UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2020: Paper 1 (GS) | UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis PDF Download

 Page 1


 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
1 
Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar 
data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 
India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata can not be stored for more than six 
months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five 
years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.   
The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded 
from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act 
which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar 
number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services 
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. 
The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services 
apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, 
including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, 
IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for 
obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in 
insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of 
section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was 
held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation:  
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. 
Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses 
of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of 
disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. 
However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has 
unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the 
matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. 
The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This 
includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both 
the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Page 2


 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
1 
Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar 
data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 
India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata can not be stored for more than six 
months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five 
years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.   
The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded 
from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act 
which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar 
number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services 
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. 
The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services 
apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, 
including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, 
IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for 
obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in 
insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of 
section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was 
held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation:  
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. 
Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses 
of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of 
disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. 
However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has 
unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the 
matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. 
The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This 
includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both 
the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
2 
Q3. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development 
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for 
health, education, etc. 
2. A specified portion of each MP’s ‘fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be 
carried forward to the next year. 
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation 
every year. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Following are the features of MPLAD scheme: 
All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on 
creation of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS except those 
prohibited in Annexure-II of the guidelines of MPLAD. Therefore statement 1 is correct. 
Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe: M.Ps are to 
recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for 
the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall 
recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok 
Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in 
tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State 
does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. Therefore, 
statement 2 is correct 
MPLADS Funds are Non-lapsable: Funds released to the District Authority by the 
Government of India are non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for 
utilization in the subsequent years. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Role of the District Authority: The District Authority’s role has been outlined in different 
paragraphs of the MPLAD Guidelines. The District Authority would be responsible for overall 
coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect 
at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Therefore, statement 4 is 
correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q4. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against 
untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against Exploitation 
(b) Right to Freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies 
(d) Right to Equality 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Untouchability as a form of discrimination goes against the notion of equality amongst 
citizens irrespective of caste. Therefore, it has been incorporated under Article 17 as one of 
the five rights under the spectrum of right to equality (Articles 14-18) 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
Page 3


 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
1 
Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar 
data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 
India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata can not be stored for more than six 
months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five 
years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.   
The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded 
from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act 
which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar 
number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services 
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. 
The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services 
apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, 
including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, 
IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for 
obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in 
insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of 
section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was 
held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation:  
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. 
Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses 
of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of 
disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. 
However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has 
unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the 
matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. 
The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This 
includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both 
the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
2 
Q3. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development 
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for 
health, education, etc. 
2. A specified portion of each MP’s ‘fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be 
carried forward to the next year. 
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation 
every year. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Following are the features of MPLAD scheme: 
All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on 
creation of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS except those 
prohibited in Annexure-II of the guidelines of MPLAD. Therefore statement 1 is correct. 
Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe: M.Ps are to 
recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for 
the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall 
recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok 
Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in 
tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State 
does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. Therefore, 
statement 2 is correct 
MPLADS Funds are Non-lapsable: Funds released to the District Authority by the 
Government of India are non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for 
utilization in the subsequent years. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Role of the District Authority: The District Authority’s role has been outlined in different 
paragraphs of the MPLAD Guidelines. The District Authority would be responsible for overall 
coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect 
at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Therefore, statement 4 is 
correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q4. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against 
untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against Exploitation 
(b) Right to Freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies 
(d) Right to Equality 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Untouchability as a form of discrimination goes against the notion of equality amongst 
citizens irrespective of caste. Therefore, it has been incorporated under Article 17 as one of 
the five rights under the spectrum of right to equality (Articles 14-18) 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS  
 
