UPSC Prelims Past Year 2018 with Solutions: Paper 1 (GS) | UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis PDF Download

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The Indian general election of 1951–52 elected the first Lok Sabha since India became independent in August 1947. Until this point, the Indian Constituent Assembly had served as an interim legislature. See the 'Durations' section below to find the time-range associated with these elections.
• The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled. This was over four times as many votes as the second-largest party. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected Prime Minister of the country. In the first Lok Sabha polls held in 1951, India had around 173 million voters, out of an overall population of about 360 million. There was no Opposition Party as such because no single party had managed to cross the mark of even 20 seats in the Lok Sabha other than Congress. The second largest number were of the Independent Members. Please see below the table.
  
• In order to get formal recognition, the concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the House (55 seats in the Lok Sabha). If any party fails to get 10% seats in opposition, the House will not have recognised leader of the opposition.
  First Lok Sabha of independent India did not had a recognized “Leader of Opposition” due to lack of any opposition party having 10% seats.
  First time Lok Sabha got recognized “Leader of Opposition” in 1969 in the form of Ram Subhag Singh from INC (O).

Q.2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

Solution.

Leaf modifications of Desert Plant to inhibit water loss for adaptations and survival of Desert Plant:

1. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves. Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing the possibility for water loss.
2. Deciduous plants in desert ecosystems have adapted through the activity of their leaves. Leaves on these plants are typically smaller and coated with wax to prevent evaporation.
3. Plants such as aloes are equipped with fleshy leaves that contain much of their water supply. Because of their moist inner bodies, these plants are called succulents. They typically feel spongy and when cut open are filled with a pulpy flesh, protected by a waxy outer layer.
4. Many plants in the desert conserve water by not having any leaves at all. Cacti are the most prolific of this plant type. Many cacti have spines in place of leaves, which conduct photosynthesis and catch dew when the climate is right. These small structures also reflect light, further reducing water loss. During heavy rains, cacti will grow temporary root systems and absorb water. They will then shed the roots when the ground has dried.

Q.3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• The Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households in NSS 70th Round (January, 2013- December, 2013) was conducted as a repeat survey of Situation Assessment Survey, 2003 (59th round). The survey also aimed at capturing the condition of agricultural households in the country in the context of policies and programmes of Government of India.
• During the agricultural year July, 2012- June, 2013, rural India had an estimated total of 90.2 million agricultural households. These agricultural households were about 57.8 percent of the total estimated rural households of the country during the same period.
  Uttar Pradesh, with an estimate of 18.05 million agricultural households, accounted for about 20 percent of all agricultural households in the country. Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3 percent) in its rural households preceded by other southern States like Tamil Nadu (34.7 percent) and Andhra Pradesh (41.5 percent).
• Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities
  About 45 percent out of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

Q.4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are  correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Any action/decision by government of India is an executive order. It does not need the approval of the parliament. Unlike an ordinance, promulgated by the president, executive orders are issued by the government. For Example: Recently, the government of India decided to set up a Coal Regulatory authority by an executive order, as passing the bill in the parliament would take some time.
• The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organisation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoE, FCC). It was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. A function of CPCB comes under both national level and as State Boards for the Union Territories. CPCB, under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, aims to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

Q.5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review. Over the years 284 laws were included in it and about 30 of them are under challenge.
• In its unanimous verdict, the Supreme Court Bench, while recognising the supremacy of the court to examine the validity of inclusion of a law in the Ninth Schedule, did not accept the argument that introduction of Article 31-B was just a one-time measure to protect agrarian laws after the abolition of the zamindari system and that it outlived its purpose. The Bench did not go into the question of validity of Article 31-B as it was not under challenge.
• "The power to grant absolute immunity at will is not compatible with the basic structure doctrine and, therefore, after April 24, 1973 the laws included in the Ninth Schedule would not have absolute immunity. The validity of such laws can be challenged on the touchstone of basic structure such as reflected in Article 21 read with Article 14 and Article 19, Article 15 and the principles underlying these Articles."

Q.6. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
( b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions. The merchant must set up this service and agree to the rate prior to accepting debit and credit cards as payment. Hence, c is the correct option.

Q.7. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the `Nuclear Suppliers Group'?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. The only grouping India is now left out of is the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
• In June 2017, India became a member of the 35-member Missile Technology Control Regime and by December last, New Delhi had also gained the membership of the Wassenaar Arrangement that has 42 members.
• India on 19 Jan 2018 joined the 42-member Australia Group, an elite export control regime against spread of chemical and biological weapons.
• The Nuclear Suppliers Group or NSG has 48 member countries that control trade in sophisticated civil nuclear technology. China was among the countries that objected to India’s admission to the bloc, ratcheting up tension between the two countries.
  The group goes by consensus approach on the admission of new members.

Membership of the NSG means:

1. Access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology but to get its hands on state of the art technology that countries within the NSG possess, it has to become part of the group.
2. With India committed to reducing dependence on fossil fuels and ensuring that 40% of its energy is sourced from renewable and clean sources, there is a pressing need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only happen if India gains access to the NSG. Even if India today can buy power plants from the global market thanks to the one time NSG waiver in 2008, there are still many types of technologies India can be denied as it is outside the NSG.
3. India could sign the nuclear non-proliferation treaty and gain access to all this know-how but that would mean giving up its entire nuclear arsenal. Given that it is situated in an unstable and unpredictable neighbourhood India is unlikely to sign the NPT or accede to the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs on any further nuclear tests.
4. With access to latest technology, India can commercialize the production of nuclear power equipment. This in turn will boost innovation and high tech manufacturing in India and can be leveraged for economic and strategic benefits.

Q.8. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The government’s decision to levy an equalisation tax of 6 per cent on online advertisement services offered in the country by non-resident entities will impact users, especially start-ups that rely almost entirely on the online world to popularize their services. Further, as the levy is not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements.
• Finance Minister Arun Jaitley during Budget speech said that, “In order to tap tax on income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India it is proposed that a person making a payment to a non-resident (global advertising platform), who does not have a permanent establishment, exceeding in aggregate Rs.1 lakh in a year, as consideration for online advertisement, will withhold tax at 6 per cent of gross amount paid, as equalisation levy,”.
• Hence, d is the correct option.

Q.9. Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of war of GDP of the State 2 Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

Solution.

The FRBM Review Committee (Chairperson: Mr. N.K. Singh) submitted its report in January 2017. The Report was made public in April 2017. The Committee proposed a draft Debt Management and Fiscal Responsibility Bill, 2017 to replace the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBM Act). Key recommendations of the Committee and features of the draft Bill are summarised below.

