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All questions of March 2025 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The recent success of Firefly Aerospace's Blue Ghost Mission 1 represents the second successful private lunar landing.
Statement-II:
42 Indian cities rank among the 50 most polluted cities in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered

Statement-I is accurate as the passage mentions the recent success of Firefly Aerospace's Blue Ghost Mission 1, marking it as the second successful private lunar landing. Statement-II is also correct, as per the details provided in the passage about the challenges faced by Indian cities in terms of pollution and urban infrastructure. However, there is no direct correlation or explanation between the two statements. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b), where both statements are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
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Consider the following statements regarding the Future Circular Collider (FCC):
1. The Future Circular Collider (FCC) aims to achieve unprecedented particle collision energies and is expected to generate Higgs bosons in large quantities by the year 2040.
2. The project is estimated to cost $30 billion and will feature a 91 km circular tunnel located beneath the Swiss-French border.
3. Plasma wave technology is one of the key components of the FCC, designed to accelerate particles using a compact design.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered

- Statement 1 is correct. The Future Circular Collider (FCC) indeed aims to achieve unprecedented particle collision energies and plans to generate Higgs bosons in large quantities by around 2040. This is one of the primary objectives of the FCC project as it seeks to push the boundaries of particle physics research.
- Statement 2 is correct. The project is estimated to cost $30 billion and will feature a 91 km circular tunnel located beneath the Swiss-French border. These details are part of the core specifications of the FCC as proposed by CERN.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Plasma wave technology is not a component of the FCC. Instead, it is mentioned as an alternative proposal to the FCC. Plasma wave technology is considered a potential future method for particle acceleration, offering a more compact design, but it is not part of the current FCC project plans.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs related to Mission Amrit Sarovar and Quantum Hubs:
1. Amrit Sarovar Pondage Area - 2 acres
2. Quantum Computing Hub - IIT Bombay
3. Technical Partner for Mission Amrit Sarovar - BISAG-N
4. Management Coordinating Center for Quantum Hubs - IIT Kanpur
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Amrit Sarovar Pondage Area - 2 acres: This is incorrectly matched. According to the mission, each Amrit Sarovar will cover a pondage area of at least 1 acre.
2. Quantum Computing Hub - IIT Bombay: This is incorrectly matched. The Quantum Computing Hub is located at IISc Bengaluru, not IIT Bombay. IIT Bombay is the location for the Quantum Communication Hub.
3. Technical Partner for Mission Amrit Sarovar - BISAG-N: This is correctly matched. The Bhaskar Acharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) is the technical partner overseeing the mission's implementation.
4. Management Coordinating Center for Quantum Hubs - IIT Kanpur: This is correctly matched. IIT Kanpur serves as the management coordinating center, overseeing administration and funding allocation for the Quantum Hubs.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 3 and 4.

Consider the following pairs regarding India's involvement with IORA and the Arctic:
1. IORA's Budget - Mainly funded by developed member states
2. Northern Sea Route - A focus for India-Russia collaboration to improve shipping efficiency
3. India's Arctic Policy - Launched in 2022
4. Himadri - India's research base in the Antarctic
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
1. IORA's Budget - Mainly funded by developed member states: Incorrect. IORA's budget is primarily reliant on contributions from its mostly developing member states, not developed ones. This reliance often leads to financial constraints.
2. Northern Sea Route - A focus for India-Russia collaboration to improve shipping efficiency: Correct. India and Russia are indeed collaborating to enhance the Northern Sea Route for better shipping efficiency, aiming to reduce costs and improve connectivity.
3. India's Arctic Policy - Launched in 2022: Correct. India's Arctic Policy was indeed launched in 2022 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, outlining various sectors of engagement including science, economic development, and international cooperation.
4. Himadri - India's research base in the Antarctic: Incorrect. Himadri is India's research base in the Arctic, not the Antarctic. It was established in 2008 to conduct research on various scientific aspects in the Arctic region.
Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding electoral reforms in India:
1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) has the constitutional authority to enforce the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) and can impose penalties on political parties for violations.
2. The Supreme Court of India mandated the verification of 5% of EVMs with VVPAT in each constituency to ensure electoral integrity.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions to regulate the election spending of individual candidates but not political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Statement 1: The Election Commission of India (ECI) indeed enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), but it does not have the authority to impose penalties on political parties for violations. The MCC is a set of guidelines for the conduct of political parties and candidates, but enforcement relies on moral and political pressure rather than legal penalties. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Statement 2: The Supreme Court of India did indeed mandate the verification of 5% of EVMs with VVPAT (Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail) in each constituency to ensure the integrity of the electoral process. This decision was aimed at increasing transparency and trust in the electoral process. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
3. Statement 3: The Representation of the People Act, 1951, contains provisions that regulate spending by individual candidates during elections but does not impose limits on the spending of political parties. This is a significant gap in the regulatory framework concerning election expenditures. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
Given the analysis, Statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option C the right answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA) - Recognized as a terrorist organization by India
2. Majeed Brigade - Suicide squad of the BLA
3. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) - Primarily benefits the Sindh province
4. PM SHRI Scheme - Aims to upgrade 14,500 schools as model institutions
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Balochistan Liberation Army (BLA) - Recognized as a terrorist organization by India This pair is incorrectly matched. The BLA is recognized as a terrorist organization by Pakistan and the United States, but not by India.
2. Majeed Brigade - Suicide squad of the BLA This pair is correctly matched. The Majeed Brigade is indeed a suicide squad within the BLA, involved in various attacks including the recent hijacking.
3. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) - Primarily benefits the Sindh province This pair is incorrectly matched. The CPEC is a major infrastructure project that aims to boost the economy of Pakistan as a whole, but it is often criticized for primarily benefiting the Punjab province, not Sindh.
4. PM SHRI Scheme - Aims to upgrade 14,500 schools as model institutions This pair is correctly matched. The PM SHRI Scheme indeed aims to upgrade 14,500 schools across India to serve as model institutions under the National Education Policy 2020.
Pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs related to Planetary Alignments:
1. Conjunction: Three or more planets appear close together in the sky.
2. Small Alignment: Two planets align in a visible line.
3. Large Alignment: Four or more planets appear aligned from Earth's perspective.
4. Full Alignment: All eight planets line up, which is very rare.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Conjunction: Incorrect. A conjunction typically refers to two or more planets appearing close together in the sky, not necessarily three or more. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
2. Small Alignment: Incorrect. A small alignment usually involves three planets aligning visibly, rather than two. Thus, this pair is incorrectly matched.
3. Large Alignment: Correct. A large alignment involves four or more planets appearing aligned from Earth's perspective. This pair is correctly matched.
4. Full Alignment: Correct. A full alignment involves all eight planets lining up, which is indeed very rare. This pair is correctly matched.
The correctly matched pairs are Large Alignment and Full Alignment. Hence, only two pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary issue highlighted in the news concerning the Himalayan region?
  • a)
    Lack of infrastructure in high-altitude regions
  • b)
    Challenges faced during rescue operations in mountainous areas
  • c)
    Impact of climate change on Himalayan ecosystems
  • d)
    Geological instability in the Himalayan states
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
The news article focuses on the challenges faced during rescue operations in high-altitude regions prone to natural disasters, particularly avalanches. The primary issue highlighted is the difficulties encountered by rescue teams in harsh weather conditions and blocked access routes, emphasizing the complexities of conducting operations in mountainous areas prone to avalanches.This question assesses the understanding of the challenges faced by rescue teams in the Himalayan region and the critical nature of their operations in such environments.