3 
 
Q5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by  
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution 
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy  
(c) the Seventh Schedule 
(d) the conventional practice 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Article 50 of the Indian Constitution recommends state to take efforts to separate the 
judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. The Criminal Procedure Code 
(1973) has affected the separation of Judiciary from the Executive in pursuance of Article 50 
under the Directive Principles of State Policy. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q6. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the 
Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid 
document is presented because this is mandated by 
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention 
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India 
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India 
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation:  
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The 
objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run 
macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and 
transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional 
framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the 
parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely  
a. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement;  
b. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and 
c. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q7. A constitutional government by definition is a 
(a) government by legislature 
(b) popular government 
(c) multi-party government 
(d) limited government 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a 
legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the 
fundamental Law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The 
essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state 
organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and 
forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state. Constitutional government in essence 
is about constitutionalism which is about limited government. In many cases, constitutional 
government is used interchangeably with “constitutionally limited government” or “limited 
government”. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
Page 4


 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
1 
Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar 
data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 
India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata can not be stored for more than six 
months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five 
years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.   
The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded 
from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act 
which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar 
number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services 
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. 
The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services 
apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, 
including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, 
IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for 
obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in 
insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of 
section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was 
held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation:  
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. 
Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses 
of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of 
disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. 
However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has 
unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the 
matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. 
The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This 
includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both 
the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
2 
Q3. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development 
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for 
health, education, etc. 
2. A specified portion of each MP’s ‘fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be 
carried forward to the next year. 
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation 
every year. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Following are the features of MPLAD scheme: 
All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on 
creation of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS except those 
prohibited in Annexure-II of the guidelines of MPLAD. Therefore statement 1 is correct. 
Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe: M.Ps are to 
recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for 
the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall 
recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok 
Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in 
tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State 
does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. Therefore, 
statement 2 is correct 
MPLADS Funds are Non-lapsable: Funds released to the District Authority by the 
Government of India are non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for 
utilization in the subsequent years. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Role of the District Authority: The District Authority’s role has been outlined in different 
paragraphs of the MPLAD Guidelines. The District Authority would be responsible for overall 
coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect 
at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Therefore, statement 4 is 
correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q4. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against 
untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against Exploitation 
(b) Right to Freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies 
(d) Right to Equality 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Untouchability as a form of discrimination goes against the notion of equality amongst 
citizens irrespective of caste. Therefore, it has been incorporated under Article 17 as one of 
the five rights under the spectrum of right to equality (Articles 14-18) 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS  
 
3 
 
Q5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by  
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution 
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy  
(c) the Seventh Schedule 
(d) the conventional practice 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Article 50 of the Indian Constitution recommends state to take efforts to separate the 
judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. The Criminal Procedure Code 
(1973) has affected the separation of Judiciary from the Executive in pursuance of Article 50 
under the Directive Principles of State Policy. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q6. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the 
Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid 
document is presented because this is mandated by 
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention 
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India 
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India 
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation:  
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The 
objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run 
macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and 
transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional 
framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the 
parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely  
a. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement;  
b. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and 
c. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q7. A constitutional government by definition is a 
(a) government by legislature 
(b) popular government 
(c) multi-party government 
(d) limited government 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a 
legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the 
fundamental Law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The 
essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state 
organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and 
forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state. Constitutional government in essence 
is about constitutionalism which is about limited government. In many cases, constitutional 
government is used interchangeably with “constitutionally limited government” or “limited 
government”. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
4 
 
Q8. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of 
India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human 
Rights (1948)?  
1. Preamble 
2. Directive Principles of State Policy 
3. Fundamental Duties 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3 
  