• Debt to GDP ratio: The Committee suggested using debt as the primary target for fiscal policy. A debt to GDP ratio of 60% should be targeted with a 40% limit for the centre and 20% limit for the states. It noted that majority of the countries that have adopted fiscal rules have targeted a debt to GDP ratio of 60%. The targeted debt to GDP ratio should be achieved by 2023. This ratio is expected to be around 70% in 2017.
• Fiscal Council: The Committee proposed to create an autonomous Fiscal Council with a Chairperson and two members appointed by the centre. To maintain its independence, it proposed a non-renewable four-year term for the Chairperson and members. Further, these people should not be employees in the central or state governments at the time of appointment.
• Role of the Council: The role of the Council would include: (i) preparing multi-year fiscal forecasts, (ii) recommending changes to the fiscal strategy, (iii) improving quality of fiscal data, (iv) advising the government if conditions exist to deviate from the fiscal target, and (v) advising the government to take corrective action for non-compliance with the Bill.
• Deviations: The Committee noted that under the FRBM Act, the government can deviate from the targets in case of a national calamity, national security or other exceptional circumstances notified by it. Allowing the government to notify these grounds diluted the 2003 Act. The Committee suggested that grounds in which the government can deviate from the targets should be clearly specified, and the government should not be allowed to notify other circumstances.
• Further, the government may be allowed to deviate from the specified targets upon the advice of the Fiscal Council in the following circumstances:
  (i) considerations of national security, war, national calamities and collapse of agriculture affecting output and incomes, (ii) structural reforms in the economy resulting in fiscal implications, or (iii) decline in real output growth of at least 3% below the average of the previous four quarters. These deviations cannot be more than 0.5% of GDP in a year.
• Borrowings from the RBI: The draft Bill restricts the government from borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) except when: (i) the centre has to meet a temporary shortfall in receipts, (ii) RBI subscribes to government securities to finance any deviations from the specified targets, or (iii) RBI purchases government securities from the secondary market.
• Central Government liability
  Central Government liability at 46.1% of GDP at end-March 2017 has seen a decline from 47.7 % at end March 2016, in continuation with long term trend of decline being seen from 61.4% in 2001-02.

Q.10. Consider the following statements
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case.
Which of two statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• According to Solvent Extractors’ Association of India, India’s Vegetable Oil imports for the year 2016-17 (November 2016 to October 2017) is reported at 15.44 million tons compared to 14.74 million tons last year (2015-16) and 10.68 million tons in 2012-13 .
  The Vegetable Oil import, which includes edible oil and non-edible oil, has jumped by 45% in last 5 years.
• Import of edible oil has sharply increased in last few years due to stagnant Oilseed production and rising demand in the country. India’s dependence on imported Oil has increased to 70% of its requirements.
• Customs duty on edible oils
  As India’s edible oil imports surge during the past six months, depressing prices of domestically produced mustard, soyabean and other soft oils and in turn cutting returns of farmers and processors, the industry has demanded substantial increase in import duty to curtail imports.
  The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is only 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty.

Q.11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Lala Lajpat Rai was the most prolific writer among his contemporary nationalist leaders of India. His literary activity started when he was still in his teens and he continued to write almost to the last day of his life. To rouse the Punjabis from slumber and inspire them with patriotic zeal, He wrote the biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, Dayanand and Shri Krishna, besides other important works in English, Hindi and Urdu.
• He visited USA and Japan where he kept in touch with the Indian revolutionaries. In England, he also became a member of the British Labour party. In recognition of his outstanding role in the freedom movement, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Calcutta session (1920).
• Hence, c is the correct option.

Q.12. Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Aadhar Card is a 12-digit unique number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) by taking a person's biometric details such as iris scan and fingerprints, and demographic information like date of birth and address.
• The Aadhaar Act regulations, which are currently in Parliament, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.
• Calcutta High Court on 26th Dec 2016 ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.

Q.13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) I and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• A growing list of human and environmental pressures threaten the world’s largest lakes, inhibiting their ability to supply water, drive economic activity, preserve biodiversity, and sustain communities.
• The Aral Sea, once the fourth largest lake in the world, has been shrinking steadily since the 1960s.
• Lake Baikal, the biggest and oldest lake in the world, is home to approximately 2,500 species of plants and animals. It is drying up as the lake’s water levels continue to drop, according to the local natural resources ministry.

Q.14. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Ans. (d)
Solution.
The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of "working to advance the rule of law around the world". It works through three programs — Research and Scholarship, the WJP Rule of Law Index, and Engagement. WJP seeks to increase public awareness about the foundational importance of the rule of law, stimulate government reforms, and develop practical programs at the community level.

Q.15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
(a) Indian banks' Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking.
• It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payments in India.
  It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks Association (IBA).
• Hence, c is the correct option.

Q.16. Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is also known as Capital to Risk (weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR). It is the ratio of a bank's capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is a measure of bank's capital. It is expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk weighted credit exposures. CAR is not decided by each individual bank but by RBI on the basis of Basel Committee recommendations.
• The Basel III accord is the latest international framework on how banks should calculate their capital. It is set to be implemented on 31 March, 2018.
• They created Basel III to “improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever the source.” In other words, the Committee wanted to make sure that banks could survive major financial crises.
• The framework divides the capital of banks into two tiers:
  Tier I comprises ordinary share capital, audited revenue reserves, future tax benefits, and intangible assets.
  Tier II comprises unaudited retained earnings, general provisions for bad debts, revaluation reserves, perpetual subordinated debt. It also includes perpetual cumulative preference shares and subordinated debt.

Q.17. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• The UIDAI is charged with the responsibility of issuing Indian residents with identification numbers that are unique to facilitate authentication and verification of Indian residents.
• The API authenticates Indian residents wishing to get services from Indian government agencies. Responses and calls for Aadhaar API are in XML format.
  The Application Programming Interface released by Aadhaar contains individual’s protocol, specifications about security and data in for of API format.
  The open source programming offered by Aadhaar API in its project of unique identification in India helps developers of the software to build and manage data applications. With the API system the Aadhaar team handling the identification process is able to enjoy a smooth flow of activities without undue interferences. With the open source program available, developers will be able to create apps using standards that are open which will eventually enhance interoperability.
• The connection of Aadhaar API with open source programming is also aimed at enhancing performance metrics and prudency that will ensure transparency through public portals. The open source program supports java, NET, windows and Linux and developers of Aadhaar API can easily create an ecosystem that allows him to play libraries stored in the standard API.
• For complete authentication of individuals, the authentication API would require 12 digits together with the various biometric identifications such as iris scans and fingerprints. The API system gives responses in binary forms of either no or yes which guarantees privacy.

Q.18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• The 2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI) shows long-term progress in reducing hunger in the world. The report ranked 119 countries in the developing world, nearly half of which have ‘extremely alarming,’ ‘alarming’ or ’serious’ hunger levels. According to 2017 Global Hunger Index scores, the level of hunger in the world has decreased by 27 percent from the 2000 level. India ranked 100th position among 119 countries on Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2017.
• 2017 GHI scores still raise significant concern, including Somalia, South Sudan, and Syria. Even the United Nations declared that more than 20 million people are at risk of famine in Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan and Yemen.
• Yemen was the sole country on the 2017 Global Hunger Index suffering from "alarming" or "extremely alarming" levels of hunger that's not located in Africa. Yemen ranked 114th out of the 119 countries assessed, and its hunger level, falling in the "alarming" category, has dropped 7 percent in the past 17 years.
• South Sudan lacked sufficient data for calculating this year's Global Hunger Index score. But in February, the United Nations declared famine in parts of the country, the first to be announced anywhere in the world since 2011. The formal declaration meant South Sudanese were already dying of hunger.