What recent trend has been observed in India regarding gold and its implications?
  • a)
    Shift towards silver as the preferred precious metal
  • b)
    Complete ban on gold imports by the government
  • c)
    Decrease in gold prices leading to reduced consumption
  • d)
    Increase in gold smuggling due to rising global gold prices
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
India has recently witnessed a significant rise in gold smuggling, primarily driven by increasing global gold prices. This situation reflects the growing demand for gold within the nation, making it an attractive target for smugglers. The Indian government has been implementing various policies to curb gold imports in an effort to manage the trade balance and reduce reliance on foreign gold sources. Interestingly, India remains the second-largest gold consumer in the world, following China, highlighting the cultural and economic importance of gold in Indian society.

Consider the following statements regarding the efforts to address highway black spots in India:
1. The Parliamentary Standing Committee has proposed a two-tier action plan to rectify highway black spots.
2. Black spots are identified based on the frequency of severe accidents over a period of three consecutive years.
3. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways aims to eliminate all black spots by the fiscal year 2026-27.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Parliamentary Standing Committee has proposed a three-tier action plan (not two-tier) to rectify highway black spots. This plan categorizes black spots based on the severity of the issue, the complexity of fixes required, and population exposure.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Black spots are indeed identified based on the frequency of severe accidents recorded over three consecutive years. This criterion helps in pinpointing the most hazardous segments of national highways that need urgent attention.
- Statement 3: This statement is also correct. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has set a targeted goal to eliminate all black spots by the fiscal year 2027-28. This is part of their broader aim to reduce road fatalities significantly by 2028.
Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Which of the following states were initially granted Special Category Status based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission?
  • a)
    Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland
  • b)
    Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Uttarakhand
  • c)
    Telangana, Rajasthan, Punjab
  • d)
    Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
The Special Category Status was initially granted to Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, and Nagaland based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. This status was provided to states facing unique challenges such as geographical, socio-economic, and infrastructural difficulties, allowing them to receive special financial aid for development. These states were recognized for their exceptional circumstances that warranted special assistance for their growth and progress.

