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Jake invests $5000 at 10% simple annual interest and another amount of money at x percent simple interest. What amount of money did Jake invests at x percent interest?(1) The total amount of interest earned on all investments at the end of one year is $800.(2) x = 6%.- a)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.
- b)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient.
- c)Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- d)Each Statement ALONE is sufficient.
- e)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Jake invests $5000 at 10% simple annual interest and another amount of money at x percent simple interest. What amount of money did Jake invests at x percent interest?
(1) The total amount of interest earned on all investments at the end of one year is $800.
(2) x = 6%.
a)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.
b)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient.
c)
Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d)
Each Statement ALONE is sufficient.
e)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient.
|
EduRev GMAT answered |
(1) The total amount of interest earned on all investments at the end of one year is $800.
Let A be the amount of money invested at x percent. The total interest earned on both investments is:
We cannot calculate A because x is also unknown. Statement (1) Alone is not sufficient then.
(2) x = 6%
Statement (2) Alone is not sufficient.
Combining both statements, we have:
Both Statements together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Both Statements together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Working alone at its constant rate, pump X pumped out ¼ of the water in a tank in 2 hours. Then pumps Y and Z started working and the three pumps, working simultaneously at their respective constant rates, pumped out the rest of the water in 3 hours. If pump Y, working alone at its constant rate, would have taken 18 hours to pump out the rest of the water, how many hours would it have taken pump Z, working alone at its constant rate, to pump out all of the water that was pumped out of the tank?- a)6
- b)12
- c)15
- d)18
- e)24
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Working alone at its constant rate, pump X pumped out ¼ of the water in a tank in 2 hours. Then pumps Y and Z started working and the three pumps, working simultaneously at their respective constant rates, pumped out the rest of the water in 3 hours. If pump Y, working alone at its constant rate, would have taken 18 hours to pump out the rest of the water, how many hours would it have taken pump Z, working alone at its constant rate, to pump out all of the water that was pumped out of the tank?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
15
d)
18
e)
24
|
Talent Skill Learning answered |
Rate of pump X = 1/8
3 hours are required to pump out the remaining (3/4)ths of tank → 1 hr to pump out 1/4
Rate of X + Rate of Y + Rate of Z = 1/4
Rate of Y + Rate of Z = 1/4 - 1/8 = 1/8
Y takes 18 hours to pump out the remaining (3/4)ths of tank → 6 hrs per (1/4)ths → 24 hrs to pump out fully.
Rate of Y = 1/24
1/24 + Rate of Z = 1/8
Rate of Z = 1/8 - 1/24 = 1/12
Time required to pump out all the water by Z = 12 hrs.
French cuisine is famous for its frequent and liberal use of cream and cheese, both high in saturated fat. For years, medical studies have shown the strong correlation between diets high in saturated fat and coronary heart disease, and yet, France has a much lower incidence of such disease than found in comparable countries like the United States. This is the so-called French Paradox.Q. Which of the following, if true, helps to explain the French Paradox?- a)Certain kinds of cheese can have as much as five times the amount of saturated fat that cream has.
- b)People in the United States, per capita, eat almost the same amount of saturated fat on average as do people in France.
- c)The United States imports more cheese from France than from any other country.
- d)Red wine, typically served with French food, helps to clean the buildup of fats in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.
- e)It is typically for a French person to have either cream or cheese at each of the three meals in a day.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
French cuisine is famous for its frequent and liberal use of cream and cheese, both high in saturated fat. For years, medical studies have shown the strong correlation between diets high in saturated fat and coronary heart disease, and yet, France has a much lower incidence of such disease than found in comparable countries like the United States. This is the so-called French Paradox.
Q. Which of the following, if true, helps to explain the French Paradox?
a)
Certain kinds of cheese can have as much as five times the amount of saturated fat that cream has.
b)
People in the United States, per capita, eat almost the same amount of saturated fat on average as do people in France.
c)
The United States imports more cheese from France than from any other country.
d)
Red wine, typically served with French food, helps to clean the buildup of fats in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.
e)
It is typically for a French person to have either cream or cheese at each of the three meals in a day.
|
Nikhil Khanna answered |
Explanation:
Red wine consumption:
- Red wine, typically served with French food, contains antioxidants like resveratrol.
- Resveratrol helps to clean the buildup of fats in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.
French Paradox:
- The French Paradox refers to the lower incidence of coronary heart disease in France despite a diet high in saturated fats.
- This paradox has been attributed to the regular consumption of red wine, which helps counteract the negative effects of saturated fats.
Impact of red wine:
- Red wine consumption in France may play a significant role in reducing the risk of heart disease.
- The antioxidants in red wine can help improve heart health and prevent the buildup of fats in the arteries.
Conclusion:
- The consumption of red wine alongside traditional French cuisine may help explain the French Paradox by mitigating the negative effects of saturated fats on heart health.
Red wine consumption:
- Red wine, typically served with French food, contains antioxidants like resveratrol.
- Resveratrol helps to clean the buildup of fats in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.
French Paradox:
- The French Paradox refers to the lower incidence of coronary heart disease in France despite a diet high in saturated fats.
- This paradox has been attributed to the regular consumption of red wine, which helps counteract the negative effects of saturated fats.
Impact of red wine:
- Red wine consumption in France may play a significant role in reducing the risk of heart disease.
- The antioxidants in red wine can help improve heart health and prevent the buildup of fats in the arteries.
Conclusion:
- The consumption of red wine alongside traditional French cuisine may help explain the French Paradox by mitigating the negative effects of saturated fats on heart health.
Mary and Mike enter into a partnership by investing $700 and $300 respectively. At the end of one year, they divided their profits such that a third of the profit is divided equally for the efforts they have put into the business and the remaining profit is divided in the ratio of the investments they made in the business. If Mary received $800 more than Mike did, what was the profit made by their business in that year?- a)$2000
- b)$6000
- c)$4000
- d)$1333
- e)$3000
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Mary and Mike enter into a partnership by investing $700 and $300 respectively. At the end of one year, they divided their profits such that a third of the profit is divided equally for the efforts they have put into the business and the remaining profit is divided in the ratio of the investments they made in the business. If Mary received $800 more than Mike did, what was the profit made by their business in that year?
a)
$2000
b)
$6000
c)
$4000
d)
$1333
e)
$3000
|
|
EduRev GMAT answered |
Step 1: Deduce profit for Effort and Investments
Total profit earned will be divided into two parts: 1/3 will be for efforts and 2/3 for investments made.
Mary and Mike get equal share for their efforts.
If x is the share that each of Mike and Mary get for efforts, 2x is the share of profit for total efforts.
1/3 of total profit goes toward effort.
Hence, the total profit earned will be 6x.
Total profit earned will be divided into two parts: 1/3 will be for efforts and 2/3 for investments made.
Mary and Mike get equal share for their efforts.
If x is the share that each of Mike and Mary get for efforts, 2x is the share of profit for total efforts.
1/3 of total profit goes toward effort.
Hence, the total profit earned will be 6x.
Step 2: Share of profit for investments made
4x is the profit to be distributed for investments made.
4x will be divided in the ratio of amount invested by Mary and Mike.
As Mary and Mike invested $700 and $300 respectively, share of profit on investments will be divided in the ratio 7 : 3
Hence, if Mary receives 7y, Mike will receive 3y.
Total profit on investments is 10y which is equal to 4x
10y = 4x ... (1)
4x will be divided in the ratio of amount invested by Mary and Mike.
As Mary and Mike invested $700 and $300 respectively, share of profit on investments will be divided in the ratio 7 : 3
Hence, if Mary receives 7y, Mike will receive 3y.
Total profit on investments is 10y which is equal to 4x
10y = 4x ... (1)
Step 3: Compute total profit earned
Difference between amount shared between Mike and Mary is $800.
7y − 3y = 800
y = $200
Total profits on investment 10y = 2000
From equation 1, 10y = 4x
So, x = 2000/4 = $500
Total profit earned 6x = $3000
7y − 3y = 800
y = $200
Total profits on investment 10y = 2000
From equation 1, 10y = 4x
So, x = 2000/4 = $500
Total profit earned 6x = $3000
PassageMeasuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles. Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung. The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival. Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?- a)Javan rhinos are one of the most endangered animals on the planet.
- b)More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
- c)Hunters killed more Javan rhinos in Vietnam than in Indonesia.
- d)Most animal extinctions are the result of human actions.
- e)Genetic diversity is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Passage
Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles. Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival. Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.
Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a)
Javan rhinos are one of the most endangered animals on the planet.
b)
More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
c)
Hunters killed more Javan rhinos in Vietnam than in Indonesia.
d)
Most animal extinctions are the result of human actions.
e)
Genetic diversity is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
|
Avantika Sengupta answered |
Explanation:
More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
- The passage mentions that very little is known about Javan rhinos due to their secretive and solitary nature in remote jungles.
- Scientists have debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
- This indicates that there is more information available about the genetics of the Javan rhino (through DNA analysis) compared to their mating patterns or other behaviors.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
- The passage mentions that very little is known about Javan rhinos due to their secretive and solitary nature in remote jungles.
- Scientists have debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
- This indicates that there is more information available about the genetics of the Javan rhino (through DNA analysis) compared to their mating patterns or other behaviors.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
How is PRODUCT written in that code language?I. In a certain code language, AIEEE is written as BJFFF.II. In a certain code language, GYPSY is written as FXORX- a)If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
- b)If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
- c)If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
- d)If data given in both I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
- e)If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
How is PRODUCT written in that code language?
I. In a certain code language, AIEEE is written as BJFFF.
II. In a certain code language, GYPSY is written as FXORX
a)
If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
b)
If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
c)
If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d)
If data given in both I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e)
If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
|
|
Talent Skill Learning answered |
From I: All vowels are coded as next alphabets
From II: All consonants are coded as previous alphabets
So from both the statements.
From II: All consonants are coded as previous alphabets
So from both the statements.
PassageRoughly 40 per cent of the African American population of the Southern United States left the South between 1915 and 1960, primarily for the industrial cities of the North. While there was some African American migration to the North during the nineteenth century, most accounts point to 1915 as the start of what historians call the Great Migration. There were at least three catalysts of the Great Migration. First, World War I increased labour demand in the industrial North. Second, the war in Europe cut off immigration, which led many Northern employers to send labour agents to recruit African American labour in the South. Finally, a boll weevil infestation ruined cotton crops and reduced labour demand in much of the South in the 1910s and 1920s.In short, the Great Migration began in 1915 and not earlier, because it was only then that the North-South income gap became large enough to start such a large-scale migration. Less clear, however, is why migration continued and even accelerated, in subsequent decades, at the same time that North-South income differences were narrowing.We propose that once started, migration develops momentum over time as current migration reduces the difficulty and cost of future migration. Economists have typically assumed that people migrate if their expected earnings in the destination exceed those of the origin enough to outweigh the difficulties and one-time costs of migration. Previous research suggests that the difficulties and costs arise from several sources. First, the uncertainty that potential migrants face concerning housing and labour-market conditions in the destination presents a significant hindrance. Second, there is a simple cost in terms of time and money of physically moving from the origin to the destination. Third, new migrants must familiarize themselves with local labour- and housing-market institutions once they arrive; they must find housing and work, and they must often adapt to a new culture or language.Empirical studies show that during the Great Migration, information was passed through letters that were often read by dozens of people and through conversation when migrants made trips back to their home communities. Thus early migrants provided information about labor- and housing-market conditions to friends and relatives who had not yet made the trip. First-time African American migrants often travelled with earlier migrants returning to the North after a visit to the South, which reduced physical costs. Additionally, previous migrants reduced new migrants' cost of adapting to a new locale and culture by providing them with temporary housing, food, and even credit. Previous migrants also provided a cultural cushion for later migrants, so that they did not have to struggle as hard with their new surroundings.Q. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?- a)Approximately 40 per cent of the African American population left the Southern U.S. between 1915 and 1960—an event historians refer to as the Great Migration.
- b)The Great Migration was triggered by an increased labour demand in the North due to the onset of World War I and reduced labour demand in the South due to aboll weevil infestation.
- c)Because earlier migrants helped defray the financial costs of migration for later migrants, African American migration to the North accelerated at a time when income differences were narrowing.
- d)In migration movements, earlier migrants reduce the physical costs of moving and provide a cultural and linguistic cushion for later migrants.
- e)Although the Great Migration was initially triggered by the income differential between the North and South, other factors must be cited in order to explain its duration over several decades.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Passage
Roughly 40 per cent of the African American population of the Southern United States left the South between 1915 and 1960, primarily for the industrial cities of the North. While there was some African American migration to the North during the nineteenth century, most accounts point to 1915 as the start of what historians call the Great Migration. There were at least three catalysts of the Great Migration. First, World War I increased labour demand in the industrial North. Second, the war in Europe cut off immigration, which led many Northern employers to send labour agents to recruit African American labour in the South. Finally, a boll weevil infestation ruined cotton crops and reduced labour demand in much of the South in the 1910s and 1920s.
In short, the Great Migration began in 1915 and not earlier, because it was only then that the North-South income gap became large enough to start such a large-scale migration. Less clear, however, is why migration continued and even accelerated, in subsequent decades, at the same time that North-South income differences were narrowing.