Q.19. Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Wood’s Dispatch, 1854

1. It is considered as the “Magna Carta of English Education in India” and contained comprehensive plan for spreading education in India.
2. It states the responsibility of State for the spread of education to the masses.
3. It recommended the hierarchy education level - At bottom, vernacular primary school; at district, Anglo-vernacular High Schools and affiliated college, and affiliated universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras Presidency.
4. Recommended English as a medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level. Therefore, the Dispatch clearly stated that Indian languages as well as English should be used as media of instruction.
   The Dispatch recommended that owing to the shortage of books in Indian languages, the medium of instruction should be English. But English should be needed for those people who have proper knowledge and taste for English and are able to understand European knowledge through this language. For other Indian languages should be used.
5. In Wood’s Dispatch, much emphasis was given upon women education. The Despatch also encouraged the private enterprises to promote women education. The schools for girls were to be included among those to which grants-in-aid would be given
6. Concerning Muslim Education, Mr. Wood found that Muslims in this country were educationally backward and hence they should be encouraged to gain more education and efforts should be made in this direction.
7. The Dispatch recommended that academically and highly qualified person should be preferred more than the others for Government services.
8. The Dispatch directed the company to follow a policy of religious neutrality. No man’s religion was to stand in the way of securing an appointment under the Government.
9. Wood‘s Dispatch recommended the establishment of teacher training schools in each of the provinces. There should be training schools for teachers of engineering, medicine and law. The qualified teachers should be given better pay scales. The Dispatch further emphasized on the provision of scholarships to the teachers during their training period.
10. The Dispatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities were to be modelled after the London University.
11. The Dispatch admitted that mass education has been totally neglected. Therefore, the Dispatch directed that useful and practical knowledge should be conveyed to masses.

Q.20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Committee on Subordinate Legislation
There shall be a Committee for every house of parliament on Subordinate Legislation to scrutinize and ensure whether powers to make rules, regulations, bye-laws, schemes or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament have been properly exercised within such conferment or delegation. The Committee shall consist of fifteen members each in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.

Q.21. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The National Council for Teacher Education determines the eligibility conditions of teachers.
• ‘Free and compulsory education’ was made a ‘Fundamental Right’ under article 21A of the constitution in December 2002 through the 86th Amendment Act.
• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

Salient features of RTE Act 2009

• Every child in the age group of 6-14 has the right to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school, till the completion of elementary education.
• The act prohibits donation, capitation fee, screening test/interview of child or parents, physical punishment or mental harassment, private tuition by teachers, and running schools without recognition.
• The Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act mandates unaided and non-minority schools to keep aside 25% seats for underprivileged children of society through a random selection process. Government will fund education of these children.
• No child can be held back, expelled and required to pass the board examination till the completion of elementary education.
• The Act lays down the norms and standards of Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs), buildings and infrastructure, school working days, teacher working hours. Schools that do not fulfil these standards will not be allowed to function. Specification of the PTR ensures that there is no averaging at the State or District or Block level, preventing urban-rural imbalance in teacher postings.
• The Act provides appointment of appropriately trained teachers. Norms and standards of teacher qualification and training are clearly laid down in the Act.
• The Act prohibits deployment of teachers for non-educational work, other than decennial census, elections to local authority, state legislatures and parliament, and disaster relief.
• There is provision for establishment of commissions to supervise the implementation of the act. All schools except private unaided schools are to be managed by School management Committees with 75% of parents and guardians as members.
• The Act specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authority in providing free and compulsory education, and sharing of financial and other responsibilities between the Central and State Governments.

Q.22. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram, India. It is estimated to have started in 1450-1700 A.D. in a village called Suaipui. It is celebrated during March after the completion of the task i.e. jungle-clearing (clearing of the remnants of burning). This festival is celebrated with great fervour and gaiety.
• Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time.
• The art of Thang-Ta represents an ancient and remarkable tradition of Manipur. It exhibits the extraordinary technique of combat using the Thang (sword) and the Ta (spear). Thang-Ta symbolises the traditional martial art techniques of the Manipuris. It was also known as Huyen Lallong which means the art of sword and the spear.

Q.23. Consider the following statements
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health, Family Welfare and Government of India. The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India. It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. The Food Safety and Standard Act replaced 8 older acts:

1. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
2. Fruit Products Order, 1955
3. Meat Food Products Order, 1973
4. Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
5. Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
6. Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967
7. Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992

Q.24. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Ans. (b)
Solution.
The "two-state solution" is the preferred solution adopted for the Arab-Israel conflict by the creation of an independent state of Israel and Palestine and is the mainstream approach to resolve the conflict. The idea is that Israelis and Palestinians want to run their countries differently; Israelis want a Jewish state and Palestinians want a Palestinian one. Because neither side can get what it wants in a joined state, the only possible solution that satisfies everyone involves separating Palestinians and Israelis.

Q.25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month.
• Corresponding to the all India coverage of 75% and 50% in the rural and urban areas, State-wise coverage will be determined by the Central Government. The then Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) has determined the State-wise coverage by using the NSS Household Consumption Survey data for 2011-12.
• Food grains under TPDS will be made available at subsidised prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains for a period of three years from the date of commencement of the Act. Thereafter prices will be as fixed by the Central Government from time to time, not exceeding MSP. It has been decided by the Government to continue the above mentioned subsidized prices up to June, 2018.
• Within the coverage under TPDS determined for each State, the work of identification of eligible households is to be done by States/UTs.
• Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes. Higher nutritional norms have been prescribed for malnourished children upto 6 years of age.
• Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
• Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
• Grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels. States will have the flexibility to use the existing machinery or set up separate mechanism.
• Central Government will provide assistance to States in meeting the expenditure incurred by them on transportation of food grains within the State, its handling and FPS dealers’ margin as per norms to be devised for this purpose.
• Provisions have been made for disclosure of records relating to PDS, social audits and setting up of Vigilance Committees in order to ensure transparency and accountability.
• Provision for food security allowance to entitled beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled food grains or meals.
• Provision for penalty on public servant or authority, to be imposed by the State Food Commission, in case of failure to comply with the relief recommended by the District Grievance Redressal Officer.

Q.26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Ans. (d)
Solution.
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, coupled with the ‘Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Rules, 2002. The Act, which became operational with effect from 15 September 2003, was drafted as part of the exercise in the country to set in place national IPR laws as much in compliance with India’s obligations under the Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs) of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) so as to take advantage of the ‘minimum’ standards of GI protection that the TRIPs sets out for the WTO members to comply with in their respective national legislations.

Q.27. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• As per the new mining law — Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 — which came into effect from January 2015, the non-coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective state governments.
• Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha river, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district.
• In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district.
• In Rajasthan the Iron-Ore deposits are located in the districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara.

Q.28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID. 

Q.29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Ans. (a)
Solution.

Q.30. International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Ans. (a)
Solution.
The Union Cabinet recently gave its approval for ratification of the two fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization namely, Minimum Age Convention (No 138) concerning minimum age for admission to employment and the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (No 182) concerning the prohibition and immediate action for elimination of the worst forms of Child Labour.

Q.31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a ) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Ans. (c)
Solution.

1. Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lower Chamber of Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha) which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, laws governing borrowing and expenditure of the Government, prevention of black money etc.

