UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Notes  >  CSAT Preparation  >  Reading Comprehension (21-30)

Reading Comprehension (21-30) | CSAT Preparation - UPSC PDF Download

Directions: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 21
When a police station receives a complaint regarding an alleged offence that has been committed in the jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR and then transfers it to the relevant police station for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. No regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR and starts the investigation. The provision of Zero FIR came up after the recommendation in the report of the Justice Verma Committee, which was constituted to suggest amendments to the Criminal Law in a bid to provide for faster trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women, according to a 2020 circular released by the Puducherry government. The committee was set up after the 2012 Nirbhaya gang rape case. Zero FIR ensures that the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR.

Q1: What is the immediate objective of Zero FIR?
(a) Quick and timely delivery of justice.
(b) Speedy forensic investigation for the registered complaints.
(c) To ensure that the victim's complaint is registered without hassles.
(d) To ensure proper medical help is given to the victim.
Ans: 
(c)
Sol: Options (a) and (d) are not correct: The purpose of zero FIR is to get a complaint registered ASAP. Timely delivery of justice and proper medical help to victim can be related to FIR, but these are not the main purpose of zero FIR. This makes options (a) and (d) incorrect.
Option (b) is not correct: Forensic investigation is out of context of the passage. Option (c) is correct. The passage clearly mentions, “Zero FIR ensures that the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered”. Zero FIR ensures that the first step towards grievance redressal is met as early as possible. Hence, it is a correct statement.

Q2: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
1. Zero FIR is registered only in nonjurisdictional Police stations.
2. The sole purpose behind creation of Justice Verma Committee was to give the accused more severe punishments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: 
(a)
Sol: Statement 1 is correct: The passage clearly says, “When a police station receives a complaint regarding an alleged offence that has been committed in the jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR and then transfers it to the relevant police station for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. No regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR and starts the investigation.” It’s obvious that one needs to file Zero FIR only when he/she is reporting the crime in non-jurisdictional police stations. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage says, “The provision of Zero FIR came up after the recommendation in the report of the Justice Verma Committee, which was constituted to suggest amendments to the Criminal Law in a bid to provide for faster trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women”. It implies that the committee was constituted with the objective of not only severe punishments for the accused but also to provide a faster trial. Hence, it is not a correct statement.

Passage - 22
On Monday, the government withdrew The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill 2019 from the Lok Sabha, ending a 20-year effort to build a new regulatory framework for the use of DNA fingerprinting technology in the criminal justice system. The Bill, introduced in Parliament multiple times, faced opposition on grounds of the accuracy of DNA technology, potential threats to individual privacy, and the possibility of abuse. The Bill had three primary objectives. First, it sought to set up a DNA profiling board as the regulatory body, one of the functions of which would be to provide accreditation to laboratories authorised to carry out DNA sample tests. The Bill also provided for the creation of databases — DNA Data Banks — for storing DNA information collected from convicts and accused. This database could be indexed and searched for matching samples from crime scenes. And third, it sought to facilitate collection of DNA samples from the convicts and accused. The primary objections were on grounds of privacy, utility and possibility of misuse. DNA information can be very intrusive, revealing not just identification traits but also many other features that can be liable for misuse. Critics pushed for the inclusion of as many safeguards into the Bill as was possible. Several rounds of discussions, with Members of Parliament, legal experts, law enforcement professionals, activists, and civil society were held. A number of changes were made in the original draft. But it was not acceptable to all. In recent years, apprehensions were raised about the possibility of this law being used for racial profiling. It was even argued that the police could not be trusted to seek DNA tests in their investigations. The Parliamentary Standing Committee had objected to the setting up of DNA banks in every state, and suggested that one national DNA bank was sufficient.