We propose that once started, migration develops momentum over time as current migration reduces the difficulty and cost of future migration. Economists have typically assumed that people migrate if their expected earnings in the destination exceed those of the origin enough to outweigh the difficulties and one-time costs of migration. Previous research suggests that the difficulties and costs arise from several sources. First, the uncertainty that potential migrants face concerning housing and labour-market conditions in the destination presents a significant hindrance. Second, there is a simple cost in terms of time and money of physically moving from the origin to the destination. Third, new migrants must familiarize themselves with local labour- and housing-market institutions once they arrive; they must find housing and work, and they must often adapt to a new culture or language.
Empirical studies show that during the Great Migration, information was passed through letters that were often read by dozens of people and through conversation when migrants made trips back to their home communities. Thus early migrants provided information about labor- and housing-market conditions to friends and relatives who had not yet made the trip. First-time African American migrants often travelled with earlier migrants returning to the North after a visit to the South, which reduced physical costs. Additionally, previous migrants reduced new migrants' cost of adapting to a new locale and culture by providing them with temporary housing, food, and even credit. Previous migrants also provided a cultural cushion for later migrants, so that they did not have to struggle as hard with their new surroundings.
Q. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
a)
Approximately 40 per cent of the African American population left the Southern U.S. between 1915 and 1960—an event historians refer to as the Great Migration.
b)
The Great Migration was triggered by an increased labour demand in the North due to the onset of World War I and reduced labour demand in the South due to aboll weevil infestation.
c)
Because earlier migrants helped defray the financial costs of migration for later migrants, African American migration to the North accelerated at a time when income differences were narrowing.
d)
In migration movements, earlier migrants reduce the physical costs of moving and provide a cultural and linguistic cushion for later migrants.
e)
Although the Great Migration was initially triggered by the income differential between the North and South, other factors must be cited in order to explain its duration over several decades.
|
|
EduRev GMAT answered |
The main point of the passage is that while the Great Migration began in 1915 due to factors such as increased labour demand in the North and reduced labour demand in the South, it continued and even accelerated in subsequent decades despite the narrowing North-South income differences. The passage suggests that the duration and acceleration of the migration can be explained by the development of momentum over time, with earlier migrants reducing the difficulties and costs for later migrants.
A/B is a fraction such that A and B are co-prime positive integers. What can be the value of B such that A/B is not a non-terminating decimal?- a)28
- b)42
- c)84
- d)128
- e)More than two answers are correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A/B is a fraction such that A and B are co-prime positive integers. What can be the value of B such that A/B is not a non-terminating decimal?
a)
28
b)
42
c)
84
d)
128
e)
More than two answers are correct
|
|
Sandeep Mehra answered |
Explanation:
Co-prime Positive Integers:
When two numbers are co-prime, it means that they have no common factors other than 1. In this case, A and B are co-prime positive integers.
Non-Terminating Decimal:
A non-terminating decimal is a decimal number that goes on forever without repeating. For a fraction to be a non-terminating decimal, its denominator must have prime factors other than 2 and 5.
Analysis:
To ensure that the fraction A/B is not a non-terminating decimal, we need to choose a value of B that only has prime factors of 2 and 5 in its prime factorization.
Possible Values:
- 28 = 2^2 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 42 = 2 * 3 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 84 = 2^2 * 3 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 128 = 2^7 (acceptable as it only has prime factor 2)
Therefore, the value of B that ensures A/B is not a non-terminating decimal is 128 (option D).
Co-prime Positive Integers:
When two numbers are co-prime, it means that they have no common factors other than 1. In this case, A and B are co-prime positive integers.
Non-Terminating Decimal:
A non-terminating decimal is a decimal number that goes on forever without repeating. For a fraction to be a non-terminating decimal, its denominator must have prime factors other than 2 and 5.
Analysis:
To ensure that the fraction A/B is not a non-terminating decimal, we need to choose a value of B that only has prime factors of 2 and 5 in its prime factorization.
Possible Values:
- 28 = 2^2 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 42 = 2 * 3 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 84 = 2^2 * 3 * 7 (not acceptable as it has a prime factor other than 2 and 5)
- 128 = 2^7 (acceptable as it only has prime factor 2)
Therefore, the value of B that ensures A/B is not a non-terminating decimal is 128 (option D).
A company’s four cars running 10 hrs a day consume 1200 lts of fuel in 10 days. In the next 6 days, the company will need to run 9 cars for 12 hrs each so it rents 5 more cars which consume 20% less fuel than the company’s four cars. How many lts of fuel will be consumed in the next 6 days?- a)1200 lt
- b)1555 lt
- c)1664 lt
- d)1728 lt
- e)4800 lt
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A company’s four cars running 10 hrs a day consume 1200 lts of fuel in 10 days. In the next 6 days, the company will need to run 9 cars for 12 hrs each so it rents 5 more cars which consume 20% less fuel than the company’s four cars. How many lts of fuel will be consumed in the next 6 days?
a)
1200 lt
b)
1555 lt
c)
1664 lt
d)
1728 lt
e)
4800 lt
|
|
Avantika Dey answered |
Calculating Fuel Consumption for the Next 6 Days
To calculate the fuel consumption for the next 6 days, we need to consider the following factors:
Initial Scenario:
- 4 cars running 10 hrs a day consume 1200 lts of fuel in 10 days
- Total fuel consumed in 10 days = 1200 lts
Additional Cars:
- The company will run 9 cars for 12 hrs each in the next 6 days
- 5 more cars are rented, each consuming 20% less fuel than the company's cars
Calculations:
- Total fuel consumed per day by 4 cars = 1200 lts / 10 days / 10 hrs = 12 lts/hour
- Fuel consumed per day by 1 rented car = 80% * 12 lts = 9.6 lts/hour
- Total fuel consumed per day by 9 rented cars = 9 cars * 9.6 lts/hour * 12 hrs = 1036.8 lts
- Total fuel consumed in the next 6 days = 1036.8 lts/day * 6 days = 6220.8 lts
Therefore, the total amount of fuel that will be consumed in the next 6 days is 1728 lts (option D).
To calculate the fuel consumption for the next 6 days, we need to consider the following factors:
Initial Scenario:
- 4 cars running 10 hrs a day consume 1200 lts of fuel in 10 days
- Total fuel consumed in 10 days = 1200 lts
Additional Cars:
- The company will run 9 cars for 12 hrs each in the next 6 days
- 5 more cars are rented, each consuming 20% less fuel than the company's cars
Calculations:
- Total fuel consumed per day by 4 cars = 1200 lts / 10 days / 10 hrs = 12 lts/hour
- Fuel consumed per day by 1 rented car = 80% * 12 lts = 9.6 lts/hour
- Total fuel consumed per day by 9 rented cars = 9 cars * 9.6 lts/hour * 12 hrs = 1036.8 lts
- Total fuel consumed in the next 6 days = 1036.8 lts/day * 6 days = 6220.8 lts
Therefore, the total amount of fuel that will be consumed in the next 6 days is 1728 lts (option D).
If p is a non-positive number, then for what value of p does the expression |77 – 6p| holds the minimum value?- a)77/12
- b)77/6
- c)12
- d)0
- e)-77/6
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If p is a non-positive number, then for what value of p does the expression |77 – 6p| holds the minimum value?
a)
77/12
b)
77/6
c)
12
d)
0
e)
-77/6
|
|
Saumya Shah answered |
Understanding the Problem:
Given expression: |77 – 6p|
We need to find the value of p that minimizes this expression when p is a non-positive number.
Key Point:
- The absolute value of a number is always non-negative.
Solution:
Step 1: Analyzing the Absolute Value Expression
When p is non-positive, the value inside the absolute value changes sign. So, the expression becomes: |77 + 6p|
Step 2: Finding the Minimum Value
To minimize the absolute value expression, we need to find the value of p that makes the expression inside the absolute value zero.
77 + 6p = 0
6p = -77
p = -77/6
Therefore, the minimum value of the expression |77 – 6p| occurs when p = -77/6, which is a non-positive number.
Conclusion:
The correct value of p that makes the expression |77 – 6p| minimum is p = -77/6. Hence, option 'D' (0) is the correct answer.
The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in
Louisiana.
Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?- a)Insurance company statisticians do not believe that moving to Hawaii will significantly lengthen the average Louisianan's life.
- b)The governor of Louisiana has falsely alleged that statistics for his state are inaccurate.
- c)The longevity ascribed to Hawaii's current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors.
- d)Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect to live longer than 77 years.
- e)Most of the Hawaiian Islands have levels of air pollution well below the national average for the United States.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in
Louisiana.
Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?
Louisiana.
Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?
a)
Insurance company statisticians do not believe that moving to Hawaii will significantly lengthen the average Louisianan's life.
b)
The governor of Louisiana has falsely alleged that statistics for his state are inaccurate.
c)
The longevity ascribed to Hawaii's current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors.
d)
Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect to live longer than 77 years.
e)
Most of the Hawaiian Islands have levels of air pollution well below the national average for the United States.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
This choice suggests that a significant proportion of Hawaii's population is genetically predisposed to be long lived. Since Louisianans are not necessarily so predisposed, and since the Louisianans' children will acquire their genetic characteristics from their parents, not from their birthplace, this choice presents a reason to doubt that Hawaiian born children of native Louisianans will have an increased life expectancy. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. Because the conclusion concerns people born in Hawaii, not the average Louisianan, A does not weaken the conclusion. Because the governor's allegation is false, it cannot affect the conclusion. D fails to weaken the conclusion because it is consistent with the information given and the conclusion about life expectancy. By suggesting that Hawaii's environment is in one respect particularly healthy, E supports the conclusion.
College football recruiting services rank incoming players on a scale of 1-star (not a highly sought-after prospect) to 5-star (considered to be the best players). Recently a service attempted to validate its rankings by assigning star ratings to players upon completion of their careers to determine the accuracy of the initial rankings. The survey averaged the post-career ratings of each player and found that 5-star players’ final average was 4.46, compared with 3.98 for 4-stars and 3.11 for 3-stars. This suggests that the rankings services do not effectively judge high-end talent as well as they judge players in the middle of the range.Q. Which of the following identifies a problem with the service’s attempt to validate its rankings?- a)Players at certain positions might be harder to judge at a younger age than players at other positions
- b)A five-star scale does not allow the most elite players to overperform their initial ranking
- c)Players may change positions over their careers and be judged at multiple different positions
- d)Some players transfer to different schools and therefore need to change their playing styles
- e)Because of differences in strength training programs at different schools, players may develop at different rates
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
College football recruiting services rank incoming players on a scale of 1-star (not a highly sought-after prospect) to 5-star (considered to be the best players). Recently a service attempted to validate its rankings by assigning star ratings to players upon completion of their careers to determine the accuracy of the initial rankings. The survey averaged the post-career ratings of each player and found that 5-star players’ final average was 4.46, compared with 3.98 for 4-stars and 3.11 for 3-stars. This suggests that the rankings services do not effectively judge high-end talent as well as they judge players in the middle of the range.
Q. Which of the following identifies a problem with the service’s attempt to validate its rankings?
a)
Players at certain positions might be harder to judge at a younger age than players at other positions
b)
A five-star scale does not allow the most elite players to overperform their initial ranking
c)
Players may change positions over their careers and be judged at multiple different positions
d)
Some players transfer to different schools and therefore need to change their playing styles
e)
Because of differences in strength training programs at different schools, players may develop at different rates
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Talent Skill Learning answered |
The passage mentions that the post-career average for 5-star players is 4.46, which is lower than their initial 5-star ranking. This suggests that the ranking system does not effectively judge high-end talent, as the most elite players are not able to surpass their initial high ranking.
Option (B) addresses this problem by pointing out that a five-star scale may not adequately account for the potential for elite players to overperform their initial ranking. The scale might not provide enough granularity to distinguish between the very best players, leading to a situation where players with tremendous careers still have post-career averages slightly below the maximum rating.
The other options (A, C, D, and E) introduce potential issues related to judging players, but they do not directly address the problem of the ranking system limiting the ability of the most elite players to surpass their initial ratings, as stated in the passage. Therefore, option (B) is the most appropriate choice.
A cost-effective solution to the problem of airport congestion is to provide high-speed ground transportation between major cities lying 200 to 500 miles apart. The successful implementation of this plan would cost far less than expanding existing airports and would also reduce the number of airplanes clogging both airports and airways.Q. Which of the following, if true, could be proponents of the plan above most appropriately cite as a piece of evidence for the soundness of their plan?- a)An effective high-speed ground-transportation system would require major repairs to many highways and mass-transit improvements.
- b)One-half of all departing flights in the nation's busiest airport head for a destination in a major city 225 miles away.
- c)The majority of travelers departing from rural airports are flying to destinations in cities over 600 miles away.
- d)Many new airports are being built in areas that are presently served by high-speed ground-transportation systems.
- e)A large proportion of air travelers are vacationers who are taking long-distance flights.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A cost-effective solution to the problem of airport congestion is to provide high-speed ground transportation between major cities lying 200 to 500 miles apart. The successful implementation of this plan would cost far less than expanding existing airports and would also reduce the number of airplanes clogging both airports and airways.