2. 110(1)…a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:

• The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
• The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
• The custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such fund;
• The appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
• The declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
  of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;
• The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State.

Q.32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of following statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The presidential electoral college is made up of the following:

1. elected members of the Rajya Sabha
2. elected members of the Lok Sabha
3. elected members of each state Vidhan Sabha
4. elected members of union territory Delhi and Puducherry)

• The value of votes cast by elected members of the state legislative assemblies and both houses of parliament are determined by the provisions of article 55(2) of the Constitution of India.
• The value of the vote of each MLA of each state is different. It is determined by the average constituency size and 1971 census. The value of an MLA of uttar pradesh is highest i.e.208.
  The value of the vote of each MP of lok sabha and rajya sabha is equal i.e.708. The total value of current strength of loksabha MPs is 384,444 and Rajya sabha's (233)total value is 164,964.

Q.33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the `International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)' ?
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• India's Additional Protocol for nuclear safeguards has been brought into force after the country handed over the instrument of ratification to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
• The protocol supports the sharing of more information between India and the IAEA about nuclear power plants and work with nuclear fuel materials. It covers a list of nuclear facilities that was agreed in 2008 under then-prime minister Manmohan Singh, but its implementation stalled in the last few years of his premiership.
• Having taken power in late May, new prime minister Narendra Modi ratified the protocol on 24 June, and India's ambassador to the IAEA, Rajiva Misra, handed the document to IAEA director general Yukiya Amano on 25 July. From that day the additional protocol was in force.

Q.34. Consider the following countries :
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN ?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Ans. (c)
Solution.
Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific region. These include the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).
Why it was asked?
To mark 25 years of collaboration, besides 10 years of summit-level association and five years of strategic partnership, India has invited the leaders of all 10 ASEAN countries to New Delhi for a commemorative summit on 25 January. The theme of the summit is “Shared Values, Common Destiny”

Q.35. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct.''
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: because the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).
  GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyse and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
• Statement 2 is correct: because membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: because India is just a signatory.

Q.36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3 Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a ) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Digital India is a campaign launched by the Government of India to ensure the Government services are made available to citizens electronically by improved online infrastructure and by increasing Internet connectivity or by making the country digitally empowered in the field of technology. It consists of three core components,
(a) development of secure and stable digital infrastructure, (b) delivering government services digitally, and (c) universal digital literacy.
Objectives of the Digital India

1. Digital infrastructure: high speed internet facility, mobile phone and bank account, access to common service centre, internet identity, sharable private space on a public cloud and safe and secure cyberspace.
2. Governance and services on demand will be available in real time for online and mobile platforms, seamlessly integrated across departments and jurisdictions. All citizen documents to be made available on the cloud platform so that physical document presentation can be minimized. Cashless electronic transactions and Geographical Information Systems (GIS) will be integrated with the scheme.
3. Empower citizens, especially rural citizens, by providing digital literacy.

Q.37. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Aleppo is a city in Syria, serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad. Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank. Mazar-e Sharif, city is in Afghanistan, 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, b is the correct option.

Q.38. In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Under 1935 Act, the Governor General was authorized to act in his discretion and under certain other provisions; he could exercise his individual judgment. He was vested with the final political authority in the country; and was given widest discretionary powers and special responsibilities. These functions and powers were defined by the Act as his special responsibilities. In Government of India Act 1935 the discretionary powers and responsibilities of Governor General are as follows:

1. Under Govt. Act of India 1935, he was in charge of the Reserve Departments of Defence, Foreign Affairs, Ecclesiastical Affairs and Tribal Areas and he appoint three councillors to assist him in his work.
2. He could appoint and dismiss the Council of Ministers and also could preside over their meetings. They would hold office during his pleasure. Their consultation and advice was not binding upon him.
3. He could issue two kinds of ordinances. One type of ordinance he could issue at any time and that lasted for 6 months. The other kind of ordinance would be issued when the legislature was not in session.
4. The Governor General was also given the power to issue what were known as Governor General Act. But these had to be forwarded to the Secretary of State.
5. The previous of Governor General was required for the introduction of certain bills in the Federal Legislature and the Provincial Legislatures: He was authorized to stop discussion on any bill at any time by the legislature. He could withhold his assent to a bill passed by the Legislature or send the same back for the consideration of His Majesty.
6. He was given control over 80% of the Federal budget; the non-vote able items of the budget formed a major part of the budget.
7. The Governor General could in his discretion send any instructions to the Governors and it was the special responsibility of the later to carry them out.
8. Governor General could suspend the Constitution.
9. In Government of India Act 1935 Governor General was given the authority to summon, prorogue and dissolve the Federal Assembly lie could summon both the houses for joint sitting. He could address the Legislatures and could send messages regarding certain bills.

Q.39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.
The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if:

1. He/she ceases to be member of the assembly.
2. He/she resigns by writing to be deputy speaker.
3. He/she is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the present members of the assembly.

Such resolution can be brought only after giving 14 days advance notice.
The Speaker does not vacate his office on the dissolution of the Assembly. He continues holding office, until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after dissolution. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are paid such salaries and allowances as may be fixed by the State Legislature by law. Their salaries are not votable as they are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Q.40. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Ans. (b)
Solution.
The statements in this question are a little vague and prone to various interpretations based on the context.

• Option B: is a popular choice because it was a statement made by John Locke. He, in Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSCE (Unregulated liberty). Therefore, B is correct.
  But, then such statements are not to be considered objective realities. If there are no laws, there can be either complete liberty, because nothing restricts the actions of citizens, or NO liberty because then lawlessness can heavily curtail liberty. It really depends. It is an extreme statement to say that when there are no laws, there is no liberty (Can we say there is no liberty in a Jungle?) There can be liberty despite the absence of laws.
  Still, our experience says that UPSC would pick B as the answer despite all the odds. 
• Option D: This can also be justified, but this would not be the most appropriate answer here (because UPSC might well consider B as more appropriate).

1. The fundamental philosophy of rule of law in a liberal society is that laws should be just, reasonable and based on the principles of fairness and equity. If laws are changed too often, one would find their actions restricted because what was a completely lawful action, such as smoking, may suddenly become illegal because it hurts the health of a common citizen.
2. And then on the next day, the government can legalise smoking and thus infringe on the liberty of those who cannot bear public smoking.
3. When laws are changed too often, and when there is no fundamental principle on which laws are based, it can lead to dictatorship and arbitarariness, which defeats the very purpose of the rule of law based on reason.
4. But, laws can also be changed too often based on the exigencies and contingencies and this may not violate someone’s liberty. However, if there was no option B, this would have been the most appropriate answer.

• Option A: is incorrect because if there are more laws, it may lead to more liberty as well as laws themselves might be enabling more liberty.  

Q.41. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The Governor is the head of a state just like the President is the head of the republic. The Governor is the nominal head of a state, while the Chief Minister is the executive head.  All executive actions of the state are taken in the name of the Governor. He/she is also entitled to certain benefits and allowances, which shall not be diminished during his office term of five years.
Article 361 in The Constitution of India states that:

1. No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office
2. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
   Hence, c is the correct option.

