candidate need not return this Question Paper booklet and can take it after the completion of the
examination. No candidate should leave the examination hail before the end of the examination.
PART I
MENTAL ABILITY (Q. No. 1 – 50)
Note:- SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given
against the corresponding questions in the Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use a HB
Pencil.
Directions:
Questions (1 to 5): In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
1. 2, 7, 14, 23, .…….., 47
(1) 31 (2) 28 (3) 34 (4) 38 (5) 35
2. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, …………
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 62 (4) 60 (5) 48
3. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, …………
(1) 43 (2) 47 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) 59
4. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, …………
(1) 513 (2) 511 (3) 523 (4) 517 (5) 515
5. 14, 26, 50, 98, …………
(1) 78 (2) 194 (3) 196 (4) 190 (5) 148
Directions:
Questions (6 to 10): These questions are based on letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter
combinations in each question. The first (left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In
the second pair one member is missing. Find this out from answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) such that this pair
has similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answer as per the “Instructions”.
6. ABCD: WXYZ : : EFGH : ……?.......
(1) STUV (2) STVU (3) VUTS (4) VTSU (5) SVUT
7. KNQT: LORU : : ADGJ : ……?.......
(1) BCFI (2) BEHI (3) BCHI (4) BEHK (5) BDGJ
8. ABCXYZ : DEFUVW : : GHIRST : ……?.......
(1) JNOPKL (2) MNOLKJ (3) JKLOPQ (4) JOKPLN (5) JKLMNO
9. BDFH : IKMO : : QSUW : ……?.......
(1) YZBD (2) WZCE (3) XZDB (4) YZDB (5) XZBD
10. PRINCIPAL : LAPICNIRP : : ADOLESCENCE : ……?.......
(1) ECNCESELODA (2) ECNECSLEODA
(3) ECNSCEELODA (4) ECNECSELODA (5) ECNCESLEODA
Directions:
Questions (11 to 15): In the following questions Letters/Letter groups are arranged in a
particular order with some underlying criterion. Study the order and choose the answer
from the alternative to fill the gaps.
11. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ………
(1) KGR (2) KFR (3) KFS (4) LGR (5) LGQ
12. QPO, NML, KJI, ………, EDC
(1) CAB (2) HGF (3) HGI (4) IGF (5) FGH
13. AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, ………
(1) DACB (2) DBAC (3) DCAB (4) CABD (5) DCBA
14. ELFA, GLFA, ILJA, ………, MLNA
(1) OLPA (2) KLMA (3) LLMA (4) KLLA (5) OLLA
15. ABDH, BDHP, CFLX, DHPF, ………
(1) ENTK (2) EKNT (3) EJTN (4) ELFR (5) EJNT
Directions:
Questions (16 to 20): In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four of
them are alike in some way. One is different from them. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
16. (1) Port Blair (2) Silvassa (3) Kavaratti (4) Daman (5) Agartala
17. (1) Argentina (2) Afghanistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Vietnam (5) Malaysia
18. (1) Sarod (2) Sarangi (3) Tabla (4) Violin (5) Veena
19. (1) Cricket (2) Volleyball (3) Billiards (4) Fencing (5) Baseball
20. (1) Tyre (2) Clutch (3) Speed (4) Brake (5) Gear
Directions:
Questions (21 to 25): In these questions there is a certain relationship between two words on one side of : :,
and only one word is given on the other side of ::. The missing word is to be found out from the given
alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) so that relationship is the same as for the other pair. Identify the correct
answer and indicate it as per the “Instructions”.
21. Manipuri : Manipur :: Kathakali : …….?.......
(1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Kerala
Page 4
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 marks
Language Comprehensive Test : 50 marks
Aptitude Test : 100 marks
Total : 200 marks
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a
SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet
carefully before answering the questions.
1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the
OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing
in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in
the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose, your Center Code Number and Roll
Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part —III (Aptitude Test)
consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If
time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room.
13. The candidate need not return this Question Paper booklet and can take it after the completion of the
examination. No candidate should leave the examination hail before the end of the examination.
PART I
MENTAL ABILITY (Q. No. 1 – 50)
Note:- SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given
against the corresponding questions in the Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use a HB
Pencil.
Directions:
Questions (1 to 5): In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
1. 2, 7, 14, 23, .…….., 47
(1) 31 (2) 28 (3) 34 (4) 38 (5) 35
2. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, …………
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 62 (4) 60 (5) 48
3. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, …………
(1) 43 (2) 47 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) 59
4. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, …………
(1) 513 (2) 511 (3) 523 (4) 517 (5) 515
5. 14, 26, 50, 98, …………
(1) 78 (2) 194 (3) 196 (4) 190 (5) 148
Directions:
Questions (6 to 10): These questions are based on letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter
combinations in each question. The first (left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In
the second pair one member is missing. Find this out from answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) such that this pair
has similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answer as per the “Instructions”.