What is one of the significant challenges faced by women in STEM fields as highlighted in the provided content?
  • a)
    Limited access to quality education
  • b)
    High salary prospects compared to their male counterparts
  • c)
    Equal representation in leadership positions
  • d)
    Overwhelming support from institutional barriers
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
Women in STEM fields often face limited access to quality education, which acts as a significant hurdle in their pursuit of careers in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics. This lack of access to quality education can deter girls from pursuing science-related careers and hinder their progress in STEM fields. Addressing this challenge is crucial in fostering a more inclusive and equitable scientific community.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The discovery of white hydrogen in the Moselle region of France challenges the notion that hydrogen must be artificially produced.
Statement-II:
Green hydrogen is generated through the electrolysis of water and is the most sustainable form of hydrogen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Statement-I correctly mentions the discovery of white hydrogen in the Moselle region of France challenging the conventional belief that hydrogen must be artificially produced. Statement-II correctly describes green hydrogen as being generated through the electrolysis of water and being the most sustainable form of hydrogen. However, Statement-II does not provide an explanation or clarification regarding Statement-I, making option (b) the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Delimitation Exercise in Jammu and Kashmir: Increased seats in Kashmir more than in Jammu
2. Rajya Sabha Representation Proposal: Redistributing seats to ensure fair representation across geographic zones
3. Communal Polarization Risk: Redistricting could increase tensions and shift voting patterns
4. Freebies Debate: Vice-President supports direct benefit transfers (DBT) to enhance efficiency
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
1. Delimitation Exercise in Jammu and Kashmir: Incorrectly matched. The delimitation in Jammu and Kashmir added more seats to Jammu than to Kashmir, not the other way around. This raised concerns about communal bias in redistricting.
2. Rajya Sabha Representation Proposal: Correctly matched. The proposal suggests redistributing Rajya Sabha seats to ensure fair representation across geographic zones, which could enhance cooperative federalism.
3. Communal Polarization Risk: Correctly matched. The redistricting process could indeed increase tensions and shift voting patterns, as highlighted by the risks of communal polarization in the delimitation exercises.
4. Freebies Debate: Correctly matched. The Vice-President supports the concept of direct benefit transfers (DBT) for welfare schemes to enhance efficiency and reduce corruption.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Pratibimb Module is a Geographic Information System (GIS)-based software launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to aid enforcement agencies in mapping cybercriminals in real-time.
Statement-II:
The Samanvaya Platform, launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs, facilitates coordination among law enforcement agencies (LEAs) for cybercrime data sharing and analytics, focusing on interstate linkages of cybercrime complaints.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I accurately describes the Pratibimb Module as a GIS-based software launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to assist enforcement agencies in real-time mapping of cybercriminals. Statement-II correctly mentions the Samanvaya Platform's purpose in facilitating coordination among law enforcement agencies for cybercrime data sharing and analytics. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or elaborate on Statement-I; hence, Option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
La Niña is characterized by the cooling of surface-ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America.
Statement-II:
Mauritius is located in the Indian Ocean, east of Madagascar, and is considered part of Africa geographically.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I is correct in describing La Niña as the cooling of surface-ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America, which is a characteristic feature of this phenomenon. Statement-II correctly describes the geographical location of Mauritius in the Indian Ocean, east of Madagascar, and its classification as part of Africa geographically. However, there is no direct connection or explanatory link between the two statements. They represent distinct topics - La Niña and the geography of Mauritius - without one statement explaining the other. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Tuberculosis (TB) spreads through airborne particles released when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
Statement-II:
Active TB is a type of tuberculosis where the immune system cannot control the infection, allowing it to spread.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I is accurate as Tuberculosis (TB) does spread through airborne particles released when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Statement-II is also correct as Active TB is indeed a type of tuberculosis where the immune system cannot control the infection, allowing it to spread. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains how TB spreads, supporting Statement-I.

What is the primary focus of the North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) in India?
  • a)
    Promoting traditional farming methods
  • b)
    Providing telecommunication services
  • c)
    Applying advanced technologies for regional development
  • d)
    Conducting medical research
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) in India primarily focuses on applying advanced technologies to support development in the northeastern region of the country. By leveraging cutting-edge solutions, NECTAR aims to address various sectors such as biodiversity concerns, watershed management, telemedicine, horticulture, infrastructure planning and development, as well as planning and monitoring. This initiative is crucial for utilizing technology to enhance sustainable development and community advancement in the northeastern states of India.

What is the primary focus of the 'UN80 Initiative' introduced by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres?
  • a)
    Enhancing global security measures
  • b)
    Addressing liquidity crisis and resource constraints
  • c)
    Promoting cultural exchanges among member states
  • d)
    Expanding the UN's military capabilities
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The 'UN80 Initiative' spearheaded by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres primarily aims to tackle pressing issues such as liquidity crisis and resource constraints faced by the United Nations. This reform program is geared towards enhancing the efficiency and responsiveness of the UN by identifying operational inefficiencies and improving the implementation of mandates from member states. It focuses on optimizing operations, reviewing mandate implementations, and conducting structural evaluations within the UN system to ensure its functionality and effectiveness in addressing global challenges.

Consider the following statements regarding Special Category Status (SCS) in India:
1. Special Category Status provides states with financial assistance where 90% of funds for centrally sponsored schemes are grants.
2. The eligibility for SCS includes factors such as hilly terrain, low population density, and strategic location.
3. All states with Special Category Status receive additional tax benefits on excise, income, and corporate taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Statement 1 is correct. Special Category Status (SCS) provides states with financial assistance, where 90% of the funds for centrally sponsored schemes are given as grants, while only 10% are loans. This is a significant benefit for states with SCS as it reduces their financial burden.
Statement 2 is also correct. The eligibility criteria for SCS include geographical and socio-economic factors such as hilly terrain, low population density, strategic location (such as proximity to international borders), and economic backwardness.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While SCS states do receive certain financial benefits, the specific tax concessions on excise, income, and corporate taxes have been largely integrated into the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, which has standardized indirect taxes across the country. Although SCS states previously enjoyed certain tax benefits, these have been reduced or altered significantly with the implementation of GST, and not all SCS states receive these benefits uniformly.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the accurate answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
China has historically dominated the market for nuclear energy in Africa.
Statement-II:
India's energy security is not impacted by China's growing influence in Africa's nuclear energy market.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly states that China has dominated the market for nuclear energy in Africa. This is supported by the information provided in the text, highlighting China's significant presence and initiatives in the African nuclear energy sector. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that India's energy security is not impacted by China's influence in Africa's nuclear energy market. The text indicates that China's dominance in Africa's nuclear market may restrict India's access to vital uranium supplies, thereby affecting India's energy security. Hence, Statement-II is incorrect, making option (c) the correct choice.