Q.42. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the
(a) Bundi school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Ans. (d)
Solution.
Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of King Sawant Singh (1748–1764). She has been compared to the Mona Lisa.

Q.43. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Ans. (c)
Soution.

• Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.
• THAAD was developed after the experience of Iraq’s Scud missile attacks during the Gulf War in 1991. The THAAD interceptor carries no warhead, but relies on its kinetic energy of impact to destroy the incoming missile.
• A kinetic energy hit minimizes the risk of exploding conventional-warhead ballistic missiles, and the warhead of nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles will not detonate on a kinetic-energy hit.

Q.44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Statement 1: TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence S1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Tyagaraja took music training from SontiVenkataramayya. But that didn’t stop him from taking musical inspirations from various earlier poets. He was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous musical operas, and about twenty four thousand songs, a claim that has been speculated among music historians. Hence, S2 is correct.
• Statement 3: Tyagaraja was born on 14th May 1767 in the village of Thiruvayaru in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu whereas TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4: TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence, S4 is correct.

Q.45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law" ?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The concept of rule of law is a very dynamic concept, capable of interpretations to enable the successful working of a democracy. It is the restriction on the arbitrary exercise of power by subordinating it to well-defined and established laws.
Features of the Modern Meaning of Rule of Law

1. Certainty of the law
2. Supremacy of the law
3. Equality before the law
4. Right to personal freedom
5. Laws must not take retrospective effect
6. Independent judiciary
7. Protection of human rights

Q.46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Legal tender money is a type of payment that is protected by law.
• Legal tender is also known as forced tender which is very secured and it is impossible to deny the legal tender while subsiding a debt which is assigned in the same medium of exchange. In other words we can say that the term legal tender does not represent the money itself, rather it is a kind of status which can be bestowed on certain types of money.
• The options given in the Question does not properly explain the definition of legal tender money. So, therefore the most suitable explanation is answer b.

Q.47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Ans. (d)
Solution.
Opportunity cost is the cost which could have been earned from second best investment option. For free goods, the opportunity cost is zero for the person consuming it, however, it is not so for the provider of that good. The choice of spending on various alternatives is available with government and not tax payers. Thus, it is transferred to government.

Q.48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than exports.
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Per capita GNP is the total value of all the goods and services produced by a country in a year including income from foreign investments, divided by the number of people living there. For countries which have a lot of foreign investments, GNP per capita is a more accurate economic indicator.
• GNP = GDP + Net income inflow from abroad – Net income outflow to foreign countries.
  Therefore, if gains of increase in per capita income are grabbed by a small section of society, then economic growth will not lead to economic development.

Q.49. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The term human capital formation implies the development of abilities and skills among the population of the country.
• According to Harbison, the human capital formation indicates, “The process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education and experience which are critical for the economic and the political development of the country. Human capital formation is thus associated with investment in man and his development as a creative and productive resource.”
• Thus, human capital formation indicates investment for imparting education, improvement of health and training of workers in specialised skills. Although the accumulation of physical capital is quite important in the process of economic growth of a country but with the passage of time, it is being increasingly realised that the growth of tangible capital stock depends extensively on the human capital formation must get its due importance.

Q.50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Without the availability of adequate capital either in the form of physical capital or in the form of human capital development of nation is not possible. The higher the rate of capital formation, the faster is the pace of economic growth. Saving and investment are essential for capital formation. But savings are different from hoardings. For savings to be utilised for investment purposes, they must be mobilised in banks and financial institutions. And the businessmen, the entrepreneurs and the farmers invest these community savings on capital goods by taking loans from these banks and financial institutions. This is capital formation.
• The process of capital formation involves three steps: Increase in the volume of real savings, Mobilisation of savings through financial and credit institutions and Investment of savings. So, if a country has high savings but poor technology, low efficiency then economic growth will not be possible.

Q.51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas' were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• In 1855-56 the Santhal Revolt took place. Santhals are a group of tribals concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant movement which took place in India. The revolt has reference to the establishment of the permanent land settlement of 1793.
• Santhal rebellion was led by 4 Murmu brothers named Sindhu, Kanhu , Chand and Bhairav against the oppressive zamindari system. The Santhals showed exemplary courage in fighting against the British, despite being beaten and harassed. The British knew it well that if they want to rule in the area they have to agree to the main demands of the Santhals and accord them the dignity due to them. Therefore, the District of Santhal Pargana was created in 1885 after the partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.

Q.52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• The British manufacturers looked upon the East India Company, its monopoly of eastern trade, and its methods of exploitation of India through control of India’s revenues and export trade, to be the chief obstacles in the fulfilment of their dreams.
• Between 1793 and 1813, they launched a powerful campaign against the Company and its commercial privileges and finally succeeded in 1813 in abolishing its monopoly of Indian trade.
• With this event, a new phase in Britain’s economic relations with India began. Agricultural India was to be made an economic colony of industrial England. The Government of India now followed a policy of free trade or unrestricted entry of British goods. Therefore we can say that when the industrial revolution in England gained pace commercialization of Indian agriculture started.

Q.53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Emergency Provisions are included in part XVIII from articles 352 to 360 in the Constitution for dealing with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof.
According to the Constitution it is the duty of the Union Government to ensure that governance of a State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Under Article 356, the President may issue a proclamation to impose emergency in a state if he is satisfied on receipt of a report from the Governor of the concerned State, or otherwise, that a situation has arisen under which the administration of the State cannot be carried on according to the provisions of the constitution.

• In such a situation, proclamation of emergency by the President is on account of the failure (or breakdown) of constitutional machinery. Thus it is known as “President’s Rule” or “State Emergency” or “Constitutional Emergency”.
• Effects of Imposition of President’s Rule in a State
• The President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government or he may vest all or any of those functions with the Governor or any other executive authority.
• The President may dissolve the State Legislative Assembly or put it under suspension. He may authorize the Parliament to make laws on behalf of the State Legislature.
• The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or any other body specified by him when the state legislature is suspended or dissolved.

Q.54. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu; Sujni embroider – Bihar; Uppada jamdani sarees – Andhra Pradesh.

Q.55. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution.
GPS is the Global Positioning System. It s a global navigation satellite system that uses at least 24 satellites, a receiver and algorithms to provide location, velocity and time synchronization for air, sea and land travel.GPS works at all times and in almost all weather conditions.
5 basic uses of GPS are:
Location — Determining a position.
Navigation — Getting from one location to another.
Tracking — Monitoring object or personal movement.
Mapping — Creating maps of the world
Timing — Making it possible to take precise time measurements.
Some examples of GPS applications include:
Agriculture, Astronomy, Automated vehicle, Cellular telephony, Clock synchronization, Disaster relief/emergency services, Radio occultation for weather and atmospheric science applications, Geofencing, GPS aircraft tracking, for mining, or for data mining, for navigation and surveying.
Who Uses GPS?
Some of the applications that GPS systems are currently being used for around the world include mining, aviation, surveying, agriculture, marine, recreation, and military. These days doctors, scientists, farmers, soldiers, pilots, hikers, delivery drivers, sailors, fishermen, dispatchers, athletes, and people from many other walks of life are using GPS systems in ways that make their work more productive, safer, and easier.

