UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2021: Indian Polity | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Ans: (b)

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51 are the ideals that are meant for promoting social and economic democracy. According to Articles 39, the State shall in particular, direct its policies towards securing:
  • The ownership and control of material resources shall be organised in a manner to serve the common good. The State shall avoid concentration of wealth in a few hands, among others.
• Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• Initially, the Right to Property under Articles 31 and Article 19 (1)(f) was given the fundamental status in Indian Constitution. However, with the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, the Right to Property was omitted as a fundamental right and made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of Indian Constitution.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• The Constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950 was a Sovereign Democratic Republic as the words- Socialist and Secular were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (d)

• Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution, which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity that effectively controls the exercise of political power.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Ans: (d)

• Article 18(1) prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non- citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles under the Article 18(1). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Padma Awards were suspended during the years 1978, 1979 and 1993 to 1997. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• In Judicial custody, an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate and lodged in jail. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect but with prior permission from the magistrate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• Although some criminal statutes carry a right to an eventual parole hearing, typical laws do not absolutely guarantee parole itself. Authorities retain the discretion to deny parole to prisoners they deem dangerous. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The grant of parole is governed by rules made under Prison Act, 1894 and Prison Act, 1900. Many State governments have also formulated guidelines to facilitate decision- making to determine whether parole needs to be granted in a particular case or not. For example, the Rajasthan Prisoners Release on Parole Rules, 1958. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (d)

• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, also referred to as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, recognizes the rights of the forest-dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources.
• As per the provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder, various schemes and projects are implemented under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Ans: (a)
Article 14 (‘Equality Before Law’ and Equal Protection of Law)

• No person shall be denied treatment of equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Therefore, Article 14 acts as a shield against any arbitrary or discriminatory state action and the Court may declare a law ultra vires Article 14.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Ans: (a)

• Different sets of government with divided subjects of power and an independent judiciary are vital features of the federal system. Independent judiciary is a core feature of a federal system. The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Ans: (a)

• A ‘State’ can be defined as a society of people politically organized within a definite territory, having its own government with the power to enforce obedience and which is free from external control.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Ans: (c)
As per Article 128 of Indian Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court with the following qualifications:

• Who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Being a Court of Record, the High Court can review its own judgments under Article
• 226 of the Constitution of India. Similarly, under Article 137, the Supreme Court shall have the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Ans: (a)

• The term ‘Domicile’ means a permanent home. A person cannot have more than one domicile. According to the Article 9 of Indian Constitution, if any person voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State will no longer be a citizen of India. So In India, there is single citizenship and one domicile. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Article 58 signifies nowhere that citizenship should be by birth or naturalization. Similarly, to become a Prime Minister (Head of Government) one has to be: a citizen of India (irrespective of by birth or naturalization) and a member of either Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Provisions related to the termination of Citizenship are also mentioned in the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955. Under Section (10) of this Act, the Central Government of India may terminate the citizenship of an Indian citizen if;
  • The citizen has disrespected the Constitution. Has obtained citizenship by fraud.
  • The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war.
  • Within 5 years of registration or naturalisation, a citizen has been sentenced to 2 years of imprisonment in any country.
• The citizen has been living outside India for 7 years continuously except for purposes other than educational or in service of a government or international organization of which India is a member or he has not registered annually at an Indian consulate expressing his intention to retain his citizenship. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Ans: (d)
Liberal democracy is a representative form of government that operates under the following principles:

• Elections between multiple distinct political parties,
• Separation of powers into different branches of government, Rule of law protected by an independent judiciary, and
• Equal protection of human rights, civil rights, civil liberties and political freedoms
• for all people.
• The Separation of powers between the branches of government constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Ans: (c)

• In India there is no Parliament sovereignty rather there is constitutional sovereignty and the authority and jurisdiction of Parliament are limited. The Judiciary can declare any law or ordinance passed by the legislature void, if any of its provisions violate one or more of the constitutional provisions. Hence, 1 is correct.
• The case involves a substantial question of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution under Article 145(3) of the Constitution, which mandates that such matters be heard by a bench of not less than five judges]. Hence, 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee submitted a ‘Report on Reorganisation of the Machinery of Government’ in 1950. This report has not mentioned setting up a minister and a secretary for administrative reforms. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Constituted in 1966, the first Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) presented a report on Personnel Administration in 1969. The ARC suggested setting up a separate Department of Personnel, to be directly under the control of the Prime Minister. The DoPT was established in 1970 following this report and works under the Ministry Of Personnel, Public Grievances And Pensions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Ans: (c)

• Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Indian Constitution.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Ans: (b)

• In 1996, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was amended to restrict from ‘three’ to ‘two’ the number of seats one candidate could contest in Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In 1991, Shri Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats, Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur seats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Whenever a candidate contests from more than one seat and wins more than one, the
• candidate has to retain only one, forcing by polls in the rest. It results in an unavoidable financial burden on the public exchequer, government manpower and other resources for holding by-election against the resultant vacancy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.