What is the significance of the Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Udaipur?
  • a)
    Historical importance
  • b)
    Largest wildlife sanctuary in India
  • c)
    Home to the highest population of tigers
  • d)
    Located in a bustling city center
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Udaipur holds historical significance due to its connection with the construction of the Sajjangarh Fort by Maharana Sajjan Singh in 1874. This fort, situated on Bansdara Hill, adds a rich historical layer to the sanctuary, making it not only a haven for wildlife but also a place of historical value.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The in-house inquiry mechanism for judges was established to hold judges accountable for misconduct that does not meet the impeachment standard.
Statement-II:
The impeachment of judges in India is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution, requiring a two-thirds majority in both houses of Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered

- Statement-I is accurate. The in-house inquiry mechanism for judges was indeed established to hold judges accountable for misconduct that does not meet the impeachment standard. This process operates separately from the impeachment process outlined in the Constitution.
- Statement-II is also correct. The impeachment of judges in India is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution, necessitating a two-thirds majority in both houses of Parliament for a judge to be removed from office.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II helps explain the purpose and context of Statement-I, making option (a) the accurate choice.

What is a key aspect of astronauts' recovery process after extended space missions?
  • a)
    Focus on immediate return to physical fitness
  • b)
    Emphasis on mental well-being only
  • c)
    Tailored rehabilitation program for each astronaut
  • d)
    Reliance solely on medical assessments
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Astronauts undergo a structured recovery process after extended space missions, including a tailored rehabilitation program that is customized to address each astronaut's individual needs. This program focuses on regaining fitness and strength, essential for readjusting safely to life on Earth after exposure to microgravity. It is crucial in helping astronauts overcome the physiological changes they experience during space missions and facilitates their re-adaptation to Earth's gravity.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Ruellia elegans - Native to Brazil
2. Brazilian petunia - Native to India
3. Taurus KEPD-350 - Produced by Taurus Systems GmbH
4. Gripen Fighter Jets - Operated by Sweden
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Ruellia elegans - Native to Brazil: This pair is correctly matched. Ruellia elegans, also known as the Brazilian petunia, is indeed native to Brazil and thrives in wet tropical biomes.
2. Brazilian petunia - Native to India: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Brazilian petunia, which is another name for Ruellia elegans, is native to Brazil, not India. It is considered an invasive species in India.
3. Taurus KEPD-350 - Produced by Taurus Systems GmbH: This pair is correctly matched. The Taurus KEPD-350 is a long-range, precision-guided cruise missile produced by Taurus Systems GmbH, a collaboration between Germany's MBDA Deutschland GmbH and Sweden's Saab Bofors Dynamics.
4. Gripen Fighter Jets - Operated by Sweden: This pair is correctly matched. The Gripen fighter jets are indeed operated by Sweden and are a key component of their air force's capabilities.
Thus, out of the four pairs, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 3, and 4.

What is the primary mode of transmission of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)?
  • a)
    Through person-to-person contact
  • b)
    By consuming contaminated water
  • c)
    Via inhalation of particles from rodents
  • d)
    Through airborne droplets
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
The primary mode of transmission of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) is through the inhalation of particles from rodents, such as rats and mice. This occurs when individuals come into contact with urine, droppings, or saliva from infected rodents. It is crucial to be aware of this mode of transmission to take necessary precautions, especially in environments where rodents may be present.

What principle in WTO regulations stipulates that any trade advantage given to one member must also be extended to all members?
  • a)
    Most Favoured Nation (MFN) Principle
  • b)
    Substantially All Trade Requirement
  • c)
    Notification and Transparency Obligations
  • d)
    Bound Tariff Commitments
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) Principle in WTO rules mandates that any trade advantage provided to one member must also be extended to all members, ensuring fair and non-discriminatory trade practices. This principle aims to prevent discrimination between trading partners and promote equal treatment in trade relations. Compliance with the MFN principle is essential to uphold the core principles of the World Trade Organization and maintain a level playing field in international trade.

What is the primary objective of AIKosha, the IndiaAI Datasets Platform?
  • a)
    To promote AI research exclusively in government sectors
  • b)
    To provide access to high-quality, non-personal datasets and AI models
  • c)
    To restrict AI innovation to established companies
  • d)
    To limit access to AI development tools and tutorials
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The primary objective of AIKosha, the IndiaAI Datasets Platform, is to provide access to high-quality, non-personal datasets and AI models. This initiative aims to foster AI innovation across India by offering essential resources to model builders, developers, students, startups, researchers, academia, and government departments. By providing a centralized repository with over 300 datasets and 80 AI models, AIKosha plays a crucial role in democratizing AI development and supporting the creation of India-centric AI solutions.