Q.56. Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 Only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution.
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).

• Statement 1: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI.
  Floatation of State Government Loans (State Development Loans): As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State. I
  Accordingly, the RBI has entered into agreements with 29 State Governments and one Union Territory (UT of Puducherry) for management of their public debt.
• Statement 2: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs). Treasury Bills (T-bills) Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 3.64 day.
• Statement 3: Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of 100/- (face value) may be issued at say 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of  100/-.

Q.57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Statement 1: A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million years. But that regularity hasn’t continued, as the last known reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago. 
• Statement 2: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and Proterozoic time), the earliest  atmosphere contained carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N), and hydrogen (H).
• Statement 3: When living organisms originated, they did not affect the early atmosphere because they lacked the ability to do so. Early atmosphere of earth was modified by solar winds. This happened not only in case of the earth, but also in all the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds

1. The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back….(then) About 2000 million years ago the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth. Early atmosphere of earth had no free oxygen, the (life) forms until then could at best be only “anaerobic”.
2. For several eons prior to the evolution of cyanobacteria, during the Archean eon, more primitive microbes lived anaerobically, without utilizing oxygen. These ancient organisms—and their “extremophile” descendants today—thrived in the absence of oxygen, relying on sulfate for their energy needs.
3. Life started to have a major impact on the environment ONLY once cyanobacteria or photosynthetic organisms evolved. These organisms, blue-green algae, fed off atmospheric carbon dioxide and converted much of it into marine sediments consisting of the shells of sea creatures.
4. Oxygen was first produced somewhere around 2.7 billion to 2.8 billon years ago. The early atmosphere is much older than that (between 4.5 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago). Hence, S3 is INCORRECT.

Q.58. The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
(a) Exo-planets
(b) Crypto-currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017; are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe. Wanna Cry, which affected numerous organisations, including the NHS, spread to 150 countries and is estimated to have cost the global economy £6bn.

Q.59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Conservation agriculture (CA) technologies involve minimum soil disturbance, permanent soil cover through crop residues or cover crops, and crop rotations for achieving higher productivity.
• Main features of Conservation agriculture (CA) are; Least interference with natural processes, No-till or drastically reduced tillage (biological tillage, Low wind and soil erosion, Surface retention of residues (permanently covered),Infiltration rate of water is high, Use of in-situ organics/composts, Brown manuring/cover crops (surface retention),Diversified and more efficient rotations etc.
• The principal indicators of non-sustainability of agricultural systems includes: soil erosion, soil organic matter decline, salinization. These are caused mainly by: (i) intensive tillage induced soil organic matter decline, soil structural degradation, water and wind erosion, reduced water infiltration rates, surface sealing and crusting, soil compaction, (ii) insufficient return of organic material, and (iii) monocropping.

Q.60. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs. .
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.
• The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and arthropods.
• With widespread degradation of highly bio-diverse habitats such as coral reefs and rainforests, as well as other areas, the vast majority of these extinctions is thought to be undocumented, as we are either not even aware of the existence of the species before they go extinct, or we haven’t yet discovered their extinction.
• The current rate of extinction of species is estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates.

Q.61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The IRNSS is being developed parallel to the GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Satellite Navigation) program, the ISRO SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System) version of an overlay system for GNSS signal corrections.
• The IRNSS system consists of a constellation of seven satellites and a supporting ground segment. Three of the satellites in the constellation will be placed in a geostationary orbit and the remaining four in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29º relative to the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio visibility with Indian control stations. It will cover the entire country and an area extending about 1,500 sq. km beyond its border, with a position accuracy better than 20m in all weather conditions.

Q.62. Consider the following phenomena :
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Statement 1: Einstein’s theory of relativity has important astrophysical implications. For example, it implies the existence of black holes—regions of space in which space and time are distorted in such a way that nothing, not even light, can escape—as an end-state for massive stars.
  There is ample evidence that the intense radiation emitted by certain kinds of astronomical objects is due to black holes; for example, micro quasars and active galactic nuclei result from the presence of stellar black holes and super massive black holes, respectively.
  The bending of light by gravity can lead to the phenomenon of gravitational lensing, in which multiple images of the same distant astronomical object are visible in the sky.
  Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: General relativity also predicts the existence of gravitational waves, which have since been observed directly by the physics collaboration LIGO. In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe.
  Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: General relativity is Einstein’s law of gravity, his Justification of that fundamental force which holds us to the surface of the Earth. Gravity, Einstein asserted, is caused by warping of space and time or space-time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q.63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Statement 1: It is developed by using three genes viz., barnase, barstar and bar from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens for hybrid seed production.
  1. The barnase gene confers male sterility to a plant in which it is inserted and barstar gene restore the fertility to produce fertile hybrid plants and seeds.
  2. The third gene bar synthesize an enzyme call PAT, which is responsible for tolerance to glufosinate in the plant. Glufosinate is a broad spectrum herbicide, which indiscriminately eliminates weeds and any plant that does not have the bar gene.
  3, Glufosinate herbicides contain the active ingredient phosphinothricin, which kills plants by blocking the enzyme responsible for nitrogen metabolism and for detoxifying ammonia, a by-product of plant metabolism.
• Statement 2: It has mainly two genes (‘barnase’ and ‘barstar’) that allow for cross-pollination and hybridisation in mustard, which is largely a self-pollinating plant because of its individual flowers containing both female and male reproductive organs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University and the project was part-funded by the Department of Biotechnology, a division of the Science Ministry.

Q.64. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Statement 1: The Belle II experiment is designed to record data at Super KEKB, a 3 km circumference asymmetric electron-positron collider with a performance similar or better than Belle or BaBar, the B factory detectors, in a much more severe beam background environment.
  Belle-2 experiment in Tsukuba, Japan, by The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
• Statement 2: A block chain is a digitized, decentralized, public ledger of all crypto currency transactions. Constantly growing as ‘completed’ blocks (the most recent transactions) are recorded and added to it in chronological order, it allows market participants to keep track of digital currency transactions without central recordkeeping. Each node (a computer connected to the network) gets a copy of the block chain, which is downloaded automatically.
• Statement 3: CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. However, its promise also raises ethical concerns.

Q.65. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about hr the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Carbon fertilization results in larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to increase crop yields – and that is some good news for farmers, amid the overwhelmingly gloomy forecasts for other aspects of climate change.

Q.66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term" best applies to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a network comprised of physical objects capable of gathering and sharing electronic information. The Internet of Things includes a wide variety of “smart” devices, from industrial machines that transmit data about the production process to sensors that track information about the human body.
• Often, these devices use internet protocol (IP), the same protocol that identifies computers over the World Wide Web and allows them to communicate with one another.
• The goal behind the internet of things is to have devices that self-report in real time, improving efficiency and bringing important information to the surface more quickly than a system depending on human intervention.

Q.67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Statement 1: Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.
• Statement 2: CERC determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
• SECI has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.
• Why this question was asked?
  India plans to invest $480 million to set up its first unit for manufacturing solar silicon cells that will feed a project to build the world’s largest solar power plant.