Q1: Which of the following are the objections against the DNA Technology Bill?
1. Breach of Privacy
2. Profiling on the basis of race
3. Distrust on police
4. Virus attacks on database
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans:
(c)
Sol: Option 1 is correct: The passage clearly mentions, “The primary objections were on grounds of privacy, utility and possibility of misuse”. This implies that breach of privacy along with possible misuse and utilization of the DNA Technology bill is among the primary objections against it. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option 2 is correct: Concerns have been raised regarding the potential for racial profiling in the application of this law. It is mentioned in the passage - “In recent years, apprehensions were raised about the possibility of this law being used for racial profiling”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option 3 is correct: Yet another objection was that the police couldn't be relied upon to request DNA samples for their investigation. The passage says, “It was even argued that the police could not be trusted to seek DNA tests in their investigations”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option 4 is not correct: The passage nowhere mentions anything about virus attack on the DNA database. Hence, it is not a correct option.

Q2: With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements.
1. The legislation aims to create a regulating authority.
2. To save the criminals' DNA information, a database will be made.
3. DNA information will be linked with the Aadhaar card of every individual.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 
(a)
Sol: Statement 1 is correct: The passage clearly says, “The Bill had three primary objectives. First, it sought to set up a DNA profiling board as the regulatory body, one of the functions of which would be to provide accreditation to laboratories authorized to carry out DNA sample tests”. This implies that the creation of regulatory authority is proposed. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage clearly says, “The Bill also provided for the creation of databases — DNA Data Banks — for storing DNA information collected from convicts and accused”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is not mentioned in the passage that DNA information will be connected to each person's Aadhaar card.  Hence, it is not a correct statement.

Passage - 23
The US Justice Department sued the state of Texas and its Republican Governor Greg Abbott on Monday (July 24) for installing floating barriers in the Rio Grande River to stop migrants crossing from Mexico. The lawsuit, filed in federal court in Austin, is the latest escalation in tensions between the President Joe Biden administration and Abbott over the issue of immigration. A 3,051-km-long river, the Rio Grande runs from Colorado to the Gulf of Mexico and is the effective USMexican border through most of Texas. But it is also a key route for migrants from Mexico to try and enter the United States. A DW report said hundreds of migrants everyday attempt to reach the American land through the river. In a bid to stop this influx, Abbott in June announced his plan to build a barricade in the Rio Grande, near the border city of Eagle Pass in Texas. According to media reports, the barricade, whose installation is almost complete now, is essentially a 1,000-foot (305-meter) line of bright orange, wrecking ball-sized buoys. According to a Politico report, Associate Attorney General Vanita Gupta said in a statement, “This floating barrier poses threats to navigation and public safety and presents humanitarian concerns. Additionally, the presence of the floating barrier has prompted diplomatic protests by Mexico and risks damaging US foreign policy.” The nine-page lawsuit of the Justice Department seeks the removal of the barricade by Texas officials at the state’s expense. Notably, it has come around a week after the Mexican government complained to the Biden administration regarding the structure.

Q1: Why is the US Justice Department opposing the installation of floating barriers?
1. It creates safety risks for the general public.
2. It complicates US Foreign Policy.
3. It will create a refugee crisis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans:
(a)
Sol: Statement 1 is correct: The passage says, “This floating barrier poses threats to navigation and public safety and presents humanitarian concerns”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage says, “…the presence of the floating barrier has prompted diplomatic protests by Mexico and risks damaging US foreign policy.” Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 3 is not correct: The passage does not say that floating barriers will create any kind of refugee crisis. Hence, it is not a correct statement.

Passage - 24
The United States has identified five cases of malaria in people without any history of international travel in Florida and Texas over the last two months. This has led to the US Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) issuing an alert asking clinicians to consider malaria as a diagnosis in persons with fever of unknown origin, laboratories and public health experts to aid clinicians in identifying and diagnosing malaria cases, and people to take precautions to prevent mosquito bite. The five cases have raised alert because this is the first time in 20 years that there has been local transmission of malaria in the United States. The last time the infection was transmitted by a mosquito locally in the country was in 2003 when eight people in Florida were infected. While there hasn’t been local transmission in years, United States has been reporting around 2,000 cases of malaria every year mostly among international travellers from regions where the disease is still in transmission. Around 300 of these persons end up developing severe disease and between five and ten persons die of the infection each year in the United States, according to the CDC. The alert raised by the organisation also said that there could be an uptick in the number of imported malaria cases with summer travel increasing to the prepandemic levels in 2023.