Q. Which of the following, if true, could be proponents of the plan above most appropriately cite as a piece of evidence for the soundness of their plan?
a)
An effective high-speed ground-transportation system would require major repairs to many highways and mass-transit improvements.
b)
One-half of all departing flights in the nation's busiest airport head for a destination in a major city 225 miles away.
c)
The majority of travelers departing from rural airports are flying to destinations in cities over 600 miles away.
d)
Many new airports are being built in areas that are presently served by high-speed ground-transportation systems.
e)
A large proportion of air travelers are vacationers who are taking long-distance flights.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The plan proposes that high-speed ground transportation would be a less expensive solution to airport congestion than would airport expansion. B indicates that between the cities to be served by the plan there is substantial air travel to which ground transportation would represent an alternative. Therefore, B is the best answer. No other choice could be cited appropriately. A and D both provide some evidence against the plan. A by emphasizing the likely costs of providing high-speed ground transportation is not by itself a solution to airport congestion. D by indicating that such an alternative is not by itself a solution to airport congestion. C and E say that there are many travelers for whom the proposed system would actually provide no alternative.
When positive integer n is divided by 3, the remainder is 1. When n is divided by 7, the remainder is 5. What is the smallest positive integer p, such that (n + p) is a multiple of 21?- a)1
- b)2
- c)5
- d)19
- e)20
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
When positive integer n is divided by 3, the remainder is 1. When n is divided by 7, the remainder is 5. What is the smallest positive integer p, such that (n + p) is a multiple of 21?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
5
d)
19
e)
20
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Palak Saha answered |
Understanding the Problem
We need to find a positive integer n that satisfies two conditions based on remainders when divided by 3 and 7. We are also looking for the smallest integer p such that (n + p) is a multiple of 21.
Setting Up the Conditions
- When n is divided by 3:
n ≡ 1 (mod 3)
- When n is divided by 7:
n ≡ 5 (mod 7)
Finding a Common n
To find an n that satisfies both conditions, we can list out the candidates:
- For n ≡ 1 (mod 3): Possible values are 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19, 22, ...
- For n ≡ 5 (mod 7): Possible values are 5, 12, 19, 26, ...
Now, we identify the common values in both lists. The smallest n that satisfies both conditions is 19.
Calculating p
Now, we need (n + p) to be a multiple of 21.
- Current value of n: 19
- We want (19 + p) ≡ 0 (mod 21).
Calculating the remainders:
- 19 mod 21 = 19
To make it a multiple of 21, we need:
- (19 + p) mod 21 = 0
This implies:
p ≡ -19 (mod 21)
Which translates to:
p ≡ 2 (mod 21)
Conclusion
The smallest positive integer p that satisfies this condition is 2. Thus, the correct answer is option 'B'.
We need to find a positive integer n that satisfies two conditions based on remainders when divided by 3 and 7. We are also looking for the smallest integer p such that (n + p) is a multiple of 21.
Setting Up the Conditions
- When n is divided by 3:
n ≡ 1 (mod 3)
- When n is divided by 7:
n ≡ 5 (mod 7)
Finding a Common n
To find an n that satisfies both conditions, we can list out the candidates:
- For n ≡ 1 (mod 3): Possible values are 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19, 22, ...
- For n ≡ 5 (mod 7): Possible values are 5, 12, 19, 26, ...
Now, we identify the common values in both lists. The smallest n that satisfies both conditions is 19.
Calculating p
Now, we need (n + p) to be a multiple of 21.
- Current value of n: 19
- We want (19 + p) ≡ 0 (mod 21).
Calculating the remainders:
- 19 mod 21 = 19
To make it a multiple of 21, we need:
- (19 + p) mod 21 = 0
This implies:
p ≡ -19 (mod 21)
Which translates to:
p ≡ 2 (mod 21)
Conclusion
The smallest positive integer p that satisfies this condition is 2. Thus, the correct answer is option 'B'.
If y = |2 + x| - |2 – x| and |2x – 15| < 2, how many integer values can y take?
- a)1
- b)0
- c)2
- d)4
- e)Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If y = |2 + x| - |2 – x| and |2x – 15| < 2, how many integer values can y take?
a)
1
b)
0
c)
2
d)
4
e)
Cannot be determined
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Gitanjali Kumar answered |
Given Information:
The given equations are:
1. y = |2 + x| - |2 - x|
2. |2x - 15| < />
Solution:
Analysis of Equation 1:
The expression y = |2 + x| - |2 - x| can be simplified as follows:
When x ≥ -2,
y = (2 + x) - (2 - x) = 2 + x - 2 + x = 2x
When x < />
y = -(2 + x) - (2 - x) = -2 - x - 2 + x = -4
So, the possible values of y are 2x and -4.
Analysis of Equation 2:
|2x - 15| < />
-2 < 2x="" -="" 15="" />< />
13 < 2x="" />< />
6.5 < x="" />< />
The possible integer values for x are 7 and 8.
Combining the Results:
When x = 7, y = 2(7) = 14
When x = 8, y = 2(8) = 16
Therefore, the only possible integer values for y are 14 and 16. Hence, the correct answer is option 'A', which is 0 integer values for y.
The given equations are:
1. y = |2 + x| - |2 - x|
2. |2x - 15| < />
Solution:
Analysis of Equation 1:
The expression y = |2 + x| - |2 - x| can be simplified as follows:
When x ≥ -2,
y = (2 + x) - (2 - x) = 2 + x - 2 + x = 2x
When x < />
y = -(2 + x) - (2 - x) = -2 - x - 2 + x = -4
So, the possible values of y are 2x and -4.
Analysis of Equation 2:
|2x - 15| < />
-2 < 2x="" -="" 15="" />< />
13 < 2x="" />< />
6.5 < x="" />< />
The possible integer values for x are 7 and 8.
Combining the Results:
When x = 7, y = 2(7) = 14
When x = 8, y = 2(8) = 16
Therefore, the only possible integer values for y are 14 and 16. Hence, the correct answer is option 'A', which is 0 integer values for y.
How many four digit numbers have no repeat digits, do not contain zero, and have a sum of digits equal to 28?- a)14
- b)24
- c)28
- d)48
- e)96
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
How many four digit numbers have no repeat digits, do not contain zero, and have a sum of digits equal to 28?
a)
14
b)
24
c)
28
d)
48
e)
96
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EduRev GMAT answered |
First, we need to know: how many combinations of four distinct single-digit numbers have a sum of 28? Start with the three highest digits: 9 + 8 + 7 = 24, so {9, 8, 7, 4} is one such combination. First, keep the 9 & 8, and bring the other two closer together: {9, 8, 6, 5}. OK: that exhausts possibilities with 9 & 8 as the highest numbers. Now, omit 8, and try 9 & 7: even with the largest available digits, 9 + 7 + 6 + 5 = 27, so this will not be big enough. Similarly, without 9, even with the largest available digits, 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 = 26, also is not big enough. If we omit either 9 or 8, the sum is not big enough, and with both 9 & 8, there are only two possibilities: {9, 8, 7, 4} or {9, 8, 6, 5}. Thus, only two possible sets of four digits.
For each one of these, we could permutate the number in any order. 4! = 24, so for each of the two sets, there are 24 different four-digit numbers we could form. That’s a total of 2 * 24 = 48 different four-digit numbers.
Answer = D
PassageRoughly 40 per cent of the African American population of the Southern United States left the South between 1915 and 1960, primarily for the industrial cities of the North. While there was some African American migration to the North during the nineteenth century, most accounts point to 1915 as the start of what historians call the Great Migration. There were at least three catalysts of the Great Migration. First, World War I increased labour demand in the industrial North. Second, the war in Europe cut off immigration, which led many Northern employers to send labour agents to recruit African American labour in the South. Finally, a boll weevil infestation ruined cotton crops and reduced labour demand in much of the South in the 1910s and 1920s.In short, the Great Migration began in 1915 and not earlier, because it was only then that the North-South income gap became large enough to start such a large-scale migration. Less clear, however, is why migration continued and even accelerated, in subsequent decades, at the same time that North-South income differences were narrowing.We propose that once started, migration develops momentum over time as current migration reduces the difficulty and cost of future migration. Economists have typically assumed that people migrate if their expected earnings in the destination exceed those of the origin enough to outweigh the difficulties and one-time costs of migration. Previous research suggests that the difficulties and costs arise from several sources. First, the uncertainty that potential migrants face concerning housing and labour-market conditions in the destination presents a significant hindrance. Second, there is a simple cost in terms of time and money of physically moving from the origin to the destination. Third, new migrants must familiarize themselves with local labour- and housing-market institutions once they arrive; they must find housing and work, and they must often adapt to a new culture or language.Empirical studies show that during the Great Migration, information was passed through letters that were often read by dozens of people and through conversation when migrants made trips back to their home communities. Thus early migrants provided information about labor- and housing-market conditions to friends and relatives who had not yet made the trip. First-time African American migrants often travelled with earlier migrants returning to the North after a visit to the South, which reduced physical costs. Additionally, previous migrants reduced new migrants' cost of adapting to a new locale and culture by providing them with temporary housing, food, and even credit. Previous migrants also provided a cultural cushion for later migrants, so that they did not have to struggle as hard with their new surroundings.Q. The authors of the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements?- a)Expected financial gains alone may not be a reliable indicator of the likelihood that an individual will migrate.
- b)A complete explanation of the Great Migration must begin with an account of what triggered nineteenth-century migrations to the North.
- c)The Great Migration is not parallel in its broadest patterns to most other known migration movements.
- d)Most large-scale migrations can be adequately explained in terms of the movement of people from lower- to higher-income regions.
- e)Large-scale migrations generally did not occur until the early twentieth century, when significant interregional income differences arose as a result of rapid industrialization.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Passage
Roughly 40 per cent of the African American population of the Southern United States left the South between 1915 and 1960, primarily for the industrial cities of the North. While there was some African American migration to the North during the nineteenth century, most accounts point to 1915 as the start of what historians call the Great Migration. There were at least three catalysts of the Great Migration. First, World War I increased labour demand in the industrial North. Second, the war in Europe cut off immigration, which led many Northern employers to send labour agents to recruit African American labour in the South. Finally, a boll weevil infestation ruined cotton crops and reduced labour demand in much of the South in the 1910s and 1920s.
In short, the Great Migration began in 1915 and not earlier, because it was only then that the North-South income gap became large enough to start such a large-scale migration. Less clear, however, is why migration continued and even accelerated, in subsequent decades, at the same time that North-South income differences were narrowing.
We propose that once started, migration develops momentum over time as current migration reduces the difficulty and cost of future migration. Economists have typically assumed that people migrate if their expected earnings in the destination exceed those of the origin enough to outweigh the difficulties and one-time costs of migration. Previous research suggests that the difficulties and costs arise from several sources. First, the uncertainty that potential migrants face concerning housing and labour-market conditions in the destination presents a significant hindrance. Second, there is a simple cost in terms of time and money of physically moving from the origin to the destination. Third, new migrants must familiarize themselves with local labour- and housing-market institutions once they arrive; they must find housing and work, and they must often adapt to a new culture or language.
Empirical studies show that during the Great Migration, information was passed through letters that were often read by dozens of people and through conversation when migrants made trips back to their home communities. Thus early migrants provided information about labor- and housing-market conditions to friends and relatives who had not yet made the trip. First-time African American migrants often travelled with earlier migrants returning to the North after a visit to the South, which reduced physical costs. Additionally, previous migrants reduced new migrants' cost of adapting to a new locale and culture by providing them with temporary housing, food, and even credit. Previous migrants also provided a cultural cushion for later migrants, so that they did not have to struggle as hard with their new surroundings.
Q. The authors of the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements?
a)
Expected financial gains alone may not be a reliable indicator of the likelihood that an individual will migrate.
b)
A complete explanation of the Great Migration must begin with an account of what triggered nineteenth-century migrations to the North.
c)
The Great Migration is not parallel in its broadest patterns to most other known migration movements.
d)
Most large-scale migrations can be adequately explained in terms of the movement of people from lower- to higher-income regions.
e)
Large-scale migrations generally did not occur until the early twentieth century, when significant interregional income differences arose as a result of rapid industrialization.
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Arnab Kumar answered |
Understanding the Authors' Perspective
The authors of the passage emphasize that migration is influenced by multiple factors beyond just financial incentives. This leads to the conclusion that expected financial gains alone may not accurately predict an individual's likelihood to migrate.
Key Points Supporting Option A
- Complexity of Migration Decisions:
Migration involves various challenges, such as uncertainty about housing and labor-market conditions, which may deter potential migrants regardless of financial prospects.
- Costs of Migration:
The passage outlines significant physical and logistical costs involved in moving, which must be considered alongside expected earnings.
- Role of Information Networks:
Early migrants played a crucial role in providing information and support to new migrants, reducing the perceived risks and difficulties associated with relocation.
- Cultural Adaptation:
New migrants often relied on previous migrants for guidance in adjusting to new environments, indicating that social networks can influence migration decisions beyond financial factors.
Conclusion
Overall, the authors suggest that while financial incentives are important, they do not provide a complete picture of the motivations and circumstances surrounding migration. Therefore, option A is the most aligned with the authors’ views, highlighting the multifaceted nature of migration decisions.
The authors of the passage emphasize that migration is influenced by multiple factors beyond just financial incentives. This leads to the conclusion that expected financial gains alone may not accurately predict an individual's likelihood to migrate.
Key Points Supporting Option A
- Complexity of Migration Decisions:
Migration involves various challenges, such as uncertainty about housing and labor-market conditions, which may deter potential migrants regardless of financial prospects.
- Costs of Migration:
The passage outlines significant physical and logistical costs involved in moving, which must be considered alongside expected earnings.