Q.68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Ans: (d)
Solution.
During the period 1780–1860 India changed from an exporter of processed goods paid for in bullion to an exporter of raw materials and a buyer of manufactured goods. In the 1750s fine cotton and silk was exported from India to markets in Europe, Asia, and Africa, while by the second quarter of the 19th century, raw materials, which chiefly consisted of raw cotton, opium, and indigo, accounted for most of India's exports.

Q.69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Known as India’s first civil disobedience movement, it was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.
• It is widely regarded as the place where Gandhi made his first experiments in satyagraha and then replicated them elsewhere.
• Why?
  To commemorate the anniversary of the Champaran Satyagraha movement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited East Champaran in the Month of March, 2018 where he addressed over 20,000 swachhagrahis from across the country engaged in creating awareness among people to construct toilets and avoid defecation in open.

 Q.70. Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948 ?
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Ans. (d)
Solution.
The Hind Mazdoor sabha was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. It was founded by Basawon Singh, Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.

Q.71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Sthanakvasi is a sect of svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon. Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthānakavāsins are mostly part of the Murtipujaka sect.

Q.72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is “the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, etc.” The construction of the Buland Darwaza was inspired by Timurid architecture. Along with Humayun’s Tomb, its monumentality reflects its Central Asian origins.
• Asaf-ud-Daula’s rule saw a devastating famine, which created an economic crisis. The residents of Awadh were self-respecting people, so instead of handing out dole, the Nawab started a food-for-work programme. The famous Asafi Imambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow was built to give employment and revenue to the public.
• Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble. The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces.

Q.73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Ans. (b)

Solution.

• Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler. Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense, covered, by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles) in making six voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668.
• Tavernier was born in Paris of a French or Flemish Huguenot family that had emigrated to Antwerp, to escape persecution, and which subsequently returned to Paris after the publication of the Edict of Nantes, which promised protection for French Protestants. Both his father Gabriel and his uncle Melchior were cartographers.
• In a book written by Ball, Valentine (tr. from the 1676 French Ed.) (1899). Travels in India by Jean Baptiste Tavernier, he clearly states that Tavernier identified the diamond mining sites in India very clearly.

Q.74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.
• According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.
• According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).
• The prophecy of the arrival of Maitreya refers to a time in the future when the dharma will have been forgotten by most on the terrestrial world Maitreya has also been adopted for his millenarian role by many non-Buddhist religions in the past, such as the White Lotus, as well as by modern new religious movements, such as Yiguandao

Q.75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
(a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• The French assistance to Tipu Sultan in 1798 was the last instance of active intervention of any other European power in India. To counter the intrigues of Napoleon and any further development in French Power in India, Wellesley, who was extremely influenced with the imperial thoughts, came up with the scheme of eliminating the French Power from India for ever.
• He placed the British on the head of the great Indian confederacy. The Fourth Anglo Mysore war had placed England on the Military supremacy in India and now Wellesley used the Subsidiary Alliance System aggressively.

1. It was a Treaty, between the company and the Indian native rulers. In return for a payment or subsidy, the company would place garrison troops in that ruler’s territory to fight against their rivals.
2. An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British would accept British forces within his territory and to pay for their maintenance.

Q.76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

Solution.

• According to the clause 43 of the Charter Act of 1813 the Company had partly undertaken the responsibility of education in India and a sum of one lakh of rupees had been earmarked for the purpose. But no concrete steps were taken in this regard before 1823. The section of the Charter Act of 1813 remained inoperative till 1823.
• At last in 1823 an official agency, General Committee of Public Instruction (G.C.P.I.) was created to deal with educational matters, particularly the expenditure of the sum of one lakh of rupees. “Thus a state system of education was begun almost simultaneously in all the three Presidencies by about 1823 and continued to expand till 1833. The educational grant of India was also increased from one lakh to ten lakhs of rupees per annum”
• Thus the activities of the G.C.P.I. for the decade from 1823 clearly indicate its inclination towards Orientalism. This policy of Orientalism was severely attacked by the enlightened Indians under the leadership of Raja Rammohanroy. He submitted a memorandum to the Governor-General on 11th December, 1823 and urged the Government to abandon the proposal for establishing a Sanskrit College in Calcutta.
• But no heed was paid to this memorial and the Committee went against the trend of history and the desire for English education among Indians.

Q.77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake ?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) N ainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge,the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA.The lake is said to be Kodaikanal's most popular geographic landmark and tourist attraction.

Q.78. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
• Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

Key Components of the Scheme:

1. The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Duration of the training varies per job role, ranging between 150 and 3.00 hours.
2. Recognition of Prior Learning Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF.

Q.79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Ans. (a)
Solution.
The Home Rule League was renamed to Swarajya Sabha in 1920. Gandhi ji joined this league and accepted the presidentship of the renamed organisation “Swarajya Sabha”.

Q.80. Which among the following events happened earliest ?
(a) Swami Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Ans. (b)
Solution.

1. Dayanand Saraswati was born in 1824 in a Brahmin family in Morvi in Gujarat as Mula Shankar. He founded the Arya Samaj in Bombay in 1875.
2. Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was published from Dhaka in 1860, under a pseudonym of the author.
3. Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. Set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century.
4. Satyendranath Tagore (1st June, 1842 – 9th January, 1923) was the first Indian to join the Indian Civil Service. Satyendranath was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863.He completed his probationary training and returned to India in November 1864. Satyendranath was posted to Bombay presidency.

Q.81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 ,2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Excessive in-stream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
• In-stream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and channel instability.
• The most important effects of in-stream sand mining on aquatic habitats are bed degradation and sedimentation, which can have substantial negative effects on aquatic life.
• Excessive in-stream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.

Q.82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Plants obtain nutrients from two natural sources: organic matter and minerals. Organic matter includes any plant or animal material that returns to the soil and goes through the decomposition process. In addition to providing nutrients and habitat to organisms living in the soil, organic matter also binds soil particles into aggregates and improves the water holding capacity of soil.
• The sulfur cycle is the collection of processes by which sulfur moves to and from rock, waterways and living systems.The isotopic composition of sedimentary sulfides provides primary information on the evolution of the sulfur cycle.
• Too much salt can reduce crop production and water infiltration on soils that have been irrigated for 20 years or more. Too little salt can also result in a chemically compacted soil. The level of sodium (Na) in a soil can result in soil particles or even layers of differing soil profiles forming a compacted layer that the roots do not penetrate.

Q.83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Ans. (b)

Solution.

• The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
• In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled The Future We Want was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in transition to a green economy.

Q.84. "3D printing" has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Statement 1: 3D printing is being used across a range of industries, from construction to medical technology. Its use in the food industry continues to grow. 3D printing of confectionery has focused primarily on chocolate and hard sugar candy, tut recent innovations have led to printing of gummy candy.
• Statement 2: Bionic ears have been developed by some agencies, recently in news.
• Statement 3: It is quite logical as constructing solid parts was one of the first uses of 3D printing.
• Statement 4:  People can now receive custom 3D-printed facial implants to help after illness or injuries.
• Statement 5:  Multimaterial voxel-printing method that enables the physical visualization of data sets commonly associated with scientific imaging.