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948 consists of the following: The preamble 
sets out the historical and social causes that led to the necessity of drafting the Declaration. 
? Articles 1–2 established the basic concepts of dignity, liberty, and equality. 
? Articles 3–5 established other individual rights, such as the right to life and the 
prohibition of slavery and torture. 
? Articles 6–11 refer to the fundamental legality of human rights with specific remedies 
cited for their defence when violated. 
? Articles 12–17 established the rights of the individual towards the community, 
including freedom of movement. 
? Articles 18–21 sanctioned the so-called "constitutional liberties" and spiritual, public, 
and political freedoms, such as freedom of thought, opinion, religion and conscience, 
word, and peaceful association of the individual. 
? Articles 22–27 sanctioned an individual's economic, social and cultural rights, 
including healthcare. It upholds an expansive right to a standard of living, provides for 
additional accommodations in case of physical debilitation or disability, and makes 
special mention of care given to those in motherhood or childhood. 
? Articles 28–30 established the general means of exercising these rights, the areas in 
which the rights of the individual cannot be applied, the duty of the individual to 
society, and the prohibition of the use of rights in contravention of the purposes of the 
United Nations Organization. 
The Preamble of the constitution mentions about liberty, equality, fraternity, justice - social, 
economic, political and many such things which overlap with the 1948 declaration as seen in 
Articles 1-2, 18-21, etc. Similarly, the 1948 declaration thus talks of not just political rights 
but also of social and economic rights especially under Articles 22-27. In case of Indian 
constitution, these socio-economic rights are provided in the Directive Principles of state 
policy. Lastly, the declaration talks of not just rights but also duties of individual towards the 
society as seen in the Articles 28-30. Therefore, all the three parts reflect the spirit of the 
declaration. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q9. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following 
type of citizens? 
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000  
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000 
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ? 
3,00,000 
4. All Senior Citizens 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
Page 5


 
UPSC CSE PRE 2020 GS (PAPER - 1) ANSWER KEYS   
 
1 
Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar 
data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 
India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata can not be stored for more than six 
months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five 
years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.   
The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded 
from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act 
which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar 
number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services 
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. 
The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services 
apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, 
including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, 
IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for 
obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in 
insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of 
section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was 
held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation:  
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. 
Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses 
of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of 
disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. 
However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has 
unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the 
matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. 
The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This 
includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both 
the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
 
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Q3. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development 
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for 
health, education, etc. 
2. A specified portion of each MP’s ‘fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be 
carried forward to the next year. 
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation 
every year. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Following are the features of MPLAD scheme: 
All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on 
creation of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS except those 
prohibited in Annexure-II of the guidelines of MPLAD. Therefore statement 1 is correct. 
Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe: M.Ps are to 
recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for 
the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall 
recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas 
inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok 
Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in 
tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State 
does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. Therefore, 
statement 2 is correct 
MPLADS Funds are Non-lapsable: Funds released to the District Authority by the 
Government of India are non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for 
utilization in the subsequent years. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. 
Role of the District Authority: The District Authority’s role has been outlined in different 
paragraphs of the MPLAD Guidelines. The District Authority would be responsible for overall 
coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect 
at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. Therefore, statement 4 is 
correct. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q4. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against 
untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against Exploitation 
(b) Right to Freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies 
(d) Right to Equality 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Untouchability as a form of discrimination goes against the notion of equality amongst 
citizens irrespective of caste. Therefore, it has been incorporated under Article 17 as one of 
the five rights under the spectrum of right to equality (Articles 14-18) 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
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Q5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by  
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution 
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy  
(c) the Seventh Schedule 
(d) the conventional practice 
 
Answer: (b) 
Explanation: 
Article 50 of the Indian Constitution recommends state to take efforts to separate the 
judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. The Criminal Procedure Code 
(1973) has affected the separation of Judiciary from the Executive in pursuance of Article 50 
under the Directive Principles of State Policy. 
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 
 
Q6. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the 
Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid 
document is presented because this is mandated by 
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention 
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India 
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India 
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation:  
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The 
objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run 
macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and 
transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional 
framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the 
parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely  
a. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement;  
b. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and 
c. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q7. A constitutional government by definition is a 
(a) government by legislature 
(b) popular government 
(c) multi-party government 
(d) limited government 
 
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a 
legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the 
fundamental Law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The 
essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state 
organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and 
forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state. Constitutional government in essence 
is about constitutionalism which is about limited government. In many cases, constitutional 
government is used interchangeably with “constitutionally limited government” or “limited 
government”. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
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Q8. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of 
India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human 
Rights (1948)?  
1. Preamble 
2. Directive Principles of State Policy 
3. Fundamental Duties 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3 
  