- Role of Information Networks:
Early migrants played a crucial role in providing information and support to new migrants, reducing the perceived risks and difficulties associated with relocation.
- Cultural Adaptation:
New migrants often relied on previous migrants for guidance in adjusting to new environments, indicating that social networks can influence migration decisions beyond financial factors.
Conclusion
Overall, the authors suggest that while financial incentives are important, they do not provide a complete picture of the motivations and circumstances surrounding migration. Therefore, option A is the most aligned with the authors’ views, highlighting the multifaceted nature of migration decisions.
How much water does a chemist need to dilute a pure solution of chlorine in order to obtain 150 ml of solution?(1) The chemist would like the final solution to be 15% chlorine.(2) There is no chlorine in water.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient.
- b)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.
- c)Each Statement ALONE is sufficient.
- d)Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- e)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
How much water does a chemist need to dilute a pure solution of chlorine in order to obtain 150 ml of solution?
(1) The chemist would like the final solution to be 15% chlorine.
(2) There is no chlorine in water.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient.
b)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.
c)
Each Statement ALONE is sufficient.
d)
Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
e)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient.
|
|
Sonal Banerjee answered |
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1: The chemist would like the final solution to be 15% chlorine.
Statement 2: There is no chlorine in water.
Explanation:
To determine how much water the chemist needs to dilute the pure solution of chlorine, we need to calculate the ratio of chlorine to water in the final solution.
Analysis of Statement 1:
- If the final solution is to be 15% chlorine, the remaining 85% will be water.
- Using the ratio method, we can set up the equation:
- Let x be the amount of water needed.
- 0.15 * 150ml (chlorine) = 0.85 * x
- Solving for x, we can find the amount of water required.
Analysis of Statement 2:
- This statement tells us that there is no chlorine in the water, which indicates that the initial 150ml of the solution is pure chlorine.
- However, this statement alone does not provide any information about the concentration of chlorine in the final solution, so it is not sufficient on its own.
Final Assessment:
- Statement 1 alone is sufficient to calculate the amount of water needed to dilute the chlorine solution to obtain a 15% chlorine solution.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A.'
There were 6 members in Mr. George's family: his wife, 2 daughters, one son and mother and himself. They had 6 cars out of which 2 were identical cars of brand A, one car of brand B, third was of brand C, one was of brand D& the sixth car was brand of E. If all family members want to use separate cars, in how many ways can they choose if Mr. George's son refuged to take the car of brand A?
- a)180
- b)200
- c)240
- d)360
- e)480
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
There were 6 members in Mr. George's family: his wife, 2 daughters, one son and mother and himself. They had 6 cars out of which 2 were identical cars of brand A, one car of brand B, third was of brand C, one was of brand D& the sixth car was brand of E. If all family members want to use separate cars, in how many ways can they choose if Mr. George's son refuged to take the car of brand A?
a)
180
b)
200
c)
240
d)
360
e)
480
|
|
EduRev GMAT answered |
The son has 4 options to choose from & remaining members can choose 5! = 120 ways.
So, total number of ways = 4 × 120 = 480
In the first hour of a bake sale, students sold either chocolate chip cookies, which sold for $1.30, or brownies, which sold for $1.50. What was the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during that hour? - The average price for the items sold during that hour was $1.42
- The total price for all items sold during that hour was $14.20
- a)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
- c)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked
- d)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
- e)Both statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked; but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In the first hour of a bake sale, students sold either chocolate chip cookies, which sold for $1.30, or brownies, which sold for $1.50. What was the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during that hour?
- The average price for the items sold during that hour was $1.42
- The total price for all items sold during that hour was $14.20
a)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
c)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked
d)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
e)
Both statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked; but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
|
|
Navya Yadav answered |
Analysis:
Statement 1: The average price for the items sold during the hour was $1.42.
This statement does not provide any information about the specific quantities of chocolate chip cookies and brownies sold. Therefore, it is not sufficient to determine the ratio of chocolate chip cookies to brownies sold.
Statement 2: The total price for all items sold during the hour was $14.20.
This statement alone does not provide enough information to determine the ratio of chocolate chip cookies to brownies sold.
Together:
When we combine both statements, we can deduce that the total price of all items sold was $14.20, and the average price per item was $1.42. By dividing the total price by the average price per item, we can determine the total number of items sold. Then, by using the total number of items sold and the total price, we can find the quantities of chocolate chip cookies and brownies sold. This allows us to calculate the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during that hour.
Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question as they provide the necessary information to calculate the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during the first hour of the bake sale.
Statement 1: The average price for the items sold during the hour was $1.42.
This statement does not provide any information about the specific quantities of chocolate chip cookies and brownies sold. Therefore, it is not sufficient to determine the ratio of chocolate chip cookies to brownies sold.
Statement 2: The total price for all items sold during the hour was $14.20.
This statement alone does not provide enough information to determine the ratio of chocolate chip cookies to brownies sold.
Together:
When we combine both statements, we can deduce that the total price of all items sold was $14.20, and the average price per item was $1.42. By dividing the total price by the average price per item, we can determine the total number of items sold. Then, by using the total number of items sold and the total price, we can find the quantities of chocolate chip cookies and brownies sold. This allows us to calculate the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during that hour.
Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question as they provide the necessary information to calculate the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during the first hour of the bake sale.
When, on a particular shopping trip, a consumer purchases an item which he previously had no intention of purchasing, this sale is called an “impulse purchase.” The objects of impulse purchases are occasionally essential items (i.e. items that satisfy basic subsistence needs), but much more frequently are luxury or non-essential items. Researchers have determined that, at the end of a shopping trip, a consumer is much more excited if she has bought a luxury item on an impulse purchase, than if she had made no impulse purchases.
Q. If the information above is true, and if the researchers’ investigation was properly conducted, then which of the following must also be true?- a)The impulse purchase of a luxury or non-essential item is more exciting than the impulse purchase of an essential need.
- b)A consumer who, for whatever reason, is not able to purchase an item she had planned to buy is necessarily disappointed.
- c)Consumers seeking a high level of excitement often make impulse purchases.
- d)The researcher had a reliable way to determine whether the consumer had planned to buy the luxury or non-essential item he purchased on that trip.
- e)The probability that a consumer makes an impulse purchase of an item decreases the price of the item increases.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
When, on a particular shopping trip, a consumer purchases an item which he previously had no intention of purchasing, this sale is called an “impulse purchase.” The objects of impulse purchases are occasionally essential items (i.e. items that satisfy basic subsistence needs), but much more frequently are luxury or non-essential items. Researchers have determined that, at the end of a shopping trip, a consumer is much more excited if she has bought a luxury item on an impulse purchase, than if she had made no impulse purchases.
Q. If the information above is true, and if the researchers’ investigation was properly conducted, then which of the following must also be true?
a)
The impulse purchase of a luxury or non-essential item is more exciting than the impulse purchase of an essential need.
b)
A consumer who, for whatever reason, is not able to purchase an item she had planned to buy is necessarily disappointed.
c)
Consumers seeking a high level of excitement often make impulse purchases.
d)
The researcher had a reliable way to determine whether the consumer had planned to buy the luxury or non-essential item he purchased on that trip.
e)
The probability that a consumer makes an impulse purchase of an item decreases the price of the item increases.
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Talent Skill Learning answered |
The researcher could only draw conclusions about the feelings associated with impulse purchases if it was established that a purchase was unplanned. The information provided only confirms the excitement of impulse buying luxury items, and assumptions about other scenarios or high-priced items are not supported. Therefore, the correct answer is (D).
Is it possible to find the value of z using these equations?(1) 2x + 4y = 12
(2) z/x + 2y= 2- a)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
- c)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked
- d)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
- e)Both statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked; but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Is it possible to find the value of z using these equations?
(1) 2x + 4y = 12
(2) z/x + 2y= 2
(2) z/x + 2y= 2
a)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
c)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked
d)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
e)
Both statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked; but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
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Aditya Sharma answered |
Understanding the Equations
To determine the value of z from the given equations, let's analyze each statement:
Equations Provided:
1. \( 2x + 4y = 12 \)
2. \( \frac{z}{x} + 2y = 2 \)
Analyzing Statement (1):
- From the first equation, we can express \( x \) and \( y \):
- Rearranging gives \( x + 2y = 6 \) (dividing everything by 2).
- This equation defines a relationship between \( x \) and \( y \) but does not provide a direct value for \( z \).
Analyzing Statement (2):
- The second equation can be rearranged to isolate \( z \):
- \( \frac{z}{x} = 2 - 2y \) or \( z = x(2 - 2y) \).
- This equation indicates that \( z \) is dependent on both \( x \) and \( y \), but since we do not have specific values for \( x \) or \( y \), we cannot determine \( z \) with this statement alone.
Combining Both Statements:
- Using both equations together:
- From Statement (1), we can express \( y \) in terms of \( x \).
- Substituting \( y \) back into Statement (2) allows us to express \( z \) solely in terms of \( x \).
- Thus, with both equations, we can find a unique value for \( z \).
Conclusion:
- Each statement alone is insufficient to find \( z \).
- However, combining both statements provides enough information.
Correct Answer:
- The correct choice is option 'C': Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
To determine the value of z from the given equations, let's analyze each statement:
Equations Provided:
1. \( 2x + 4y = 12 \)
2. \( \frac{z}{x} + 2y = 2 \)
Analyzing Statement (1):
- From the first equation, we can express \( x \) and \( y \):
- Rearranging gives \( x + 2y = 6 \) (dividing everything by 2).
- This equation defines a relationship between \( x \) and \( y \) but does not provide a direct value for \( z \).
Analyzing Statement (2):
- The second equation can be rearranged to isolate \( z \):
- \( \frac{z}{x} = 2 - 2y \) or \( z = x(2 - 2y) \).
- This equation indicates that \( z \) is dependent on both \( x \) and \( y \), but since we do not have specific values for \( x \) or \( y \), we cannot determine \( z \) with this statement alone.
Combining Both Statements:
- Using both equations together:
- From Statement (1), we can express \( y \) in terms of \( x \).
- Substituting \( y \) back into Statement (2) allows us to express \( z \) solely in terms of \( x \).
- Thus, with both equations, we can find a unique value for \( z \).
Conclusion:
- Each statement alone is insufficient to find \( z \).
- However, combining both statements provides enough information.
Correct Answer:
- The correct choice is option 'C': Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
Define two sets as follows:
A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, a, b}
B = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, c, d}
where a and b are distinct positive odd integers and c and d are distinct positive even integers.
How many elements are contained in the set A∩B?
1) a, b ∈ {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
2) c, d ∈ {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
- a)Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but Statement 2 ALONE is not sufficient.
- b)BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
- c)Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but Statement 1 ALONE is not sufficient.
- d)EITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
- e)BOTH statements TOGETHER are insufficient to answer the question.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Define two sets as follows:
A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, a, b}
B = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, c, d}
where a and b are distinct positive odd integers and c and d are distinct positive even integers.
How many elements are contained in the set A∩B?
1) a, b ∈ {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
2) c, d ∈ {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
a)
Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but Statement 2 ALONE is not sufficient.
b)
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
c)
Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but Statement 1 ALONE is not sufficient.
d)
EITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
e)
BOTH statements TOGETHER are insufficient to answer the question.
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Mihir Ghoshal answered |
Understanding the Sets
- Set A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, a, b} contains even integers and two distinct positive odd integers (a and b).
- Set B = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, c, d} contains odd integers and two distinct positive even integers (c and d).
Finding the Intersection A ∩ B
- The intersection A ∩ B consists of elements that are common to both sets A and B.
- Since all elements in set A are even (including a and b, which must also be odd), the intersection will have 0 elements.
Evaluating Statement 1
- Statement 1 claims that a and b belong to the set {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}.
- This statement indicates that a and b are odd integers, confirming they cannot belong to set A, which contains only even integers.
- Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient to conclude that A ∩ B = ∅ (empty set).
Evaluating Statement 2
- Statement 2 states that c and d belong to the set {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}.
- This indicates that c and d are even integers, confirming they cannot belong to set B, which contains only odd integers.
- Hence, statement 2 alone also leads to the conclusion that A ∩ B = ∅.
Combining Statements
- When considering both statements together, they reinforce the conclusions drawn from each independently. Both confirm that A and B contain no common elements.
- Thus, both statements together still affirm that A ∩ B = ∅.
Conclusion
- Both statements independently confirm that the intersection A ∩ B contains no elements.
- Therefore, the answer is option 'B': BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- Set A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, a, b} contains even integers and two distinct positive odd integers (a and b).
- Set B = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, c, d} contains odd integers and two distinct positive even integers (c and d).
Finding the Intersection A ∩ B
- The intersection A ∩ B consists of elements that are common to both sets A and B.
- Since all elements in set A are even (including a and b, which must also be odd), the intersection will have 0 elements.
Evaluating Statement 1
- Statement 1 claims that a and b belong to the set {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}.
- This statement indicates that a and b are odd integers, confirming they cannot belong to set A, which contains only even integers.
- Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient to conclude that A ∩ B = ∅ (empty set).
Evaluating Statement 2
- Statement 2 states that c and d belong to the set {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}.
- This indicates that c and d are even integers, confirming they cannot belong to set B, which contains only odd integers.
- Hence, statement 2 alone also leads to the conclusion that A ∩ B = ∅.
Combining Statements
- When considering both statements together, they reinforce the conclusions drawn from each independently. Both confirm that A and B contain no common elements.