What is the primary goal of Auroville as an experimental international township?
  • a)
    Promoting conflict and discord
  • b)
    Exploring alternative ways of living peacefully
  • c)
    Achieving economic prosperity
  • d)
    Establishing a military base
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The main objective of Auroville as an experimental international township is to explore alternative ways of living and working together peacefully. Founded with the vision of promoting peace, harmony, and sustainable living, Auroville aims to create a community that embodies these ideals. Through its focus on sustainable practices and communal living, Auroville serves as a model for peaceful coexistence and environmental stewardship.

Consider the following pairs related to international agreements and initiatives:
1. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture - Promotes biodiversity in agriculture
2. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification - Deals with reducing soil erosion
3. World Heritage Convention - Focuses exclusively on cultural heritage
4. Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) - Enhances maritime security in the Indian Ocean
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture - Correctly matched. This treaty indeed promotes biodiversity in agriculture by acknowledging the contributions of farmers and establishing a framework for accessing plant genetic materials.
2. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification - Incorrectly matched. While it addresses land degradation and desertification, it does not specifically focus on reducing soil erosion. Its broader aim is to combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought.
3. World Heritage Convention - Incorrectly matched. This convention addresses both cultural and natural heritage, not just cultural heritage exclusively, to ensure their protection for future generations.
4. Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) - Correctly matched. SAGAR indeed focuses on enhancing maritime security in the Indian Ocean region, promoting regional stability and cooperation.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs related to recent schemes and events in India:
1. PM-YUVA 3.0: Mentoring program for young scientists
2. Foreign Exchange Reserves: Managed by the Ministry of Finance
3. Raisina Dialogue: Hosted by Observer Research Foundation and Ministry of Home Affairs
4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): Reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
1. PM-YUVA 3.0: This is incorrectly matched. PM-YUVA 3.0 is a mentoring program for young authors, not young scientists. It aims to develop a new generation of writers who can explore various aspects of India's history, culture, and future.
2. Foreign Exchange Reserves: This is incorrectly matched. Foreign Exchange Reserves are managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not the Ministry of Finance. These reserves include foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF.
3. Raisina Dialogue: This is incorrectly matched. The Raisina Dialogue is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a leading conference on geopolitics and geo-economics held annually in New Delhi.
4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): This is correctly matched. SDRs are a form of reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to supplement its member countries' official reserves.
Only pair 4 is correctly matched, so the correct answer is Option A: Only one pair.

What is the primary goal of the Future Circular Collider (FCC) project proposed by CERN?
  • a)
    To study the behavior of plasma waves in particle acceleration
  • b)
    To achieve unprecedented particle collision energies for Higgs boson generation
  • c)
    To explore the potential of linear accelerators in particle physics research
  • d)
    To investigate the applications of semi-cryogenic engines in space exploration
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The primary goal of the Future Circular Collider (FCC) project proposed by CERN is to achieve unprecedented particle collision energies for generating Higgs bosons in large quantities by around 2040, followed by high-energy proton collisions by 2070. This ambitious project aims to advance particle physics research significantly and has sparked debates within the scientific community regarding its financial and strategic implications.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Betwa River:
1. Origin: Vindhya Range, near Barkhera village, Madhya Pradesh
2. Confluence: Joins Ganges River in Hamirpur, Uttar Pradesh
3. Historical Reference: Mentioned in the Mahabharata and Puranas
4. Economic Importance: Supports irrigation and agriculture in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Origin: Vindhya Range, near Barkhera village, Madhya Pradesh - Correct. The Betwa River originates in the Vindhya Range, near Barkhera village in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
2. Confluence: Joins Ganges River in Hamirpur, Uttar Pradesh - Incorrect. The Betwa River does not join the Ganges; it merges with the Yamuna River in Hamirpur, Uttar Pradesh.
3. Historical Reference: Mentioned in the Mahabharata and Puranas - Correct. The Betwa River is referenced in ancient texts such as the Mahabharata and various Puranic traditions.
4. Economic Importance: Supports irrigation and agriculture in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh - Correct. The river plays a significant role in irrigation and agriculture, supporting crops like wheat, pulses, and oilseeds in these states.
Out of the four pairs, three are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the World Air Quality Report 2024:
1. The 2024 World Air Quality Report is published by the World Health Organization.
2. Delhi is reported as the most polluted capital city globally, with an average PM2.5 concentration of 91.8 µg/m³.
3. India is ranked as the most polluted country in the world according to the 2024 report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
To determine the correct statement(s), let's analyze each one:
Statement 1: The 2024 World Air Quality Report is published by the World Health Organization.
- This statement is incorrect. The World Air Quality Report is published by the Swiss organization IQAir, not by the World Health Organization.
Statement 2: Delhi is reported as the most polluted capital city globally, with an average PM2.5 concentration of 91.8 µg/m³.
- This statement is correct. According to the 2024 World Air Quality Report, Delhi holds the title of the most polluted capital city globally, with the specified PM2.5 concentration.
Statement 3: India is ranked as the most polluted country in the world according to the 2024 report.
- This statement is incorrect. The report ranks India as the fifth most polluted country in the world, not the most polluted.
Hence, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option D the right answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the venture capital market in India in 2024:
1. Total venture capital funding in India reached $13.7 billion in 2024 due to the removal of the angel tax and a reduction in long-term capital gains tax rates.
2. The streamlining of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) process and simplification of foreign venture capital investor registrations also contributed to the favorable investment environment.
3. Venture Capital funds in India are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India under the Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) Regulations, 2012.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Statement 1 is correct: The venture capital market in India indeed saw a significant rebound in 2024, with total funding reaching $13.7 billion. This resurgence was attributed to several regulatory reforms, including the removal of the angel tax and a reduction in long-term capital gains tax rates, which created a more conducive investment ecosystem.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The streamlining of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) process and the simplification of foreign venture capital investor registrations also played a significant role in fostering a favorable environment for venture capital investments.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect: Venture Capital funds in India are not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. Instead, they fall under the purview of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), as per the Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) Regulations, 2012.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, since both statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the Income Tax Bill, 2025, and the classification of Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs):
1. Virtual Digital Assets are categorized as property under the Income Tax Bill, 2025.
2. Income generated from the sale or transfer of VDAs is subject to a flat 30% tax rate, with deductions allowed for transaction costs.
3. Failure to report VDA holdings can lead to their classification as undisclosed income, subjecting them to additional taxation and potential asset seizure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered

1. Statement 1: True. The Income Tax Bill, 2025, does categorize Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs) as property. This aligns with global practices, recognizing crypto assets and NFTs as property under the new bill.
2. Statement 2: False. While the bill imposes a flat 30% tax rate on income generated from VDA transactions, it does not allow deductions for transaction costs. The only deduction permitted is for the cost of acquisition, making this statement incorrect.
3. Statement 3: True. The bill stipulates that failure to report VDA holdings can result in them being classified as undisclosed income. This can lead to additional taxation and the potential for asset seizure by tax authorities, similar to actions taken with cash or gold in tax evasion cases.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to the Marbled Cat and Majuli Island:
1. Marbled Cat - Nocturnal and Crepuscular
2. Dehing Patkai National Park - Located in Dibrugarh district
3. Majuli Island - World's largest river island
4. Tai Phake Tribe - Indigenous to Majuli Island
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only three pairs
  • c)
    Only two pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
1. Marbled Cat - Nocturnal and Crepuscular: Correctly matched. The marbled cat is primarily nocturnal and crepuscular, meaning it is most active during dawn and dusk.
2. Dehing Patkai National Park - Located in Dibrugarh district: Incorrectly matched. Dehing Patkai National Park is located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, not Dibrugarh.
3. Majuli Island - World's largest river island: Correctly matched. Majuli is recognized as the world's largest river island, located in Assam.
4. Tai Phake Tribe - Indigenous to Majuli Island: Incorrectly matched. The Tai Phake tribe is indigenous to the areas around Dehing Patkai National Park, not Majuli Island. The primary tribes on Majuli are the Mishing, Deori, and Sonowal Kachari.
Three pairs are correctly matched: Pairs 1, 3, and 4.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Nag Anti-Tank Missile System (NAMIS): Features a first-generation 'fire-and-forget' missile capability.
2. Tejas Mk1A: An indigenous fighter aircraft whose operational capabilities are partially dependent on U.S. engines.
3. Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI): An agreement between India and the U.S. that ensures complete technology transfer including intellectual property rights.
4. S-400: A Russian air defense system provided to India, highlighting Russia's role as a stable supplier.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Nag Anti-Tank Missile System (NAMIS): Incorrect. NAMIS features a third-generation 'fire-and-forget' missile capability, not first-generation. This advanced technology allows the missile to engage targets without requiring further guidance after launch.
2. Tejas Mk1A: Correct. The Tejas Mk1A is an indigenous fighter aircraft developed by India, and its operational capabilities are indeed partially dependent on U.S. engines. This highlights India's strategic partnerships for critical technological components.
3. Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI): Incorrect. While the DTTI aims to enhance defense cooperation, it does not guarantee complete technology transfer, including intellectual property rights. The unpredictability of U.S. foreign policy also complicates assurances of full technology transfer.
4. S-400: Correct. The S-400 is a Russian air defense system supplied to India, demonstrating Russia's role as a stable supplier. This system is critical for India's strategic defense capabilities and is part of efforts to diversify defense procurements.
In conclusion, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched, resulting in a total of two correctly matched pairs.

Consider the following pairs related to different types of hydrogen:
1. Grey Hydrogen: Produced from natural gas with carbon capture technology.
2. Blue Hydrogen: Produced from fossil fuels without carbon capture.
3. Green Hydrogen: Generated via electrolysis powered by renewable energy sources.
4. Pink Hydrogen: Created through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
1. Grey Hydrogen: Incorrectly matched. Grey hydrogen is produced from natural gas but without carbon capture technology, which results in high CO₂ emissions.
2. Blue Hydrogen: Incorrectly matched. Blue hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture, utilization, and storage (CCUS) technology, reducing CO₂ emissions.
3. Green Hydrogen: Correctly matched. It is generated via the electrolysis of water powered by renewable energy sources like solar or wind, making it a sustainable form of hydrogen with no CO₂ emissions.
4. Pink Hydrogen: Correctly matched. It is created through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy, offering low emissions since nuclear power does not produce carbon emissions.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched, making the total correctly matched pairs three.