Answer: (d) 
Explanation: 
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948 consists of the following: The preamble 
sets out the historical and social causes that led to the necessity of drafting the Declaration. 
? Articles 1–2 established the basic concepts of dignity, liberty, and equality. 
? Articles 3–5 established other individual rights, such as the right to life and the 
prohibition of slavery and torture. 
? Articles 6–11 refer to the fundamental legality of human rights with specific remedies 
cited for their defence when violated. 
? Articles 12–17 established the rights of the individual towards the community, 
including freedom of movement. 
? Articles 18–21 sanctioned the so-called "constitutional liberties" and spiritual, public, 
and political freedoms, such as freedom of thought, opinion, religion and conscience, 
word, and peaceful association of the individual. 
? Articles 22–27 sanctioned an individual's economic, social and cultural rights, 
including healthcare. It upholds an expansive right to a standard of living, provides for 
additional accommodations in case of physical debilitation or disability, and makes 
special mention of care given to those in motherhood or childhood. 
? Articles 28–30 established the general means of exercising these rights, the areas in 
which the rights of the individual cannot be applied, the duty of the individual to 
society, and the prohibition of the use of rights in contravention of the purposes of the 
United Nations Organization. 
The Preamble of the constitution mentions about liberty, equality, fraternity, justice - social, 
economic, political and many such things which overlap with the 1948 declaration as seen in 
Articles 1-2, 18-21, etc. Similarly, the 1948 declaration thus talks of not just political rights 
but also of social and economic rights especially under Articles 22-27. In case of Indian 
constitution, these socio-economic rights are provided in the Directive Principles of state 
policy. Lastly, the declaration talks of not just rights but also duties of individual towards the 
society as seen in the Articles 28-30. Therefore, all the three parts reflect the spirit of the 
declaration. 
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 
 
Q9. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following 
type of citizens? 
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000  
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000 
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ? 
3,00,000 
4. All Senior Citizens 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
 
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(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (a)* (marked as controversial) 
Explanation: 
The persons eligible for getting free legal services include: 
? Women and children  
? Members of SC/ST  
? Industrial workmen  
? Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake industrial disaster  
? Disabled persons  
? Persons in custody  
? Persons whose annual income does not exceed ?1 lakh  
? Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar. 
Therefore statement 1 is correct.  
Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective 
State Governments in this regard. In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free 
legal aid subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not 
eligible for free aid. Therefore, statement 4 is not correct.  
There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs. Hence statement 
3 is not correct. 
There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders upto 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be 
implemented at an all India level) 
Hence, (a) seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list. 
 
Q10. Consider the following pairs: 
International agreement /set-up   Subject 
1. Alma-Ata Declaration  —   Healthcare of the people 
2. Hague Convention   —   Biological and chemical weapons 
3. Talanoa Dialogue   —   Global climate change 
4. Under2 Coalition   —   Child rights 
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 4 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 
 
Answer: (c)  
Explanation: 
The Alma Ata declaration on “Health for All” in 1978 set out a broad set of principles 
called the Primary Health Care (PHC) approach. It focussed on multi-dimensional, inter-
sectoral healthcare, which was to be made available “closest to home”. It required 
technology to be simple and low cost, while being effective and safe. Primary care, with 
secondary and tertiary levels also adopting PHC principles, was envisioned as the hub of 
this system. Hence pair 1 is matched correctly. 
In 2016, the then Women and Child Development Minister Maneka Gandhi had said that 
India will not ratify the the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child 
Abduction in the interest of women fleeing bad marriage and had set up the panel headed 
by Punjab and Haryana High Court judge Rajesh Bindal for detailed report and the panel in 
its 2018 report has not recommended signing the treaty. Hence, pair 2 is not correct. 
The Talanoa Dialogue of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, beginning 
January 2018, will facilitate the parties to take stock of progress post-Paris.  Hence pair 3 is 
correct.