- Thus, both statements together still affirm that A ∩ B = ∅.
Conclusion
- Both statements independently confirm that the intersection A ∩ B contains no elements.
- Therefore, the answer is option 'B': BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
Passage Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles. Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival. Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.Q. The author mentions that the Javan rhino has only one horn in order to do which of the following?- a)explain why it is closer to extinction than the African rhino
- b)contrast it to the number of horns that the Indian rhino has
- c)demonstrate its evolution into a separate sub-species
- d)describe the features of the animal
- e)contrast it to the number of horns that females have
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Passage
Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles. Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival. Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.
Q. The author mentions that the Javan rhino has only one horn in order to do which of the following?
a)
explain why it is closer to extinction than the African rhino
b)
contrast it to the number of horns that the Indian rhino has
c)
demonstrate its evolution into a separate sub-species
d)
describe the features of the animal
e)
contrast it to the number of horns that females have
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The author mentions the number of horns in the first paragraph in the course of describing the Javan rhino. The correct answer must follow from this text.
(A) Although the Javan rhino is described as rare, the discussion of extinction is in the second paragraph,. Furthermore, the vitality of the African rhino is not mentioned.
(B) The passage contrasts the number of horns of the Javan rhino to that of the African and Sumatran rhinos. However, the author makes a parallel comparison to the Indian rhino because both species have one horn.
(C) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino’s evolution into a separate subspecies in the second paragraph in a completely different context,; no direct link is drawn between this evolution and the Javan rhino’s single horn.
(D) CORRECT. The author mentions the Javan rhino’s single horn in conjunction with a general description of the Javan rhino. The passage then goes on to discuss its habitat and the scientific knowledge to date. Thus, the author included this detail to add depth to his or her description.
(E) The passage only states that until recently scientists were unsure if females had horns, and no definitive answer is given. Furthermore, this point is mentioned in a different context, after the passage has finished describing the Javan rhino.
(A) Although the Javan rhino is described as rare, the discussion of extinction is in the second paragraph,. Furthermore, the vitality of the African rhino is not mentioned.
(B) The passage contrasts the number of horns of the Javan rhino to that of the African and Sumatran rhinos. However, the author makes a parallel comparison to the Indian rhino because both species have one horn.
(C) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino’s evolution into a separate subspecies in the second paragraph in a completely different context,; no direct link is drawn between this evolution and the Javan rhino’s single horn.
(D) CORRECT. The author mentions the Javan rhino’s single horn in conjunction with a general description of the Javan rhino. The passage then goes on to discuss its habitat and the scientific knowledge to date. Thus, the author included this detail to add depth to his or her description.
(E) The passage only states that until recently scientists were unsure if females had horns, and no definitive answer is given. Furthermore, this point is mentioned in a different context, after the passage has finished describing the Javan rhino.
If the total cost of 20 pairs of shoes is equal to the total revenue generated from the sale of 25 pairs of shoes, what is the percent of profit or loss made on the sale of each pair of shoes, assuming each pair of shoes cost the same dollar amount and each pair of shoes sold for the same dollar amount?- a)25% loss
- b)25% profit
- c)20% loss
- d)20% profit
- e)5% profit
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
If the total cost of 20 pairs of shoes is equal to the total revenue generated from the sale of 25 pairs of shoes, what is the percent of profit or loss made on the sale of each pair of shoes, assuming each pair of shoes cost the same dollar amount and each pair of shoes sold for the same dollar amount?
a)
25% loss
b)
25% profit
c)
20% loss
d)
20% profit
e)
5% profit
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Sinjini Mukherjee answered |
Given Information:
- Total cost of 20 pairs of shoes = Total revenue generated from the sale of 25 pairs of shoes
Calculation:
Let's assume the cost of each pair of shoes is $1.
Total cost of 20 pairs of shoes:
20 pairs * $1 = $20
Total revenue generated from the sale of 25 pairs of shoes:
25 pairs * $1 = $25
Profit or Loss Calculation:
- Profit = Revenue - Cost
- Profit = $25 - $20
- Profit = $5
Percentage of Profit or Loss:
- Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost) * 100
- Profit Percentage = ($5 / $25) * 100
- Profit Percentage = 20%
Therefore, the percentage of profit made on the sale of each pair of shoes is 20%. This means that for each pair of shoes sold, there is a 20% profit.
What is the value of the square root of the square root of .00000256?- a)0.004
- b)0.016
- c)0.04
- d)0.16
- e)0.4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the value of the square root of the square root of .00000256?
a)
0.004
b)
0.016
c)
0.04
d)
0.16
e)
0.4
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Sharmila Singh answered |
Calculation of the Square Root of the Square Root of .00000256
To find the square root of the square root of .00000256, we need to take the square root of .00000256 first and then take the square root of the result.
Finding the Square Root of .00000256
- The square root of .00000256 is 0.00016. This can be calculated by taking the square root of 256 and then moving the decimal point four places to the left.
Calculating the Square Root of 0.00016
- Taking the square root of 0.00016 gives us 0.04. This can be calculated by taking the square root of 16 and moving the decimal point two places to the left.
Therefore, the square root of the square root of .00000256 is 0.04, which corresponds to option C.
A GMAT aspirant appears for a certain number of tests. His average score increases by 10 if the first 10 tests are not considered, and decreases by 10 if the last 10 tests are not considered. If his average scores for the first 10 and the last 10 tests are 600 and 700, respectively, then the total number of tests taken by him is- a)40
- b)50
- c)60
- d)70
- e)80
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A GMAT aspirant appears for a certain number of tests. His average score increases by 10 if the first 10 tests are not considered, and decreases by 10 if the last 10 tests are not considered. If his average scores for the first 10 and the last 10 tests are 600 and 700, respectively, then the total number of tests taken by him is
a)
40
b)
50
c)
60
d)
70
e)
80
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Sharmila Singh answered |
Given Information:
- Average score increases by 10 if the first 10 tests are not considered
- Average score decreases by 10 if the last 10 tests are not considered
- Average scores for the first 10 tests = 600
- Average scores for the last 10 tests = 700
Approach:
1. Let the total number of tests taken be n.
2. Total score for all tests = Average score * Number of tests
3. Calculate the total score for all tests considering all, first 10, and last 10 tests.
4. Use the given information to form equations and solve for the total number of tests.
Solution:
- Total score for all tests = Average score * Number of tests
- Total score for all tests = 600 * 10 = 6000 (first 10 tests)
- Total score for all tests = 700 * 10 = 7000 (last 10 tests)
- Let x be the average score for the remaining (n-20) tests.
- According to the information provided:
1. (600 * 10 + x * (n-20))/(n-10) = 610
2. (x * (n-20) + 700 * 10)/(n-10) = 690
- Solving these two equations, we get n = 60.
Therefore, the total number of tests taken by the aspirant is 60. Hence, the correct answer is option C.
- Average score increases by 10 if the first 10 tests are not considered
- Average score decreases by 10 if the last 10 tests are not considered
- Average scores for the first 10 tests = 600
- Average scores for the last 10 tests = 700
Approach:
1. Let the total number of tests taken be n.
2. Total score for all tests = Average score * Number of tests
3. Calculate the total score for all tests considering all, first 10, and last 10 tests.
4. Use the given information to form equations and solve for the total number of tests.
Solution:
- Total score for all tests = Average score * Number of tests
- Total score for all tests = 600 * 10 = 6000 (first 10 tests)
- Total score for all tests = 700 * 10 = 7000 (last 10 tests)
- Let x be the average score for the remaining (n-20) tests.
- According to the information provided:
1. (600 * 10 + x * (n-20))/(n-10) = 610
2. (x * (n-20) + 700 * 10)/(n-10) = 690
- Solving these two equations, we get n = 60.
Therefore, the total number of tests taken by the aspirant is 60. Hence, the correct answer is option C.
The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage?- a)As population density increases in Hawaii, life expectancy figures for that state are likely to be revised downward.
- b)Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Hawaii and less numerous in Louisiana.
- c)Twenty-five percent of all Louisianans who move to Hawaii live longer than 77 years.
- d)Over the last decade, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for Louisianans than for Hawaiians.
- e)Studies show that the average life expectancy for Hawaiians who move permanently to Louisiana is roughly equal to that of Hawaiians who remain in Hawaii.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana.
Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage?
a)
As population density increases in Hawaii, life expectancy figures for that state are likely to be revised downward.
b)
Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Hawaii and less numerous in Louisiana.
c)
Twenty-five percent of all Louisianans who move to Hawaii live longer than 77 years.
d)
Over the last decade, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for Louisianans than for Hawaiians.
e)
Studies show that the average life expectancy for Hawaiians who move permanently to Louisiana is roughly equal to that of Hawaiians who remain in Hawaii.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
If B is true, the greater abundance of longevity-promoting environmental factors it mentions is probably at least partly responsible for the higher life expectancy in Hawaii. Children born in Hawaii benefit from these factors from birth, and thus Louisianans who have children in Hawaii increase their children's chances of living longer. Therefore, B is the best answer. If life expectancy in Hawaii is likely to be falling, as A says, the argument is weakened rather than strengthened. C and E, in the absence of other relevant information, have no bearing on the conclusion; thus, they are inappropriate. D is irrelevant, because the information it mentions about rates would already have been incorporated into the statistics cited in the passage.
If 38 percent of the departments in a certain research organization have 14 or fewer members each, what is the median number of members per department in this organization?(1) 58 percent of the departments have 15 or fewer members each.
(2) 42 percent of the departments have 16 or more members each.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
- c)Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If 38 percent of the departments in a certain research organization have 14 or fewer members each, what is the median number of members per department in this organization?
(1) 58 percent of the departments have 15 or fewer members each.
(2) 42 percent of the departments have 16 or more members each.
(2) 42 percent of the departments have 16 or more members each.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
c)
Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
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Niti Choudhury answered |
Statement (1):
- 38 percent of departments have 14 or fewer members
- 58 percent of departments have 15 or fewer members
Statement (2):
- 42 percent of departments have 16 or more members
Analysis:
- From statement (1), we know that 38 percent of departments have 14 or fewer members each, and 58 percent have 15 or fewer members each.
- Since the median number of members is the middle value when the total number of departments is arranged in ascending order, we can determine the median number of members per department from statement (1) alone.
- From statement (2), we know that 42 percent of departments have 16 or more members each. This information is not necessary to determine the median number of members per department.
- Therefore, each statement alone is sufficient to determine the median number of members per department. Hence, the correct answer is option 'D'.
- 38 percent of departments have 14 or fewer members
- 58 percent of departments have 15 or fewer members
Statement (2):
- 42 percent of departments have 16 or more members
Analysis:
- From statement (1), we know that 38 percent of departments have 14 or fewer members each, and 58 percent have 15 or fewer members each.
- Since the median number of members is the middle value when the total number of departments is arranged in ascending order, we can determine the median number of members per department from statement (1) alone.
- From statement (2), we know that 42 percent of departments have 16 or more members each. This information is not necessary to determine the median number of members per department.
- Therefore, each statement alone is sufficient to determine the median number of members per department. Hence, the correct answer is option 'D'.
On which floor is Shikha residing?
I. In a six storey building (Ground floor is parking space), Rekha is on fourth floor. Shikha likes to reside only on even numbered floors. Reema is not on the topmost floor.
II. Reema is two floors below Peter who is 3 floors above Shikha.- a)If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
- b)If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
- c)If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
- d)If data given in both I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
- e)If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
On which floor is Shikha residing?
I. In a six storey building (Ground floor is parking space), Rekha is on fourth floor. Shikha likes to reside only on even numbered floors. Reema is not on the topmost floor.
II. Reema is two floors below Peter who is 3 floors above Shikha.
I. In a six storey building (Ground floor is parking space), Rekha is on fourth floor. Shikha likes to reside only on even numbered floors. Reema is not on the topmost floor.
II. Reema is two floors below Peter who is 3 floors above Shikha.
a)
If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
b)
If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
c)
If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d)
If data given in both I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e)
If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
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Talent Skill Learning answered |
From I: 6 storey building has 2, 4 and 6 even numbered floors, out of which Rekha is on 4th, so Shruti is on either 2 or 6. Reema is not on 6 (top-most), but since it is not given Reema also stays on an even numbered floor, nothing can be known about Shikha
From II: Peter is 3 floors above Shikha, this means that Shikha will have to be at 1, 2 or 3 floor, so that Peter is at 3 above Shikha’s floor.
From both, Shikha is at 2nd floor.
From II: Peter is 3 floors above Shikha, this means that Shikha will have to be at 1, 2 or 3 floor, so that Peter is at 3 above Shikha’s floor.
From both, Shikha is at 2nd floor.
In a university club of 200 people, the number of Political Science majors is 50 less than 4 times the number of International Relations majors. If one fifth of the club members are neither Political Science majors nor International Relations majors, and no club member is majoring in both Political Science and International Relations, how many of the club members are International Relations majors?- a)42
- b)50
- c)71
- d)95
- e)124
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In a university club of 200 people, the number of Political Science majors is 50 less than 4 times the number of International Relations majors. If one fifth of the club members are neither Political Science majors nor International Relations majors, and no club member is majoring in both Political Science and International Relations, how many of the club members are International Relations majors?
a)
42
b)
50
c)
71
d)
95
e)
124
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Chirag Roy answered |
Understanding the Problem
In the university club of 200 members, we need to find the number of International Relations majors given the relationship between the Political Science and International Relations majors.