Q1: Why did just five cases in the US prompt such an alert?
(a) It is expected that very soon, these five cases will cause other variants of malaria to develop.
(b) The local transmission of malaria may prove deadly to elders and children.
(c) Economic cost of immunization will be too high.
(d) This is the first instance of local malaria transmission in the United States in 20 years.
Ans:
(d)
Sol: Statement (a) is not correct: The passage does not mention anything about variants of malaria. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (b) is not correct: The passage does not mention that local transmission of malaria may prove deadly to elders and children.  Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (c) is not correct: The passage does not mention anything regarding the immunization costs with regards to malaria. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (d) is correct: This is the first instance of local transmission of malaria in 20 years and it is alarming according to the authorities. The passage says, “The five cases have raised alert because this is the first time in 20 years that there has been local transmission of malaria in the United States. The last time the infection was transmitted by a mosquito locally in the country was in 2003 when eight people in Florida were infected”. Hence, it is a correct statement.

Passage - 25
Since the 1970s, SHGs have been playing an essential role in different states of India by contributing mostly to democratising many institutions that stand for the deprived sections of society. It tries to create social stability through financial inclusion and play an active role in the social empowerment of the people in rural areas. The theoretical foundations of the SHGs are deeply linked with the framework of sociology. The social impact of SHGs on women’s empowerment is noticeable. It brings social cohesion among the poor at the grassroots level. Field evidence shows that SHG members can easily become involved in households’ decision-making and bring positive changes in their life. SHGs provide a sufficient platform for social participation and encourage members to better interact with society. Such continuous efforts lead to the societal transformation of women in rural areas.

Q1: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. SHGs have given a platform to rural people to overcome socio-economic marginalisation.
2. The social status of women has improved making them the real beneficiaries of the SHG programs.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
(c)
Sol: Assumption 1 is correct: This is supported by the passage where it mentions, “It tries to create social stability through financial inclusion and play an active role in the social empowerment of the people in rural areas.” The passage also indicates that SHGs create social stability through financial inclusion and active participation in decision-making. Hence, we can safely say that SHGs have helped in overcoming socio-economic marginalisation.
Assumption 2 is correct: The lines, “The social impact of SHGs on women’s empowerment is noticeable” and “Such continuous efforts lead to the societal transformation of women in rural areas” indicate towards the assumption made in the option statement. So, this assumption is correct as per the passage.

Q2: Which of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) SHGs are a tool for the social transformation of rural people, which also impact their economic and personal lives.
(b) Given the importance of SHGs, they should be expanded to other states and not be limited to a few states only.
(c) There is a need for SHGs to touch the lives of the urban poor as well and expedite their social mainstreaming.
(d) SHGs should focus not only on the societal empowerment of children, but also make them financially independent.
Ans: 
(a)
Sol: Option (a) is correct: Refer to the lines “It tries to create social stability through financial inclusion and play an active role in the social empowerment of the people in rural areas.” and “Field evidence shows that SHG members can easily become involved in households’ decision-making and bring positive changes in their life.” These lines show that SHGs improve social, economic and personal lives of rural people.
Option (b) is incorrect: The line “Since the 1970s, SHGs have been playing an essential role in different states of India by contributing mostly to democratising many institutions that stand for the deprived sections of society”, only states that SHGs are present in different states. It nowhere means that SHGs are limited to a few states only. Hence, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of the urban poor and its relationship with SHGs is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of financial independence of children with the help of SHGs is not a part of the passage. Therefore, this option is not correct.