6. ABCD: WXYZ : : EFGH : ……?.......
(1) STUV (2) STVU (3) VUTS (4) VTSU (5) SVUT
7. KNQT: LORU : : ADGJ : ……?.......
(1) BCFI (2) BEHI (3) BCHI (4) BEHK (5) BDGJ
8. ABCXYZ : DEFUVW : : GHIRST : ……?.......
(1) JNOPKL (2) MNOLKJ (3) JKLOPQ (4) JOKPLN (5) JKLMNO
9. BDFH : IKMO : : QSUW : ……?.......
(1) YZBD (2) WZCE (3) XZDB (4) YZDB (5) XZBD
10. PRINCIPAL : LAPICNIRP : : ADOLESCENCE : ……?.......
(1) ECNCESELODA (2) ECNECSLEODA
(3) ECNSCEELODA (4) ECNECSELODA (5) ECNCESLEODA
Directions:
Questions (11 to 15): In the following questions Letters/Letter groups are arranged in a
particular order with some underlying criterion. Study the order and choose the answer
from the alternative to fill the gaps.
11. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ………
(1) KGR (2) KFR (3) KFS (4) LGR (5) LGQ
12. QPO, NML, KJI, ………, EDC
(1) CAB (2) HGF (3) HGI (4) IGF (5) FGH
13. AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, ………
(1) DACB (2) DBAC (3) DCAB (4) CABD (5) DCBA
14. ELFA, GLFA, ILJA, ………, MLNA
(1) OLPA (2) KLMA (3) LLMA (4) KLLA (5) OLLA
15. ABDH, BDHP, CFLX, DHPF, ………
(1) ENTK (2) EKNT (3) EJTN (4) ELFR (5) EJNT
Directions:
Questions (16 to 20): In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four of
them are alike in some way. One is different from them. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
16. (1) Port Blair (2) Silvassa (3) Kavaratti (4) Daman (5) Agartala
17. (1) Argentina (2) Afghanistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Vietnam (5) Malaysia
18. (1) Sarod (2) Sarangi (3) Tabla (4) Violin (5) Veena
19. (1) Cricket (2) Volleyball (3) Billiards (4) Fencing (5) Baseball
20. (1) Tyre (2) Clutch (3) Speed (4) Brake (5) Gear
Directions:
Questions (21 to 25): In these questions there is a certain relationship between two words on one side of : :,
and only one word is given on the other side of ::. The missing word is to be found out from the given
alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) so that relationship is the same as for the other pair. Identify the correct
answer and indicate it as per the “Instructions”.
21. Manipuri : Manipur :: Kathakali : …….?.......
(1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Kerala
(4) Telangana (5) Andhra Pradesh
22. Pt. Ravishankar : Sitar :: Bismillah Khan : …….?.......
(1) Sarod (2) Santoor (3) Shehnai (4) Flute (5) Tabla
23. Ornithologist : Birds :: Anthropologist : …….?.......
(1) Plants (2) Animals (3) Mankind (4) Environment (5) Fishes
24. My Experiments with Truth : M. K. Gandhi :: India Wins Freedom : …….?.......
(1) Nehru (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Maulana Azad
(4) Chandrasekhar Azad (5) Rajendra Prasad
25 Australia : Kangaroo :: Nepal : …….?.......
(1) Buffalo (2) Lion (3) Cow (4) Tiger (5) Elephant
Directions:
Questions (26 to 30): These questions are based on the following diagrams. Study them carefully and
indicate the correct answer as per the “Instructions”.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
26. Lions, Foxes and animals
27. Manager, Labour union, Worker
Page 5
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 marks
Language Comprehensive Test : 50 marks
Aptitude Test : 100 marks
Total : 200 marks
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a
SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet
carefully before answering the questions.
1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the
OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing
in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in
the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose, your Center Code Number and Roll
Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part —III (Aptitude Test)
consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If
time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room.
13. The candidate need not return this Question Paper booklet and can take it after the completion of the
examination. No candidate should leave the examination hail before the end of the examination.
PART I
MENTAL ABILITY (Q. No. 1 – 50)
Note:- SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given
against the corresponding questions in the Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use a HB
Pencil.
Directions:
Questions (1 to 5): In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
1. 2, 7, 14, 23, .…….., 47
(1) 31 (2) 28 (3) 34 (4) 38 (5) 35
2. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, …………
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 62 (4) 60 (5) 48
3. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, …………
(1) 43 (2) 47 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) 59
4. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, …………
(1) 513 (2) 511 (3) 523 (4) 517 (5) 515
5. 14, 26, 50, 98, …………
(1) 78 (2) 194 (3) 196 (4) 190 (5) 148
Directions:
Questions (6 to 10): These questions are based on letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter
combinations in each question. The first (left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In
the second pair one member is missing. Find this out from answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) such that this pair
has similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answer as per the “Instructions”.