Defining Variables
- Let x = number of International Relations majors.
- Then, the number of Political Science majors = 4x - 50.
Calculating Members in Each Major
Since one fifth of the club members are neither majors, we can determine that:
- Members neither in Political Science nor International Relations = 1/5 of 200 = 40.
Thus, the total number of members who are either Political Science or International Relations majors is:
- Total majors = 200 - 40 = 160.
Setting Up the Equation
Now, we can set up the equation based on the majors:
- Total members in majors = Political Science majors + International Relations majors
- 160 = (4x - 50) + x.
This simplifies to:
- 160 = 5x - 50.
Simplifying the Equation
Now, adding 50 to both sides gives:
- 210 = 5x.
Dividing both sides by 5, we find:
- x = 42.
Conclusion
Thus, the number of International Relations majors is 42, which corresponds to option 'A'.
In the university club of 200 members, we need to find the number of International Relations majors given the relationship between the Political Science and International Relations majors.
Defining Variables
- Let x = number of International Relations majors.
- Then, the number of Political Science majors = 4x - 50.
Calculating Members in Each Major
Since one fifth of the club members are neither majors, we can determine that:
- Members neither in Political Science nor International Relations = 1/5 of 200 = 40.
Thus, the total number of members who are either Political Science or International Relations majors is:
- Total majors = 200 - 40 = 160.
Setting Up the Equation
Now, we can set up the equation based on the majors:
- Total members in majors = Political Science majors + International Relations majors
- 160 = (4x - 50) + x.
This simplifies to:
- 160 = 5x - 50.
Simplifying the Equation
Now, adding 50 to both sides gives:
- 210 = 5x.
Dividing both sides by 5, we find:
- x = 42.
Conclusion
Thus, the number of International Relations majors is 42, which corresponds to option 'A'.
If a, b and c are integers such that ab + c is an odd integer, is a an even integer?
(1) ab + ac is an even integer.
(2) b + ac is an odd integer.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
- c)Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If a, b and c are integers such that ab + c is an odd integer, is a an even integer?
(1) ab + ac is an even integer.
(2) b + ac is an odd integer.
(1) ab + ac is an even integer.
(2) b + ac is an odd integer.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
c)
Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Given that ab + c = odd, determine whether a is even.
(1) ab + ac is an even integer. ab + ac = even. Subtract this equation from the equation above: (ab + ac) − (ab + c) = ac − c = even − odd = odd ⇒ c(a − 1) = odd ⇒ both multiples must be odd ⇒ a − 1 = odd ⇒ a = odd + 1 = even. Sufficient.
(2) b + ac is an odd integer. a = even, b = odd and c = odd OR a = odd, b = odd and c = even. Not sufficient.
Answer: A.
(1) ab + ac is an even integer. ab + ac = even. Subtract this equation from the equation above: (ab + ac) − (ab + c) = ac − c = even − odd = odd ⇒ c(a − 1) = odd ⇒ both multiples must be odd ⇒ a − 1 = odd ⇒ a = odd + 1 = even. Sufficient.
(2) b + ac is an odd integer. a = even, b = odd and c = odd OR a = odd, b = odd and c = even. Not sufficient.
Answer: A.
The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 4 : 3. The average weight of all the students in the class is 45kg. If the average weight of girls is 7kg less than that of boys, what is the ratio of the average weight of boys to the average weight of girls?- a)47 : 40
- b)48 : 41
- c)49 : 42
- d)50 : 43
- e)4 : 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 4 : 3. The average weight of all the students in the class is 45kg. If the average weight of girls is 7kg less than that of boys, what is the ratio of the average weight of boys to the average weight of girls?
a)
47 : 40
b)
48 : 41
c)
49 : 42
d)
50 : 43
e)
4 : 3
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Akshay Khanna answered |
Understanding the Problem
We have a class with boys and girls in a ratio of 4:3. The average weight of all students is 45 kg, and the average weight of girls is 7 kg less than that of boys. We need to find the ratio of the average weight of boys to girls.
Setting Up Variables
- Let the average weight of boys be B kg.
- Therefore, the average weight of girls would be (B - 7) kg.
Finding the Total Students
- Let the number of boys be 4x and the number of girls be 3x, where x is a common multiplier.
- Total students = 4x + 3x = 7x.
Calculating Average Weight
- The total weight of boys = 4x * B.
- The total weight of girls = 3x * (B - 7).
- Total weight of all students = 4xB + 3x(B - 7) = 4xB + 3xB - 21x = 7xB - 21x.
Using the Average Weight
- Average weight of all students = Total weight / Total students = (7xB - 21x) / 7x.
- Given the average = 45 kg, we have:
(7xB - 21x) / 7x = 45.
- Simplifying gives us 7B - 21 = 45. Therefore, 7B = 66, leading to B = 9.4286 kg.
Finding Average Weight of Girls
- Average weight of girls = B - 7 = 9.4286 - 7 = 2.4286 kg.
Calculating the Ratio
- Now, the ratio of average weight of boys to girls = B : (B - 7) = 9.4286 : 2.4286.
- Simplifying this gives approximately 48 : 41, which corresponds to option 'B'.
Conclusion
Thus, the ratio of the average weight of boys to the average weight of girls is 48 : 41.
We have a class with boys and girls in a ratio of 4:3. The average weight of all students is 45 kg, and the average weight of girls is 7 kg less than that of boys. We need to find the ratio of the average weight of boys to girls.
Setting Up Variables
- Let the average weight of boys be B kg.
- Therefore, the average weight of girls would be (B - 7) kg.
Finding the Total Students
- Let the number of boys be 4x and the number of girls be 3x, where x is a common multiplier.
- Total students = 4x + 3x = 7x.
Calculating Average Weight
- The total weight of boys = 4x * B.
- The total weight of girls = 3x * (B - 7).
- Total weight of all students = 4xB + 3x(B - 7) = 4xB + 3xB - 21x = 7xB - 21x.
Using the Average Weight
- Average weight of all students = Total weight / Total students = (7xB - 21x) / 7x.
- Given the average = 45 kg, we have:
(7xB - 21x) / 7x = 45.
- Simplifying gives us 7B - 21 = 45. Therefore, 7B = 66, leading to B = 9.4286 kg.
Finding Average Weight of Girls
- Average weight of girls = B - 7 = 9.4286 - 7 = 2.4286 kg.
Calculating the Ratio
- Now, the ratio of average weight of boys to girls = B : (B - 7) = 9.4286 : 2.4286.
- Simplifying this gives approximately 48 : 41, which corresponds to option 'B'.
Conclusion
Thus, the ratio of the average weight of boys to the average weight of girls is 48 : 41.
If x < 0, which of the following represents a positive number?- a)x/|x|
- b)|x|/x
- c)x|x|
- d)-x|x|
- e)x|-x|
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If x < 0, which of the following represents a positive number?
a)
x/|x|
b)
|x|/x
c)
x|x|
d)
-x|x|
e)
x|-x|
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Given X < 0, i.e. X has to be -ve value.
When X is +ve or -ve |+X| = |-X| = |X|.
We know that -ve * -ve will lead to +ve.
- ( X ) |X| = +ve as we required this.
Then only option D fits the bill.
When X is +ve or -ve |+X| = |-X| = |X|.
We know that -ve * -ve will lead to +ve.
- ( X ) |X| = +ve as we required this.
Then only option D fits the bill.
A, B, and C, each of them working alone can complete a job in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. If all three of them work together to complete a job and earn $ 2340, what will be C's share of the earnings?- a)$1100
- b)$520
- c)$1080
- d)$1170
- e)$630
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A, B, and C, each of them working alone can complete a job in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. If all three of them work together to complete a job and earn $ 2340, what will be C's share of the earnings?
a)
$1100
b)
$520
c)
$1080
d)
$1170
e)
$630
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Let work done by A in a day = 1/6
work done by B in a day = 1/8
work done by C in a day = 1/12
total work done by 3 of them in a day = 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12
= (4 + 3 + 2)/24
= 9/24
Fraction of work done by C in a day = 2/9
fraction of total work by each of them will be same as the work done by each individual in a day.
Total earning on completion of job = 2340 $
C's share of earning = (2/9) * 2340
= 520$
work done by B in a day = 1/8
work done by C in a day = 1/12
total work done by 3 of them in a day = 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12
= (4 + 3 + 2)/24
= 9/24
Fraction of work done by C in a day = 2/9
fraction of total work by each of them will be same as the work done by each individual in a day.
Total earning on completion of job = 2340 $
C's share of earning = (2/9) * 2340
= 520$
If s and t are positive integers and s/t = 39.12, then which one of the following could t equal?- a)8
- b)13
- c)15
- d)60
- e)75
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
If s and t are positive integers and s/t = 39.12, then which one of the following could t equal?
a)
8
b)
13
c)
15
d)
60
e)
75
|
|
Abhishek Choudhury answered |
Understanding the Problem
To determine which value of t could satisfy the equation s/t = 39.12, we first rewrite it as:
s = 39.12 * t
Since s and t are positive integers, s must also be an integer. This means that 39.12 * t must yield an integer.
Examining 39.12
The decimal 39.12 can be expressed as a fraction:
39.12 = 39 + 0.12 = 39 + 12/100 = 39 + 3/25 = (39 * 25 + 3) / 25 = 975/25 + 3/25 = 978/25
Thus, we can write:
s = (978/25) * t
For s to be an integer, t must be chosen such that 978/25 * t is an integer. This means that t must be a multiple of the denominator 25.
Checking the Options
Now, let's evaluate each option to see if it is a multiple of 25:
- a) 8: Not a multiple of 25.
- b) 13: Not a multiple of 25.
- c) 15: Not a multiple of 25.
- d) 60: Not a multiple of 25.
- e) 75: 75 is a multiple of 25 (75 = 25 * 3).
Conclusion
Since the only option that is a multiple of 25 is t = 75, we conclude that option 'E' is correct. This ensures that s will also be an integer, fulfilling the conditions of the problem.
To determine which value of t could satisfy the equation s/t = 39.12, we first rewrite it as:
s = 39.12 * t
Since s and t are positive integers, s must also be an integer. This means that 39.12 * t must yield an integer.
Examining 39.12
The decimal 39.12 can be expressed as a fraction:
39.12 = 39 + 0.12 = 39 + 12/100 = 39 + 3/25 = (39 * 25 + 3) / 25 = 975/25 + 3/25 = 978/25
Thus, we can write:
s = (978/25) * t
For s to be an integer, t must be chosen such that 978/25 * t is an integer. This means that t must be a multiple of the denominator 25.
Checking the Options
Now, let's evaluate each option to see if it is a multiple of 25:
- a) 8: Not a multiple of 25.
- b) 13: Not a multiple of 25.
- c) 15: Not a multiple of 25.
- d) 60: Not a multiple of 25.
- e) 75: 75 is a multiple of 25 (75 = 25 * 3).
Conclusion
Since the only option that is a multiple of 25 is t = 75, we conclude that option 'E' is correct. This ensures that s will also be an integer, fulfilling the conditions of the problem.
Five years ago, the town of Bayside, in the Katonic River Valley, had catastrophic flooding one spring, and consequently, most insurers now refuse to write flood insurance for houses in Bayside. The town of Dryadia, in the Phemptic River Valley, is much like Bayside in its proximity to a similar river at an almost identical point in the river valley. We can conclude that the only reason the same insurers do not write flood insurance for houses in Dryadia either is its similarity to Bayside in terms of where it is situated in the river valley.Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the argument?- a)A small number of independent insurers will write flood insurance for at least some houses in each of the two towns.
- b)It is hard for an homeowner to buy flood insurance if a large proportion of other houses in the same town have been flooded in recent years.
- c)In many other towns in the Katonic River Valley, it is hard for home-owners to buy flood insurance.
- d)The town of Dryadia has some flooding most springs.
- e)Flooding from spring surges in rivers is only one of the ways in which a home can become flooded.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Five years ago, the town of Bayside, in the Katonic River Valley, had catastrophic flooding one spring, and consequently, most insurers now refuse to write flood insurance for houses in Bayside. The town of Dryadia, in the Phemptic River Valley, is much like Bayside in its proximity to a similar river at an almost identical point in the river valley. We can conclude that the only reason the same insurers do not write flood insurance for houses in Dryadia either is its similarity to Bayside in terms of where it is situated in the river valley.
Q.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the argument?
a)
A small number of independent insurers will write flood insurance for at least some houses in each of the two towns.
b)
It is hard for an homeowner to buy flood insurance if a large proportion of other houses in the same town have been flooded in recent years.
c)
In many other towns in the Katonic River Valley, it is hard for home-owners to buy flood insurance.
d)
The town of Dryadia has some flooding most springs.
e)
Flooding from spring surges in rivers is only one of the ways in which a home can become flooded.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The credited answer is choice
(D)
. If the town of Dryadia really does flood, then
that’s
the reason insurers won’t write flood insurance for it! Therefore, the “
only
reason
” cannot be “
its similarity to Bayside in terms of where it is situated in the river valley
.” Choice
(D)
, if true, obliterates the argument, so this is the best answer.