Passage - 26
Health practitioners and experts attending the inaugural Africa Climate Summit in Nairobi, Kenya, have expressed displeasure with the exclusion of health on the main agenda despite its inextricable link with climate change. Speaking at a side event within the summit, the specialists from the sector expressed worry that a comprehensive health standpoint is likely to miss from the ‘Nairobi Declaration’, which the meeting is intended to culminate in. The theme of the summit is “Driving green growth and climate finance solutions for Africa and the World”. The Nairobi Declaration aims to give the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) a common voice ahead of the 28th Conference of Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to be held this year in the United Arab Emirates. The Acting Deputy Director General of Africa Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (Africa CDC) Ahmed Ouma Ogwell expressed regret that health had been excluded from the conference’s main agenda. “Agriculture, health and development are suffering. So, bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the climate change platform is essential for Africa,” said Ogwell, stressing on the link between climate change and health. Any discussion about financing for climate change mitigation, building resilience and adaptation must include financing for the public health sector, which is equally strained, he said. “We must highlight the relationship between climate change, environment and health. We must have a clear approach on how best we can prevent the health disasters that come about as a result of the effects of climate change,” said Ogwell.

Q1: Which of the following subjects does the writer of the passage emphasise mostly?
(a) Agriculture and health only.
(b) Health only.
(c) Environment, climate change and health only.
(d) Green growth, climate finance and health only.
Ans:
(b)
Sol: Option (a) is not correct: The passage mentions ‘agriculture’ only at one place - “Agriculture, health and development are suffering. So, bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the climate change platform is essential for Africa.” Hence, it can be inferred that ‘agriculture’ is not one of the subjects that has been ‘mostly’ emphasised by the author. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The first line of the passage itself mentions ‘health’ as an important subject of discussion - “Health practitioners and experts attending the inaugural Africa Climate Summit in Nairobi, Kenya, have expressed displeasure with the exclusion of health on the main agenda despite its inextricable link with climate change”. This implies that during the ongoing summit the exclusion of health from the main agenda is a disappointment for experts. Further, it is mentioned in the passage that “bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the climate change platform is essential for Africa”. It can be further inferred that health-related issues are important for Africa and need to be incorporated into the ongoing climate summit in Africa. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The summit mentioned Africa Climate Summit, which is related with climate. However, health practitioners and experts are disappointed with the non-exclusion of Health in the agenda. The subject of ‘environment’ is mentioned at one place in the passage - “We must highlight the relationship between climate change, environment and health”. It can be understood that the subject of environment, though important, is not the one that is mostly emphasized upon. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The concept of “green growth” finds mention only in the following line of the passage – The theme of the summit is “Driving green growth and climate finance solutions for Africa and the World”. The phrase is not mentioned anywhere else in the passage. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Passage - 27
India has made significant strides in electric vehicle (EV) battery research and more government focus can spur innovation in cell chemistry. Last week, Hyderabadbased Altmin, a Hyderabad-based battery material production and cell engineering company, collaborated with the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials, an institution under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology to manufacture cathode active material for lithium-ion batteries (LIB). While the global EV industry has had an innovation trajectory of its own, India is not far behind when it comes to battery research. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials and Nonferrous Materials Technology Development Centre have their own battery know-how and capabilities. Additionally, the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has set up its own pilot plants for manufacturing batteries as well as cells at the Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology, Pune. The Department of Science and Technology has also been proactive in holding dialogues with various institutes of higher education like the Indian Institutes of Technology, Indian Institute of Science and Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research and encouraging battery technology research and training programmes in these institutes. However, EV battery research is lacking in government sponsorship. Even though the Indian government, through its Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore for manufacturing of ACC, it doesn’t have a national programme to fund research and development into the latest technologies like SIB and SSB. The world transitioned from nickel cobalt aluminium chemistry to LFP within 15 years and is likely to shift to other latest technologies like SIB and SSB very soon. This is an opportunity for India to leapfrog in the battery race and put its money where the mouth is.