6. ABCD: WXYZ : : EFGH : ……?.......
(1) STUV (2) STVU (3) VUTS (4) VTSU (5) SVUT
7. KNQT: LORU : : ADGJ : ……?.......
(1) BCFI (2) BEHI (3) BCHI (4) BEHK (5) BDGJ
8. ABCXYZ : DEFUVW : : GHIRST : ……?.......
(1) JNOPKL (2) MNOLKJ (3) JKLOPQ (4) JOKPLN (5) JKLMNO
9. BDFH : IKMO : : QSUW : ……?.......
(1) YZBD (2) WZCE (3) XZDB (4) YZDB (5) XZBD
10. PRINCIPAL : LAPICNIRP : : ADOLESCENCE : ……?.......
(1) ECNCESELODA (2) ECNECSLEODA
(3) ECNSCEELODA (4) ECNECSELODA (5) ECNCESLEODA
Directions:
Questions (11 to 15): In the following questions Letters/Letter groups are arranged in a
particular order with some underlying criterion. Study the order and choose the answer
from the alternative to fill the gaps.
11. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ………
(1) KGR (2) KFR (3) KFS (4) LGR (5) LGQ
12. QPO, NML, KJI, ………, EDC
(1) CAB (2) HGF (3) HGI (4) IGF (5) FGH
13. AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, ………
(1) DACB (2) DBAC (3) DCAB (4) CABD (5) DCBA
14. ELFA, GLFA, ILJA, ………, MLNA
(1) OLPA (2) KLMA (3) LLMA (4) KLLA (5) OLLA
15. ABDH, BDHP, CFLX, DHPF, ………
(1) ENTK (2) EKNT (3) EJTN (4) ELFR (5) EJNT
Directions:
Questions (16 to 20): In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four of
them are alike in some way. One is different from them. Identify and indicate it as per the
“Instructions”.
16. (1) Port Blair (2) Silvassa (3) Kavaratti (4) Daman (5) Agartala
17. (1) Argentina (2) Afghanistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Vietnam (5) Malaysia
18. (1) Sarod (2) Sarangi (3) Tabla (4) Violin (5) Veena
19. (1) Cricket (2) Volleyball (3) Billiards (4) Fencing (5) Baseball
20. (1) Tyre (2) Clutch (3) Speed (4) Brake (5) Gear
Directions:
Questions (21 to 25): In these questions there is a certain relationship between two words on one side of : :,
and only one word is given on the other side of ::. The missing word is to be found out from the given
alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) so that relationship is the same as for the other pair. Identify the correct
answer and indicate it as per the “Instructions”.
21. Manipuri : Manipur :: Kathakali : …….?.......
(1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Kerala
(4) Telangana (5) Andhra Pradesh
22. Pt. Ravishankar : Sitar :: Bismillah Khan : …….?.......
(1) Sarod (2) Santoor (3) Shehnai (4) Flute (5) Tabla
23. Ornithologist : Birds :: Anthropologist : …….?.......
(1) Plants (2) Animals (3) Mankind (4) Environment (5) Fishes
24. My Experiments with Truth : M. K. Gandhi :: India Wins Freedom : …….?.......
(1) Nehru (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Maulana Azad
(4) Chandrasekhar Azad (5) Rajendra Prasad
25 Australia : Kangaroo :: Nepal : …….?.......
(1) Buffalo (2) Lion (3) Cow (4) Tiger (5) Elephant
Directions:
Questions (26 to 30): These questions are based on the following diagrams. Study them carefully and
indicate the correct answer as per the “Instructions”.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
26. Lions, Foxes and animals
27. Manager, Labour union, Worker
28. Country, State, City
29. Politicians, Poets, Women
30. Sparrows, Birds, Mice
Directions:
Questions (31 to 35): With the help of the given diagram, answer the following questions making the right
choice from the given alternatives. Indicate the answer as per the “Instructions”.
a
d
k m
h
c
b
e g
f
j
i
l
31. The region which represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking
is denoted by………………………
(1) e (2) g (3) f
(4) i (5) j
32. The people possessing all the qualities are represented by………………..
(1) e (2) g (3) f
(4) i (5) j
33. The region which represents people who are not intelligent but posses all other three qualities is
denoted by ………..
(1) b (2) e (3) g
(4) i (5) f
34. People who are not hardworking honest and truthful but intelligent are represented
by……………………
(1) d (2) c (3) l
(4) j (5) m
35. People who are not honest and truthful but are hardworking and intelligent both, are represented
by………..
(1) a (2) b (3)c
(4) e (5) g
Direction:
Questions (36 to 38): If in a certain language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785.
How are the following words coded? Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the “Institutions”.
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