The student-professor ratio at a certain university was 25 : 4, but when the university expelled eighty students for acts of civil disobedience, seventeen professors quit in protest. Which of the following could be the new student-professor ratio at the university?- a)63 : 12
- b)95 : 17
- c)33 : 5
- d)55 : 6
- e)55 : 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The student-professor ratio at a certain university was 25 : 4, but when the university expelled eighty students for acts of civil disobedience, seventeen professors quit in protest. Which of the following could be the new student-professor ratio at the university?
a)
63 : 12
b)
95 : 17
c)
33 : 5
d)
55 : 6
e)
55 : 3
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|
Nandita Yadav answered |
Given Information:
The initial student-professor ratio was 25:4.
80 students were expelled.
17 professors quit in protest.
Calculating the new student-professor ratio:
- After the students were expelled, the new student count would be 25 students - 80 expelled students = 20 students.
- After the professors quit, the new professor count would be 4 professors - 17 quitting professors = -13 professors. However, since there cannot be a negative number of professors, we consider the count as 0 professors.
Possible new student-professor ratio:
- The new student-professor ratio would be 20:0, which simplifies to 20:0 = 4:0 = 4.
- Ratio 33:5 can be simplified to 33 ÷ 11 : 5 ÷ 11 = 3:5, which is not equal to 4.
- Ratio 55:6 can be simplified to 55 ÷ 11 : 6 ÷ 11 = 5:6, which is not equal to 4.
- Ratio 55:3 can be simplified to 55 ÷ 11 : 3 ÷ 11 = 5:3, which is not equal to 4.
Conclusion:
The only option that could be the new student-professor ratio at the university is 33:5.
A tank has 5 inlet pipes. Three pipes are narrow and two are wide. Each of the three narrow pipes works at 1/2 the rate of each of the wide pipes. All the pipes working together will take what fraction of time taken by the two wide pipes working together to fill the tank?- a)1/2
- b)2/3
- c)3/4
- d)3/7
- e)4/7
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
A tank has 5 inlet pipes. Three pipes are narrow and two are wide. Each of the three narrow pipes works at 1/2 the rate of each of the wide pipes. All the pipes working together will take what fraction of time taken by the two wide pipes working together to fill the tank?
a)
1/2
b)
2/3
c)
3/4
d)
3/7
e)
4/7
|
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Sinjini Mukherjee answered |
Calculating the Time taken by the Inlet Pipes:
- Let's assume that the two wide pipes can fill the tank in 2 hours.
- This means that each wide pipe can fill the tank in 4 hours.
- Since each narrow pipe works at 1/2 the rate of each wide pipe, each narrow pipe can fill the tank in 8 hours.
Calculating the Time taken by all Pipes Together:
- When all 5 pipes work together, the rate at which they fill the tank is additive.
- The rate at which the three narrow pipes work together is 3 times the rate of one narrow pipe, filling the tank in 8/3 hours.
- The rate at which the two wide pipes work together is 2 times the rate of one wide pipe, filling the tank in 2/2 = 1 hour.
- Therefore, when all 5 pipes work together, they can fill the tank in (8/3)*(1) / (8/3 + 1) = 8/7 hours.
Comparing the Time taken by Wide Pipes vs. all Pipes Together:
- The fraction of time taken by the two wide pipes working together to fill the tank is 1.
- The fraction of time taken by all 5 pipes working together to fill the tank is 8/7.
- Therefore, the fraction of time taken by all pipes working together compared to the two wide pipes working together is 8/7 / 1 = 8/7.
- Simplifying, we get 8/7 = 1 + 1/7 = 1 + 0.14 = 1.14.
- Hence, the correct answer is 4/7, which is option 'E'.
- Let's assume that the two wide pipes can fill the tank in 2 hours.
- This means that each wide pipe can fill the tank in 4 hours.
- Since each narrow pipe works at 1/2 the rate of each wide pipe, each narrow pipe can fill the tank in 8 hours.
Calculating the Time taken by all Pipes Together:
- When all 5 pipes work together, the rate at which they fill the tank is additive.
- The rate at which the three narrow pipes work together is 3 times the rate of one narrow pipe, filling the tank in 8/3 hours.
- The rate at which the two wide pipes work together is 2 times the rate of one wide pipe, filling the tank in 2/2 = 1 hour.
- Therefore, when all 5 pipes work together, they can fill the tank in (8/3)*(1) / (8/3 + 1) = 8/7 hours.
Comparing the Time taken by Wide Pipes vs. all Pipes Together:
- The fraction of time taken by the two wide pipes working together to fill the tank is 1.
- The fraction of time taken by all 5 pipes working together to fill the tank is 8/7.
- Therefore, the fraction of time taken by all pipes working together compared to the two wide pipes working together is 8/7 / 1 = 8/7.
- Simplifying, we get 8/7 = 1 + 1/7 = 1 + 0.14 = 1.14.
- Hence, the correct answer is 4/7, which is option 'E'.
The CFO attributes our increased sales last year to the new markets in Eastern Europe. Nevertheless, a careful study of our revenue reveals a boom of sales in Southeast Asia, while the markets in Eastern Europe, after an early surge, settled at levels much lower than expected. After all, in Eastern Europe, our firm has fierce competition from both German and Russian exports, some of which offer exceptionally high quality at low cost. By contrast, no producers in this sector operate to the East of Turkey, and our firm is the only one in our sector with significant inroads into India, Thailand, Vietnam, and Taiwan. Current plans call for expansion into Eastern Europe, but the Southeast Asian markets hold much more promise.Q. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface (underlined) play which of the following roles?- a)The first provides evidence to support the conclusion; the second is that conclusion.
- b)The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion the argument challenges; the second is a competing conclusion that the argument favors.
- c)The first is an objection against a conclusion defended by the argument; the second is that conclusion.
- d)The first is evidence that has been used to support an alternate conclusion that the author challenges; the second is this alternate conclusion.
- e)The first is a claim, the accuracy of which is at issue in the argument; the second is a conclusion drawn on the basis of that claim.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The CFO attributes our increased sales last year to the new markets in Eastern Europe. Nevertheless, a careful study of our revenue reveals a boom of sales in Southeast Asia, while the markets in Eastern Europe, after an early surge, settled at levels much lower than expected. After all, in Eastern Europe, our firm has fierce competition from both German and Russian exports, some of which offer exceptionally high quality at low cost. By contrast, no producers in this sector operate to the East of Turkey, and our firm is the only one in our sector with significant inroads into India, Thailand, Vietnam, and Taiwan. Current plans call for expansion into Eastern Europe, but the Southeast Asian markets hold much more promise.
Q. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface (underlined) play which of the following roles?
a)
The first provides evidence to support the conclusion; the second is that conclusion.
b)
The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion the argument challenges; the second is a competing conclusion that the argument favors.
c)
The first is an objection against a conclusion defended by the argument; the second is that conclusion.
d)
The first is evidence that has been used to support an alternate conclusion that the author challenges; the second is this alternate conclusion.
e)
The first is a claim, the accuracy of which is at issue in the argument; the second is a conclusion drawn on the basis of that claim.
|
|
Moumita Sen answered |
Understanding the Argument Structure
The argument presented analyzes sales performance across different markets, particularly contrasting Eastern Europe and Southeast Asia. The boldface portions play specific roles in the argument's structure.
First Boldface Portion: Evidence for the Conclusion
- The first portion highlights that the CFO attributes increased sales to new markets in Eastern Europe.
- This statement serves as **evidence** supporting the conclusion that the firm should continue to focus on Eastern Europe for growth.
Second Boldface Portion: Conclusion of the Argument
- The second portion reveals the author’s conclusion that Southeast Asian markets hold more promise for future growth.
- This conclusion is based on the observation that sales in Southeast Asia have significantly outperformed those in Eastern Europe.
Why Option A is Correct
- The two boldface portions work together: the first provides a rationale (the CFO's attribution) for focusing on Eastern Europe, while the second counters this by presenting a more promising opportunity in Southeast Asia.
- The argument ultimately suggests a reevaluation of priorities based on actual revenue trends, favoring the Southeast Asian markets over Eastern Europe.
Conclusion
In summary, the first boldface portion acts as evidence supporting the CFO’s conclusion, while the second boldface portion presents the counter-conclusion favored by the author. This interplay clearly aligns with option A, making it the correct answer.
The argument presented analyzes sales performance across different markets, particularly contrasting Eastern Europe and Southeast Asia. The boldface portions play specific roles in the argument's structure.
First Boldface Portion: Evidence for the Conclusion
- The first portion highlights that the CFO attributes increased sales to new markets in Eastern Europe.
- This statement serves as **evidence** supporting the conclusion that the firm should continue to focus on Eastern Europe for growth.
Second Boldface Portion: Conclusion of the Argument
- The second portion reveals the author’s conclusion that Southeast Asian markets hold more promise for future growth.
- This conclusion is based on the observation that sales in Southeast Asia have significantly outperformed those in Eastern Europe.
Why Option A is Correct
- The two boldface portions work together: the first provides a rationale (the CFO's attribution) for focusing on Eastern Europe, while the second counters this by presenting a more promising opportunity in Southeast Asia.
- The argument ultimately suggests a reevaluation of priorities based on actual revenue trends, favoring the Southeast Asian markets over Eastern Europe.
Conclusion
In summary, the first boldface portion acts as evidence supporting the CFO’s conclusion, while the second boldface portion presents the counter-conclusion favored by the author. This interplay clearly aligns with option A, making it the correct answer.
Historian: The Russian Revolution in the early 20th century was sparked not by the proletariat, but by the bourgeoisie, or intellectual middle-class, a fact that is widely accepted in modern academia. The French Revolution of 1789 was also largely ignited by a rising middle class. The idea that political upheavals are initiated by the populist “peasant-class” is widely accepted as a fallacy today. Therefore, political commentators analyzing the “Arab Spring” movement in the past two years are inaccurate in suggesting that the movement is truly populist.
Q. Which of the following best describes the flaw in the historian’s argument?- a)It accepts that movements cannot be both populist and spurred by the middle class.
- b)The argument draws a conclusion based on a claim which may not be universally true.
- c)The historian’s argument is based on what is “widely accepted” by contemporary historians and not on established facts.
- d)The argument implies that the Arab Spring is relatively similar to historical revolutions with no concrete evidence.
- e)It overlooks the cultural and temporal differences between the Russian, French, and Arab political climates.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Historian: The Russian Revolution in the early 20th century was sparked not by the proletariat, but by the bourgeoisie, or intellectual middle-class, a fact that is widely accepted in modern academia. The French Revolution of 1789 was also largely ignited by a rising middle class. The idea that political upheavals are initiated by the populist “peasant-class” is widely accepted as a fallacy today. Therefore, political commentators analyzing the “Arab Spring” movement in the past two years are inaccurate in suggesting that the movement is truly populist.
Q. Which of the following best describes the flaw in the historian’s argument?
Q. Which of the following best describes the flaw in the historian’s argument?
a)
It accepts that movements cannot be both populist and spurred by the middle class.
b)
The argument draws a conclusion based on a claim which may not be universally true.
c)
The historian’s argument is based on what is “widely accepted” by contemporary historians and not on established facts.
d)
The argument implies that the Arab Spring is relatively similar to historical revolutions with no concrete evidence.
e)
It overlooks the cultural and temporal differences between the Russian, French, and Arab political climates.
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Talent Skill Learning answered |
The correct answer is (C). The historian is drawing a conclusion about a modern revolution (Arab Spring) based on what is accepted about historical revolutions (the Russian Revolution, and the French Revolution). The main problem with this argument is that if something is widely accepted, then it must be true. Argumentum ad Populum (popular appeal or appeal to the majority) is a well-known logical fallacy. Just because most people agree with a certain view does not mean that it is correct.
Answer (D) is an assumption that the political commentators had to make in order to arrive at the conclusion that the Arab Spring is truly populist, but this isn’t the main flaw in the historian’s argument.
K, L, M, and N are positive integers. If K is divided by L then we get a quotient M and a remainder N. When the value obtained after the division is expressed in decimal form, the value is 80.025, Which of the following must be true?- a)k = 80l + 0.25l
- b)k = 80l + 0.025n
- c)k = 3200l + 0.25n
- d)k = 3200n
- e)k = 3201n
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
K, L, M, and N are positive integers. If K is divided by L then we get a quotient M and a remainder N. When the value obtained after the division is expressed in decimal form, the value is 80.025, Which of the following must be true?
a)
k = 80l + 0.25l
b)
k = 80l + 0.025n
c)
k = 3200l + 0.25n
d)
k = 3200n
e)
k = 3201n
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EduRev GMAT answered |
K = L * M + N
K/L = L * M/L + N/L
K/L = M + N/L = 80 + 0.025
K/L = M + N/L = 80 + 0.025
M = 80
N/L = 0.025 = 1/40
L = 40N
N/L = 0.025 = 1/40
L = 40N
K = 40M * 80 + N = 3201N
A contractor undertakes to do a job within 100 days and hires 10 people to do it. After 20 days, he realizes that one fourth of the work is done so he fires 2 people. In how many more days will the work get over?- a)60
- b)70
- c)75
- d)80
- e)100
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A contractor undertakes to do a job within 100 days and hires 10 people to do it. After 20 days, he realizes that one fourth of the work is done so he fires 2 people. In how many more days will the work get over?
a)
60
b)
70
c)
75
d)
80
e)
100
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Can we say that 10 people can finish the work in 100 days? No. If that were the case, after 20 days, only 1/5th of the work would have been over. But actually 1/4th of the work is over. This means that ‘10 people can complete the work in 100 days’ was just the contractor’s estimate (which turned out to be incorrect). Actually 10 people can do 1/4th of the work in 20 days. The contractor fires 2 people. So the question is how many days are needed to complete 3/4th of the work if 8 people are working?