Q1: With reference to the above passage, which of the following can be attributed to the EV Industry in India?
1. Public-Private Partnership.
2. Indian research facilities have some expertise in EV batteries.
3. International collaborations. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans:
(b)
Sol: Statement 1 is correct: The passage says that “Hyderabad-based Altmin, a Hyderabad-based battery material production and cell engineering company, collaborated with the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials, an institution under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology”. It implies that it is a collaboration between Private and Government sector entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage says, “Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials and Nonferrous Materials Technology Development Centre have their own battery know-how and capabilities”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is not correct: There is no mention of international collaboration for EV, though the passage mentions the collaboration of the private sector with the government. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q2: Which of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) Indian startups are making great strides in EV battery production.
(b) India's EV industry needs direct government backing in research for a technological transformation.
(c) Indian Space agencies are working to produce EV batteries for space missions.
(d) PLI scheme will make India a world leader in the latest technologies like SIB and SSB.
Ans:
(b)
Sol: Option (a) is not correct: The passage indeed mentions the significant strides made by India in the EV battery sector. However, the passage does not specifically mention Indian startups. It only mentions that a Hyderabad-based company is collaborating with a Government-supported institution in the manufacturing of EV batteries. With this limited information, we cannot assume that Indian startups in general are doing great in the EV sector. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: With all the technical know-how and technical expertise, the EV sector needs to have government backing. Though various government agencies are involved in this sector, and schemes like PLI which encourage the manufacturing of ACC batteries have been launched, there is still a lot of scope for technology upgradation in this sector. The passage says, “EV battery research is lacking in government sponsorship. Even though the Indian government, through its Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore for manufacturing of ACC, it doesn’t have a national programme to fund research and development into latest technologies like SIB and SSB”. This implies direct support in the form of a national research program is required for a technological transformation of this sector in India. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: There is no mention of the EV batteries with respect to space missions. The passage only mentions Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre having its own battery know-how and capabilities. No mention of the use of EV batteries for space missions is found in the passage. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage says that “Even though the Indian government, through its Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore for manufacturing of ACC, it doesn’t have a national programme to fund research and development into latest technologies like SIB and SSB”. It implies that the PLI scheme is for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC). For latest technologies like SIB and SSB there is no government scheme in place yet. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Passage - 28
Ever since their colonisation of British cities sometime during the last century, urban red foxes (Vulpes vulpes) have become somewhat of a cultural phenomenon. Some people love them for their striking marmalade coats but others, including former prime minister Boris Johnson, think of them as a menace. In recent times, people seem to think urban foxes are becoming bolder and more cunning, “wreaking havoc in central London” by scavenging in bins for food scraps. But our recent study suggests that this popular portrayal may only be partially true for the species. Cities are dynamic places. The people, traffic, smells, noises and opportunities for food are constantly changing. This, in theory, should be ideal for bolder animals who would have the confidence to exploit resources like outdoor bins, for instance, despite the risk of coming into conflict with humans. Cunning animals would also be good at learning to push, pull or lift human-made materials such as bin lids and food containers to extract discarded food. In our recent study, we tested whether urban foxes have indeed become bolder and more cunning by comparing them to their countryside cousins. We gave a series of puzzle feeders to foxes in 104 urban and rural locations across a large area, from London to Edinburgh, and left them in place for two weeks. The food inside each puzzle could be released through simple actions such as removing lids or pulling sticks to dislodge food from pipes. Across all of our study locations, 96 foxes acknowledged the objects, most of which showed an initial avoidance of the puzzles. Around a third (31) touched the puzzles, but only 12 of those foxes persisted long enough to extract the food. We found urban foxes were more likely to interact with the puzzles than rural ones, suggesting they were bolder. However, when it came to their willingness to solve the puzzles, there was no difference between the two populations.