What is the primary objective of the Indian government's incentive policy for electronic components manufacturing?
  • a)
    To reduce the dependence on imports of finished electronic products
  • b)
    To enhance domestic value addition in the production of electronic components
  • c)
    To increase the production of mobile phones in India
  • d)
    To attract foreign companies to manufacture electronic components in India
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The Indian government's incentive policy for electronic components manufacturing primarily aims to enhance domestic value addition in the sector. It focuses on increasing domestic production from the current 15-20% to 30-40% by offering significant incentives. The policy also targets key components like display modules and printed circuit boards, aiming to make India self-reliant in the electronic components sector. This is part of the broader push to reduce the import dependency and boost local manufacturing.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Gender Budget for 2025 significantly increased due to the inclusion of the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, which accounts for 24% of the total allocation.
2. The Economic Survey 2023-24 recommended a public investment of 5% of GDP in care infrastructure to alleviate the burden of unpaid care work.
3. Indian women spend 40% more time on unpaid care work compared to their counterparts in South Africa and China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
Statement 1 is correct. The Gender Budget for 2025 has indeed seen a significant increase largely due to the inclusion of the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, which comprises 24% of the Gender Budget. This reflects a notable change in the allocation within the budget that emphasizes social welfare schemes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Economic Survey 2023-24 recommended a direct public investment of 2% of GDP in care infrastructure, not 5%. This recommendation was made to create job opportunities and reduce the burden of unpaid care work, but the percentage of GDP recommended for this investment was 2%.
Statement 3 is correct. Indian women indeed spend 40% more time on unpaid care work compared to their counterparts in South Africa and China. This highlights the disproportionate burden of care work shouldered by Indian women, which affects their participation in the formal labor force.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C

Consider the following pairs:
1. Melioidosis - Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
2. Assam Rifles - Operational command under Ministry of Home Affairs
3. NECTAR - Established under the Department of Science & Technology
4. Melioidosis - Transmitted from animals to humans
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
1. Melioidosis - Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei: This pair is correctly matched. Melioidosis is indeed caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei.
2. Assam Rifles - Operational command under Ministry of Home Affairs: This pair is incorrectly matched. The operational command of Assam Rifles is actually with the Indian Army, not the Ministry of Home Affairs, though it is administratively controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. NECTAR - Established under the Department of Science & Technology: This pair is correctly matched. NECTAR is an autonomous society established under the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India.
4. Melioidosis - Transmitted from animals to humans: This pair is incorrectly matched. Melioidosis is not transmitted from animals to humans. It spreads through direct contact with contaminated soil, water, or air.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1 and 3.

Consider the following pairs regarding initiatives and concepts related to women in STEM and AI in India:
1. Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) - A program to retain women in STEM fields.
2. AI Kosha - A platform for personal data management.
3. Women in Science and Engineering-Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (WISE-KIRAN) - An initiative aimed at promoting gender equity in science.
4. IndiaAI Mission - A mission focused on developing AI solutions for regional languages.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
1. Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) - A program to retain women in STEM fields.
Correct. GATI is an initiative aimed at promoting gender equity and retaining women in STEM fields by transforming institutional practices to be more inclusive.
2. AI Kosha - A platform for personal data management.
Incorrect. AI Kosha is not for personal data management; it is a centralized repository for non-personal datasets to facilitate AI model training, particularly for Indian languages.
3. Women in Science and Engineering-Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (WISE-KIRAN) - An initiative aimed at promoting gender equity in science.
Correct. WISE-KIRAN is designed to support and promote gender equity in science and engineering fields.
4. IndiaAI Mission - A mission focused on developing AI solutions for regional languages.
Correct. The IndiaAI Mission, which includes AI Kosha as a component, focuses on democratizing AI access and fostering innovation, including solutions for regional languages.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three pairs correct.

Consider the following pairs regarding the disclosure of judges' assets:
1. 1997 Resolution - Mandated public disclosure of judges' assets
2. 2009 Resolution - Allowed voluntary disclosure of judges' assets on the Supreme Court website
3. 2019 RTI Case - Ruled judges' assets as personal information
4. Parliamentary Committee 2023 - Recommended mandatory disclosure of judges' assets
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. 1997 Resolution - Incorrectly matched. The 1997 Resolution, under Chief Justice J S Verma, required judges to declare their assets to the Chief Justice but did not mandate public disclosure.
2. 2009 Resolution - Correctly matched. The 2009 Resolution allowed for voluntary disclosure of judges' assets on the Supreme Court's website, which some High Courts followed.
3. 2019 RTI Case - Incorrectly matched. In the 2019 RTI case, the Supreme Court ruled that judges' assets and liabilities do not qualify as "personal information," contrary to what is stated in the pair.
4. Parliamentary Committee 2023 - Correctly matched. The 2023 Parliamentary Committee did recommend a law mandating the disclosure of judges' assets, although no legislative action has been taken yet.
The correctly matched pairs are 2 and 4.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The New Income Tax Bill aims to modernize India's tax framework by incorporating digital assets and enhancing tax investigation powers.
Statement-II:
The Dehing Patkai National Park is situated in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam and is known for its rich biodiversity, including the recent sighting of the Clouded Leopard.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I correctly summarizes the key provisions of the New Income Tax Bill, highlighting its objectives related to modernizing India's tax system by incorporating digital assets and empowering tax authorities for better investigation in virtual spaces. This aligns with the information provided in the text regarding the provisions of the bill and the focus on digital assets.