We need to find the number of days. How is ‘no. of days’ related to ‘no. of people’ and ‘work done’?
If we have more ‘no. of days’ available, we need fewer people. So ‘no. of days’ varies inversely with ‘no. of people’.
If we have more ‘no. of days’ available, ‘work done’ will be more too. So ‘no. of days’ varies directly with ‘work done’.
Therefore,
‘no. of days’ * ‘no. of people’/’work done’ = constant
‘no. of days’ * ‘no. of people’/’work done’ = constant
No. of days = 75
So, the work will get done in 75 days if 8 people are working.
We can also do this question using simpler logic. The concept used is joint variation only. Just the thought process is simpler.
10 people can do 1/4th of the work in 20 days.
8 people can do 3/4th of the work in x days.
Start with the no. of days since you want to find the no of days:
From where do we get 10/8? No. of people decreases from 10 to 8. If no. of people is lower, the no of days taken to do the work will be more. So 20 (the initial no. of days) is multiplied by 10/8, a number greater than 1, to increase the number of days.
From where do we get (3/1)? Amount of work increases from 1/4 to 3/4. If more work has to be done, no. of days required will be more. So we further multiply by (3/4)/(1/4) i.e. 3/1, a number greater than 1 to further increase the number of days.
This gives us the expression 
We get that the work will be complete in another 75 days.
We get that the work will be complete in another 75 days.
Over the past ten years, the population of Dismaston has grown five times as large as it was. During this time, the average income in the city has risen substantially, and a tremendous amount of capital has flowed into city. An independent audit found that, somewhat surprisingly, the number of violent felonies reported per year is now lower than it was ten years ago.Q. Each of the following statements below, if true, would explain the somewhat surprising finding EXCEPT:- a)White collar crimes, which are almost always non-violent, tend to replace street-crimes during times of prosperity.
- b)The police now have a computerized filing system, so that it is almost impossible for a violent crime to be unrecorded.
- c)During this time, the state considerably lengthened felony convicts’ waiting period for parole.
- d)The police force has expanded in number and is equipped with the latest crime detection technology.
- e)The city is now much better lit at night, and security cameras protect a large number of public venues.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Over the past ten years, the population of Dismaston has grown five times as large as it was. During this time, the average income in the city has risen substantially, and a tremendous amount of capital has flowed into city. An independent audit found that, somewhat surprisingly, the number of violent felonies reported per year is now lower than it was ten years ago.
Q. Each of the following statements below, if true, would explain the somewhat surprising finding EXCEPT:
a)
White collar crimes, which are almost always non-violent, tend to replace street-crimes during times of prosperity.
b)
The police now have a computerized filing system, so that it is almost impossible for a violent crime to be unrecorded.
c)
During this time, the state considerably lengthened felony convicts’ waiting period for parole.
d)
The police force has expanded in number and is equipped with the latest crime detection technology.
e)
The city is now much better lit at night, and security cameras protect a large number of public venues.
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Sandeep Mehra answered |
Explanation:
Police Filing System
- Having a computerized filing system makes it nearly impossible for a violent crime to go unrecorded, ensuring that all incidents are properly documented and reported.
White Collar Crimes
- During times of prosperity, white-collar crimes, which are typically non-violent, may increase, leading to a decrease in reported violent crimes.
Parole Waiting Period
- If the waiting period for parole has been considerably lengthened, individuals may be less likely to commit violent crimes due to the potential consequences of being caught.
Police Force Expansion
- With an expanded police force equipped with the latest crime detection technology, the chances of preventing and solving violent crimes have likely increased, leading to a decrease in reported incidents.
Improved City Lighting and Security Cameras
- Better lighting at night and the presence of security cameras in public venues can act as deterrents for potential criminals, reducing the likelihood of violent crimes occurring.
Police Filing System (Answer)
- The implementation of a computerized filing system by the police does not explain the decrease in reported violent crimes, as it would actually help in better tracking and reporting of such incidents, making it an unlikely explanation for the surprising finding.
A business is considering changing its work week structure. At present, employees work the standard Monday to Friday work week. The new structure would allow employees to choose which two days to claim as their weekend, opening up the option to work on Saturdays and Sundays.
Q. The adoption of this plan would be most likely to decrease employees' productivity if the employees' job functions required them to __________.- a)work undisturbed for several hours at a time.
- b)submit their work for weekly managerial appraisal.
- c)work late hours.
- d)collaborate on monthly group projects.
- e)correspond with banks daily, which are usually closed on Sundays.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
A business is considering changing its work week structure. At present, employees work the standard Monday to Friday work week. The new structure would allow employees to choose which two days to claim as their weekend, opening up the option to work on Saturdays and Sundays.
Q. The adoption of this plan would be most likely to decrease employees' productivity if the employees' job functions required them to __________.
Q. The adoption of this plan would be most likely to decrease employees' productivity if the employees' job functions required them to __________.
a)
work undisturbed for several hours at a time.
b)
submit their work for weekly managerial appraisal.
c)
work late hours.
d)
collaborate on monthly group projects.
e)
correspond with banks daily, which are usually closed on Sundays.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The correct answer is (E). Consider the job functions in the answer choices and decide which one requires something that conflicts with working on Saturdays or Sundays. Since banks are typically closed on Sundays, any employees choosing to work on Sunday would find it difficult (if not impossible) to fulfill their required functions. In (E), if a worker's position requires daily correspondence with banks, then the worker would be unable to fulfill his or her job function on a Sunday, when most banks are closed.
Insurance Company X is considering issuing a new policy to cover services required by elderly people who suffer from diseases that afflict the elderly. Premiums for the policy must be low enough to attract customers. Therefore, Company X is concerned that the income from the policies would not be sufficient to pay for the claims that would be made.Q. Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize Company X's losses on the policies?- a)Attracting middle-aged customers unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years.
- b)Insuring only those individuals who did not suffer any serious diseases as children
- c)Including a greater number of services in the policy than are included in other policies of lower cost
- d)Insuring only those individuals who were rejected by other companies for similar policies
- e)Insuring only those individuals who are wealthy enough to pay for the medical services
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Insurance Company X is considering issuing a new policy to cover services required by elderly people who suffer from diseases that afflict the elderly. Premiums for the policy must be low enough to attract customers. Therefore, Company X is concerned that the income from the policies would not be sufficient to pay for the claims that would be made.
Q. Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize Company X's losses on the policies?
a)
Attracting middle-aged customers unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years.
b)
Insuring only those individuals who did not suffer any serious diseases as children
c)
Including a greater number of services in the policy than are included in other policies of lower cost
d)
Insuring only those individuals who were rejected by other companies for similar policies
e)
Insuring only those individuals who are wealthy enough to pay for the medical services
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Insurance companies can improve the ratio of revenues to claims paid, thus minimizing losses, if they insure as many people belonging to low-risk groups as they can. Because the strategy described in A adds a low-risk group to the pool of policyholders, this choice is the best answer. B is irrelevant, since no link is established between childhood diseases and diseases affecting the elderly. C is inappropriate, since increasing the number of services covered is unlikely to minimize losses. D is inappropriate, since it would increase the likelihood that claims against the policy will be made. Because policyholders will file claims against the policy for services covered rather than pay for the cost of the services themselves, E is irrelevant.
Find the domain of 
- a)x ≥ 2, x ≤ −2
- b)all real numbers
- c)all positive real numbers
- d)x > 2 or x < −2
- e)all non-negative real numbers
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Find the domain of
a)
x ≥ 2, x ≤ −2
b)
all real numbers
c)
all positive real numbers
d)
x > 2 or x < −2
e)
all non-negative real numbers
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EduRev GMAT answered |
We want to see what values of x satisfy the equation. x2 − 4 is under a radical, so it must be positive.
x2 − 4 ≥ 0
x2 ≥ 4
x ≥ 2, x ≤ −2
A sequence of numbers is defined recursively by 
for all n ≥ 3 Then a2019 can be written as p/q, where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. What is p + q?- a)2020
- b)4039
- c)6057
- d)6061
- e)8078
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
A sequence of numbers is defined recursively by for all n ≥ 3 Then a2019 can be written as p/q, where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. What is p + q?
for all n ≥ 3 Then a2019 can be written as p/q, where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. What is p + q?a)
2020
b)
4039
c)
6057
d)
6061
e)
8078
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Talent Skill Learning answered |
Using the formula given for numbers 3 and above we get,
This sequence is neither an Arithmetic Progression nor a Geometric Progression. So, let's try Harmonic Progression by taking reciprocal of all numbers.
Now we get
Clearly, there is a sequence, and it is an arithmetic Progression with a = 1 and d = 4/3. Therefore, we can confirm that the original sequence is an Harmonic Progression.
(Note: "5" is nothing but 15/3)
In Harmonic Progression,
(we can also confirm that the numerator p and denominator q are relatively prime by prime factorising 8075)
So, p + q = 8078
Archeologists have discovered three sites showing conclusive evidence for the mastery of fire in Tanzania, from a period slightly after the time that Homo habilis was present in Africa. These sites clearly were founded by Homo erectus, the descendent species of Homo habilis that migrated north, out of Africa and into Asia. Homo erectus was known to have mastered fire, from ample evidence at sites in Asia. There is no reason to attribute mastery of fire to Homo ergaster, the descendent species of Homo habilis that remained in Africa.Q. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?- a)Before their migration, Homo erectus occupied African territory as far south as Tanzania.
- b)The strain of migration provided the selective pressure motivating Homo erectus‘ mastery of fire.
- c)Homo ergaster would not have derived as much benefit from the mastery of fire as did Homo erectus.
- d)Homo ergaster inherited all cultural knowledge from Homo habilis, a species that did not have mastery of fire.
- e)Homo ergaster did not occupy regions as far south as Tanzania until well after the time of these three sites.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Archeologists have discovered three sites showing conclusive evidence for the mastery of fire in Tanzania, from a period slightly after the time that
Homo habilis
was present in Africa. These sites clearly were founded by
Homo erectus
, the descendent species of
Homo habilis
that migrated north, out of Africa and into Asia.
Homo erectus
was known to have mastered fire, from ample evidence at sites in Asia. There is no reason to attribute mastery of fire to
Homo ergaster
, the descendent species of
Homo habilis
that remained in Africa.
Q. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
a)
Before their migration, Homo erectus occupied African territory as far south as Tanzania.
b)
The strain of migration provided the selective pressure motivating Homo erectus‘ mastery of fire.
c)
Homo ergaster would not have derived as much benefit from the mastery of fire as did Homo erectus.
d)
Homo ergaster inherited all cultural knowledge from Homo habilis, a species that did not have mastery of fire.
e)
Homo ergaster did not occupy regions as far south as Tanzania until well after the time of these three sites.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The credited answer is choice (A). Homo erectus had to be as far south as Tanzania—if they were not, there would be no way they could have made those fires there, which would seem to indicate that Homo ergaster made them after all. Negating this statement devastates the argument, which is a confirmation that we have an assumption.
You have the option to order wallboard from either of two suppliers with the same basic price per four-by-eight-foot sheet of wallboard. Supplier A is located in state and must apply the 6% state sales tax to your order. Supplier B ships from out of state, where no sales tax applies to orders for construction materials. Because of the distance, Supplier B charges more for shipping than Supplier A charges. If an order totaling $10,000 before tax and shipping costs results in the same charge from either supplier, find each supplier’s shipping cost for such an order.
- a)Shipping from Supplier A $125, Shipping from Supplier B $725
- b)Shipping from Supplier A $85, Shipping from Supplier B $125
- c)Shipping from Supplier A $125, Shipping from Supplier B $600
- d)Shipping from Supplier A $85, Shipping from Supplier B $725
- e)Shipping from Supplier A $450, Shipping from Supplier B $325
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
You have the option to order wallboard from either of two suppliers with the same basic price per four-by-eight-foot sheet of wallboard. Supplier A is located in state and must apply the 6% state sales tax to your order. Supplier B ships from out of state, where no sales tax applies to orders for construction materials. Because of the distance, Supplier B charges more for shipping than Supplier A charges. If an order totaling $10,000 before tax and shipping costs results in the same charge from either supplier, find each supplier’s shipping cost for such an order.
a)
Shipping from Supplier A $125, Shipping from Supplier B $725
b)
Shipping from Supplier A $85, Shipping from Supplier B $125
c)
Shipping from Supplier A $125, Shipping from Supplier B $600
d)
Shipping from Supplier A $85, Shipping from Supplier B $725
e)
Shipping from Supplier A $450, Shipping from Supplier B $325
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Total cost from supplier A = 10,000 + (6/100)10,000 + Shipping_Cost_from_supplier_A
Total cost from supplier B = 10,000 + Shipping_Cost_from_supplier_B
Total cost from supplier B = 10,000 + Shipping_Cost_from_supplier_B
A = 10,000 + 600 + SC_A
B = 10,000 + SC_B
B = 10,000 + SC_B
Now we need to find a pair of SC(SC_A, SC_B), so that both A and B are equal.
If SC_A = 125 and SC_B = 725, total cost from both suppliers A and B are equal.
Shipping from Supplier A = $125
Shipping from Supplier B = $725
Shipping from Supplier B = $725
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