Q1: Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) Bolder animals easily adjust to the urban culture.
(b) Animal habitations have been reduced as cities become more populated.
(c) Animals are not affected by the local culture beyond a certain point.
(d) Colonisation by the British significantly reduced forest areas in their colonies.
Ans: 
(c)
Sol: Option (a) is not correct: Refer to the lines of the passage, “In recent times, people seem to think urban foxes are becoming bolder and more cunning, “wreaking havoc in central London” by scavenging in bins for food scraps. But our recent study suggests that this popular portrayal may only be partially true for the species”. These lines imply that urban foxes have adapted to the local culture. However, from this information it cannot be generalised that bolder animals easily adapt to urban culture, as the passage itself says that it may not be completely true. Moreover, it cannot be the most logical message conveyed by the author. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage does not mention that there is a decrease in animal spaces because of expanding urban areas. Further, the rational message of the passage pertains to the adoption of local culture by foxes, rather than the change in size of animal habitat. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage compares the behaviour of red foxes staying in urban areas and those which are found in the countryside. The passage says, “We found urban foxes were more likely to interact with the puzzles than rural ones, suggesting they were bolder. However, when it came to their willingness to solve the puzzles, there was no difference between the two populations”. From these lines, it can be inferred that to some extent, the social environment indeed has a bearing on behavioural patterns of foxes, but not beyond a point. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage mentions the word “colonisation”, but it is in the context of the colonisation of cities by animals and not in the context of British colonialism. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Passage - 29
European honeybees can be an effective biomonitor for determining the spread of antimicrobial resistance (AMR) in urban neighbourhoods. A recent paper has found the insects can carry genetic elements of key AMR drivers in their digestive tracts. AMR is the ability of bacteria and other microbes to resist the drugs used to inhibit or kill them. The paper was published in the journal Environmental Science and Technology in July 2023. The dangerous rise of AMR could lead to up to 10 million deaths annually by 2050, a United Nations Environment Programme report released February 2023 found. This would be on par with the 2020 rate of global deaths from cancer. A World Health Organization report in 2022 showed that over 50 per cent of life-threatening bacterial infections are becoming resistant to treatment. The numbers were this high even though many countries could not report data for 2020 due to the novel coronavirus COVID-19 pandemic. The global health body had called for more research to discover why AMR had increased and the extent to which infections are related to hospitalisations and antibiotic treatments during the COVID-19 pandemic. European honeybees, or Apis mellifera, can be “crowdsourced” environmental proxy as they interact with contaminants in soil, dust, air, water and pollen while they forage, according to the scientists from Macquarie University, Australia. “Bees interact with human environments, so they are a really good indicator of pollution that may present risk of harm to humans,” said first author Kara Fry from Macquarie University, reported news aggregator Phys.org. The researchers looked into the gut bacteria of 144 bees.

Q1: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
1. AMR-related mortality will be equal to cancer-related deaths in 2050.
2. Covid 19 played an important role in the spread of AMR, globally.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:
(d)
Sol: Statement 1 is not correct: According to the passage “The dangerous rise of AMR could lead to up to 10 million deaths annually by 2050, a United Nations Environment Programme report released February 2023 found. This would be on par with the 2020 rate of global deaths from cancer”. This implies that AMR-related mortality in 2050 may be equal to cancer-related deaths in 2020, and even that is not certain. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: Refer to the lines, “The numbers (cases of AMR) were this high even though many countries could not report data for 2020 due to the novel coronavirus COVID-19 pandemic. The global health body had called for more research to discover why AMR had increased and the extent to which infections are related to hospitalisations and antibiotic treatments during the COVID-19 pandemic.” This means that there is a possibility that the rise in number of hospitalisations and treatment during the COVID-19 pandemic had contributed to the increased AMR, but it’s a matter of further research. Moreover, we cannot say that the pandemic resulted in the spread of AMR “globally”. Thus statement 2 is not correct.

Passage - 30
It could take 11 high-income countries over 200 years to reduce their 2022 greenhouse gas emissions by 95 per cent, according to a new analysis. If current trends continue, these countries would emit 27 times their fair share of the 1.5 degrees Celsius carbon budget, the study published in journal The Lancet Planetary Health stated. Fair share in carbon budgets is the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) that can still be emitted for a 50 percent chance of warming staying below 1.5°C. These 11 highincome countries are: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Germany, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Sweden and the United Kingdom. “Green growth is, therefore, not occurring and appears out of reach for high-income countries. Our findings suggest that the continued pursuit of economic growth in highincome countries is at odds with the climate and equity commitments of the Paris Agreement,” researchers from the University of Leeds and the University of Barcelona wrote in their paper. The Paris Agreement is a treaty signed by 196 countries to limit “the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above preindustrial levels” and pursue efforts “to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.” Scientists have warned that green growth can only occur if decoupling is fast enough to reduce emissions consistent with the Paris Agreement. Decoupling, according to the study, is a decrease in CO2 emissions per unit of gross domestic product (GDP). The researchers first identified 11 countries that achieved “absolute decoupling”, which means those that decreased their CO2 emissions alongside increasing GDP between 2013 and 2019. To do this, they collected GDP data from the World Bank and CO2 emissions data from the Global Carbon Project. They compared each country’s ‘business-as-usual’ emission cut rates in the future to the “Paris-compliant” rates needed to comply with their “fair share” of the respective global carbon budget.