1. It enables additive manufacturing of discontinuous data types such as point cloud data, curve and graph data, image-based data, and volumetric data.
2. By converting data sets into dithered material deposition descriptions, through modifications to rasterization processes, we demonstrate that data sets frequently visualized on screen can be converted into physical, materially heterogeneous objects.
3. It alleviates the need to postprocess data sets to boundary representations, preventing alteration of data and loss of information in the produced physicalizations.
4. Therefore, it bridges the gap between digital information representation and physical material composition.

Q.85. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea about 140 km NE of Port Blair in the Andaman Islands, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma (Myanmar). The 354-m-high island is the emergent summit of a volcano that rises from a depth of about 2250 m.
• The Barren Island volcano, on a remote uninhabited island off the country’s eastern coast, had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995 and 2005.

Q.86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Prosopis juliflora is a shrub or small tree in the family Fabaceae, a kind of mesquite. It is native to Mexico, South America and the Caribbean. It is a contributing factor to continuing transmission of malaria, especially during dry periods when sugar sources from native plants are largely unavailable to mosquitoes.
• This is not only a big threat to the country's biodiversity but also has become a burden on the environment. This tree is scattered in around 12 states of the country. It has destroyed about 500 species of native plants. If it has not been eliminated on time, it will destroy the remaining bio-diversity of the country. Its roots are too much deep which absorbs lot water also. It was brought to India in 1870.
• Uses
  Its uses include forage, wood and environmental management.

Q.87. Consider the following statements
1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c)  1and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Solution.

• Statement 1 and Statement 2: The vast majority of large reefs created by corals in shallow waters (< 50 m water depth) are located within a tropical zone located between 30º N and 30º S latitude with a preferred temperature range of approximately 22º to 29º C. Coral reefs are often called the “tropical rainforests of the sea” for their astounding richness of life.
  

Fig: Worldwide distribution of coral reefs.

• Statement 3: Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.

Q.88. "Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by
(a) The Intergovernmentai Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation
Ans. (c)
Solution.
The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.
Climate neutrality is a three step process, which requires individuals, companies and governments to:

• Measure their climate footprint;
• Reduce their emissions as much as possible;
• Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.

Q.89. With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• In 1781, Warren Hastings founded the Madarasa Aliya or Calcutta Madarasa.
• Government Sanskrit College was the first college in Benaras. Established in 1791, it was a landmark college in India from where several notable teachers emerged. In 1958 it merged with Sampurnanand Sanskrit University.
• Fort William College (also called the College of Fort William) was an academy and learning centre of Oriental studies established by Lord Wellesley(Richard Colley Wellesley, 1st Marquess Wellesley), then Governor-General of British India. The law to establish its foundation was passed on 4 May 1800, to commemorate the first anniversary of the victory over Tipu Sultan at Seringapatam.

Q.90. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• The autonomous community of Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the north-eastern corner of Spain. It is bordered by France and Andorra to the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west. 
• The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait.
• Mindanao, island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
• Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia, covering 284,538 square kilometres.

Q.91. Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
(c) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
(d) 3 - 1 -2 -4
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• In 1946, Tata Airlines became a public company and was renamed Air India.
• The Imperial Bank of India (IBI) was the oldest and the largest commercial bank of the Indian subcontinent, and was subsequently transformed into State Bank of India in 1955.The Imperial Bank of India came into existence on 27 January 1921 by J.M. Keynes. When the three Presidency Banks of colonial India, were reorganised and amalgamated to form a single banking entity.
• The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats. The election led to the formation of first democratically elected communist government in India and second in the world after San Marino.
• The Portuguese control of its Indian colonies ended only when India invaded Goa in 1961 and incorporated the territories into the Indian Union.

Q.92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Ans. (c)
Solution.

• Article 21 guarantees the Right to life and personal liberty under Part III of the Constitution. The historic fallout of the nine-judge Bench judgment, declaring privacy as intrinsic to life and liberty and an inherent right protected by Part III of the Constitution, is that an ordinary man can now directly approach the Supreme Court and the High Courts for violation of his fundamental right under the Constitution.
• By making privacy an intrinsic part of life and liberty under Article 21, it is not just a citizen, but anyone, whether an Indian national or not, can move the constitutional courts of the land under Articles 32 and 226, respectively, to get justice.

Q.93. Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans. (b)

• MSP is a form of agricultural market intervention undertaken by the Union Government in order to insure agricultural producers are protected against a...
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces MSP for 26 crops, CCEA does not announce
• MSP for arecanut and coffee.

Q.94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (a)
Solution.
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36’ – 93°09'E and 26°54 – 27°16'N) lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in 1977, and was earlier part of the Khellong Forest Division. It has been recently declared a tiger reserve in 2002 based on a proposal in 1999.

Q.95. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. GSLV's primary payloads are INSAT class of communication satellites.
• GSLV-Mk III is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor strap-ons (S200), a liquid propellant core stage (L110) and a cryogenic stage (C25).GSLV-Mk III is capable launching 4 ton class of satellites to Geosynchronous Transfer orbit (GTO).

Q.96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Solution.
Statement 1: Capital infusion has not been steady, therefore statement 1 is wrong.
One of the desired objectives of consolidation of banks is the streamlining of banking operations and reduce their NPA burden.
Thus, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.97. Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Solution.
List of Tax exempted Goods are:

• A number of food items have been exempted from any of the tax slabs. Fresh meat, fish, chicken, eggs, milk, butter milk, curd, natural honey, fresh fruits and vegetables, flour, besan, bread, all kinds of salt, jaggery and hulled cereal grains have been kept out of the taxation system.
• Bindi, sindoor, kajal, palmyra, human hair and bangles also do not attract any tax under GST.
• Drawing or colouring books alongside stamps, judicial papers, printed books, newspapers also fall under this category.
• Other items in the exempted list include jute and handloom, Bones and horn cores, hoof meal, horn meal, bone grist, bone meal, etc.

Q.98. Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Solution.

• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, is a key piece of forest legislation passed in India on 18 December 2006. It has also been called the Forest Rights Act, the Tribal Rights Act, the Tribal Bill, and the Tribal Land Act.
• The Baiga are an ethnic group found in central India, primarily in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. The largest number of Baigas is found in Baiga-chuk in Mandla district and Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh.
• Baiga tribals become India’s first community to get habitat rights. It was in November 2015 that the authorities began handing over legal titles to this community. Authorities have granted over 9,300 hectares (ha) to about 900 families in seven villages in the Madhya Pradesh.

Q.99. Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Solution.
According to the general mode of primary infection plant diseases are recognized as:-

1. Soil borne
2. Seed borne, including diseases carried with planting material.
3. Wind borne
4. Insect borne etc.

• Direct transmission: - Disease transmission where the pathogen is carried externally or internally on the seed or planting material like cuttings, sets, tubers, bulbs etc.
• Indirect transmission:- The pathogen spreading itself by way of its persistent growth or certain structures of the pathogen carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect transmissions.

Q.100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Solution.

• Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001.
• India Organic is a certification mark for organically farmed food products manufactured in India. The certification is issued by testing centres accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).
• Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by converting around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land into sustainable cultivation. Sikkim produces around 80,000 million tonnes of farm products. The total organic production in the country is estimated to be around 1.24 million tonnes while the total area under organic farming is 0.723 million hectares. A number of other states in India like Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala are now trying to become organic.