Statement-II accurately describes the Dehing Patkai National Park, its location in Assam, and its significance in biodiversity conservation, including the recent sighting of the Clouded Leopard. This information is in line with the details presented in the text about the park's location, area, biodiversity, and recent wildlife sightings.

Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I by providing additional context and specific details related to the respective topics.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Muzhara Movement - Demand for industrial labor rights
2. Champaran Satyagraha - Addressing indigo plantation issues
3. Sansad Bhashini Initiative - AI integration in parliamentary processes
4. Nitaqat Policy - Localization policy in the UAE
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
1. Muzhara Movement - Demand for industrial labor rights: Incorrect. The Muzhara Movement was about landless peasants in Punjab advocating for land ownership rights, not industrial labor rights.
2. Champaran Satyagraha - Addressing indigo plantation issues: Correct. The Champaran Satyagraha was led by Mahatma Gandhi to address the exploitation of farmers growing indigo under oppressive conditions imposed by British planters in Bihar.
3. Sansad Bhashini Initiative - AI integration in parliamentary processes: Correct. The Sansad Bhashini initiative focuses on integrating AI technologies to improve the accessibility and efficiency of parliamentary documentation, including features like multilingual support and real-time speech-to-text transcription.
4. Nitaqat Policy - Localization policy in the UAE: Incorrect. The Nitaqat policy is a localization initiative in Saudi Arabia, not the UAE, aimed at increasing employment opportunities for Saudi nationals by imposing quotas on businesses for hiring local workers.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 2 and 3 are correct, while pairs 1 and 4 are incorrect.

What is the primary objective of the PM SHRI Scheme launched by the Indian government in 2022?
  • a)
    To upgrade 14,500 schools for model institutions under the National Education Policy
  • b)
    To provide financial support to private schools for infrastructure development
  • c)
    To introduce vocational training programs in higher education institutions
  • d)
    To establish new schools in rural areas for enhanced educational access
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The primary objective of the PM SHRI Scheme is to upgrade 14,500 schools as model institutions in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. This initiative aims to create inclusive and nurturing schools equipped with modern infrastructure, focusing on holistic education and competency-based learning. By upgrading these schools, the scheme seeks to improve educational standards and infrastructure across a wide range of institutions to ensure comprehensive learning and development opportunities for students.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Farakka Barrage - Located on the Hooghly River
2. Urban Heat Island Effect - Reduced air pollution due to urbanization
3. Ganges Water Sharing Treaty - Signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh
4. Hyderabad - Identified as an Urban Heat Island
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Farakka Barrage - Located on the Hooghly River: Incorrect. The Farakka Barrage is located on the Ganges River in Murshidabad District, West Bengal, near the Bangladesh border. It has a feeder canal that connects to the Hooghly River.
2. Urban Heat Island Effect - Reduced air pollution due to urbanization: Incorrect. The Urban Heat Island effect actually increases air pollution as urban areas tend to trap more heat and pollutants, leading to higher temperatures and smog formation.
3. Ganges Water Sharing Treaty - Signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh: Correct. This treaty was indeed signed in 1996 to ensure equitable water distribution between India and Bangladesh, addressing water scarcity and related issues.
4. Hyderabad - Identified as an Urban Heat Island: Correct. Hyderabad has recently been identified as an Urban Heat Island, with significantly higher temperatures compared to its surrounding rural areas, as highlighted in the Telangana government's Socio Economic Outlook 2025 report.
Thus, only two pairs (3 and 4) are correctly matched.

When was NATO founded?
  • a)
    1956
  • b)
    1949
  • c)
    1965
  • d)
    1972
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
NATO, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, was founded in 1949 with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, also known as the Washington Treaty. This alliance was established to counter Soviet expansion in post-World War II Europe. NATO's core principle of collective defense, where an attack on one member is considered an attack on all, has been a fundamental aspect of its operations since its inception.

What is the primary purpose of convening the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) as emphasized by the Parliamentary Standing Committee?
  • a)
    To enforce the implementation of the Labour Codes nationwide
  • b)
    To address the rising challenges in women's workforce participation
  • c)
    To facilitate dialogue among stakeholders and support labor reforms
  • d)
    To regulate safety and welfare conditions for workers across establishments
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The primary purpose of convening the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) as emphasized by the Parliamentary Standing Committee is to facilitate dialogue among stakeholders and support labor reforms. The ILC serves as a crucial platform for tripartite dialogue, fostering discussions among representatives from the government, employers, and employees. This dialogue is essential for addressing challenges, ensuring effective implementation of labor laws, and promoting harmony in the labor sector.

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