Q1: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
1. The 11 countries mentioned will never be able to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions by 100%.
2. Demands for a green growth align with the Paris Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: 
(b)
Sol: Inference 1 is not correct: The passage does not mention that 11 countries cannot reduce their greenhouse gas emissions by 100%. Instead, it says that “It could take 11 high-income countries over 200 years to reduce their 2022 greenhouse gas emissions by 95 per cent, according to a new analysis.” However, it does not mean that the countries will never be able to reduce emissions by 100%. This statement is illogical because it makes an extreme claim. Hence, inference 1 is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: The passage says that “Our findings suggest that the continued pursuit of economic growth in high-income countries is at odds with the climate and equity commitments of the Paris Agreement,”. It suggests that “green growth is, therefore, not occurring and appears out of reach for high-income countries”. Further, the passage says that “Scientists have warned that green growth can only occur if decoupling is fast enough to reduce emissions consistent with the Paris Agreement”. This implies that green growth can occur only with emission reductions, which is in turn consistent with the Paris Agreement. Hence, inference 2 is correct.

The document Reading Comprehension (21-30) | CSAT Preparation - UPSC is a part of the UPSC Course CSAT Preparation.
All you need of UPSC at this link: UPSC
214 videos|139 docs|151 tests

Up next

FAQs on Reading Comprehension (21-30) - CSAT Preparation - UPSC

1. How can I improve my reading comprehension skills?
Ans. To improve reading comprehension skills, you can practice active reading techniques such as summarizing the main points, asking questions about the text, and making connections to your own experiences.
2. What are some strategies for understanding difficult texts?
Ans. Some strategies for understanding difficult texts include breaking the text into smaller sections, looking up unfamiliar words, and rereading passages that are confusing.
3. How can I increase my reading speed without sacrificing comprehension?
Ans. To increase reading speed without sacrificing comprehension, try techniques such as skimming for main ideas, focusing on key words, and avoiding subvocalization (saying words in your head as you read).
4. Why is it important to practice reading comprehension skills regularly?
Ans. Practicing reading comprehension skills regularly can help improve critical thinking, vocabulary, and overall academic performance. It also helps in understanding complex texts and communicating effectively.
5. What are some common mistakes to avoid when trying to improve reading comprehension?
Ans. Some common mistakes to avoid when trying to improve reading comprehension include not focusing on the main ideas, reading passively without engaging with the text, and not taking breaks when needed.
214 videos|139 docs|151 tests
Download as PDF

Up next

Explore Courses for UPSC exam

How to Prepare for UPSC

Read our guide to prepare for UPSC which is created by Toppers & the best Teachers
Signup for Free!
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days! Learn & Practice with 1000+ FREE Notes, Videos & Tests.
10M+ students study on EduRev
Related Searches

Important questions

,

Reading Comprehension (21-30) | CSAT Preparation - UPSC

,

Extra Questions

,

mock tests for examination

,

Semester Notes

,

Summary

,

Reading Comprehension (21-30) | CSAT Preparation - UPSC

,

Sample Paper

,

past year papers

,

MCQs

,

Previous Year Questions with Solutions

,

Free

,

ppt

,

video lectures

,

Exam

,

Viva Questions

,

Reading Comprehension (21-30) | CSAT Preparation - UPSC

,

practice quizzes

,

pdf

,

study material

,

shortcuts and tricks

,

Objective type Questions

;